Daily Quiz 24 April 2026
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to “Earthquake Lights (EQLs)”, consider the following statements:
- They are luminous phenomena observed only after earthquakes occur.
- The piezoelectric effect in quartz-bearing rocks may contribute to their formation.
- Release of radon gas during seismic stress can play a role in their occurrence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation:- Statement 1 is Incorrect: Earthquake Lights (EQLs) are not observed only after an earthquake. They can occur before, during, or after seismic activity. Historical records and modern video footage show these glows appearing anywhere from weeks to seconds before the main shock, as well as during the shaking itself.
- Statement 2 is Correct: One of the leading scientific theories is the piezoelectric effect. When quartz-bearing rocks (like granite) are subjected to extreme tectonic stress, they generate intense electric fields. These fields can ionize the air, creating the luminous “glow” or “flashes” seen at the surface.
Statement 3 is Correct: The release of radon gas is another plausible mechanism. Tectonic stress causes micro-fractures in the crust, allowing trapped radioactive radon gas to escape. The decay of this gas ionizes the surrounding air, which can trigger localized electrical discharges and luminous phenomena.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation:- Statement 1 is Incorrect: Earthquake Lights (EQLs) are not observed only after an earthquake. They can occur before, during, or after seismic activity. Historical records and modern video footage show these glows appearing anywhere from weeks to seconds before the main shock, as well as during the shaking itself.
- Statement 2 is Correct: One of the leading scientific theories is the piezoelectric effect. When quartz-bearing rocks (like granite) are subjected to extreme tectonic stress, they generate intense electric fields. These fields can ionize the air, creating the luminous “glow” or “flashes” seen at the surface.
Statement 3 is Correct: The release of radon gas is another plausible mechanism. Tectonic stress causes micro-fractures in the crust, allowing trapped radioactive radon gas to escape. The decay of this gas ionizes the surrounding air, which can trigger localized electrical discharges and luminous phenomena.
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Chambal sand mining crisis, consider the following statements:
- The National Chambal Sanctuary spans across two states only.
- The sanctuary supports species that depend on sandbanks for nesting.
- Attempts to legalize sand mining in certain areas were restrained by judicial intervention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation:- Statement 1 is Incorrect: The National Chambal Sanctuary is a unique “tri-state” protected area. It spans across three states: Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh. It is India’s first and only such riverine protected area co-administered by three states.
- Statement 2 is Correct: The sanctuary is a critical habitat for several “flagship” species that are entirely dependent on its pristine sandbanks and sandbars for nesting and basking. Notable species include:
- Gharials (Gavialis gangeticus): They use sandbanks to lay eggs.
- Indian Skimmers: Ground-nesting birds that form large colonies specifically on sand islands.
- Red-crowned Roof Turtles: Use these sandbanks as essential nesting sites.
Statement 3 is Correct: There have been repeated attempts to denotify or legalize mining in certain stretches of the sanctuary. Most recently, in April 2026, the Supreme Court stayed a notification by the Rajasthan government that attempted to denotify 732 hectares of sanctuary land to free it for mining. The court criticized such moves as “illegal” and “a grave threat to aquatic life”.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation:- Statement 1 is Incorrect: The National Chambal Sanctuary is a unique “tri-state” protected area. It spans across three states: Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh. It is India’s first and only such riverine protected area co-administered by three states.
- Statement 2 is Correct: The sanctuary is a critical habitat for several “flagship” species that are entirely dependent on its pristine sandbanks and sandbars for nesting and basking. Notable species include:
- Gharials (Gavialis gangeticus): They use sandbanks to lay eggs.
- Indian Skimmers: Ground-nesting birds that form large colonies specifically on sand islands.
- Red-crowned Roof Turtles: Use these sandbanks as essential nesting sites.
Statement 3 is Correct: There have been repeated attempts to denotify or legalize mining in certain stretches of the sanctuary. Most recently, in April 2026, the Supreme Court stayed a notification by the Rajasthan government that attempted to denotify 732 hectares of sanctuary land to free it for mining. The court criticized such moves as “illegal” and “a grave threat to aquatic life”.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Delhi’s Air Pollution Mitigation Action Plan 2026, consider the following statements:
- The plan prioritizes end-of-pipe solutions like smog towers as its central strategy.
- It includes expansion of EV charging infrastructure and electrification of public transport.
- Online emission monitoring systems are proposed for industrial units.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation:- Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Delhi Air Pollution Mitigation Action Plan 2026 explicitly shifts away from “end-of-pipe” or “band-aid” solutions like smog towers. Instead, the central strategy prioritizes tackling pollution at its source, focusing on transport electrification, dust management, and strict industrial monitoring.
- Statement 2 is Correct: A major pillar of the 2026 plan is the aggressive expansion of electric vehicle (EV) infrastructure. The government aims to install 32,000 EV charging points over the next four years and transition the public bus fleet to approximately 13,760 electric buses by 2028-29.
Statement 3 is Correct: To ensure industrial compliance, the plan mandates the deployment of Online Continuous Emission Monitoring Systems (OCEMS). These systems track discharges in real-time, allowing for immediate intervention and better transparency through an open-source dashboard
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation:- Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Delhi Air Pollution Mitigation Action Plan 2026 explicitly shifts away from “end-of-pipe” or “band-aid” solutions like smog towers. Instead, the central strategy prioritizes tackling pollution at its source, focusing on transport electrification, dust management, and strict industrial monitoring.
- Statement 2 is Correct: A major pillar of the 2026 plan is the aggressive expansion of electric vehicle (EV) infrastructure. The government aims to install 32,000 EV charging points over the next four years and transition the public bus fleet to approximately 13,760 electric buses by 2028-29.
Statement 3 is Correct: To ensure industrial compliance, the plan mandates the deployment of Online Continuous Emission Monitoring Systems (OCEMS). These systems track discharges in real-time, allowing for immediate intervention and better transparency through an open-source dashboard
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR), consider the following statements:
- It uses slow (thermal) neutrons to sustain nuclear reactions.
- It is capable of producing more fissile material than it consumes.
- It uses a sodium-based cooling system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation:- Statement 1 is Incorrect: As the name implies, a Fast Breeder Reactor (FBR) uses fast neutrons to sustain nuclear reactions. Unlike traditional thermal reactors (Stage 1), it specifically avoids “slow” or thermal neutrons, so no moderator like water or graphite is used to slow them down.
- Statement 2 is Correct: A “breeder” reactor is uniquely designed to produce more fissile material than it consumes. In the PFBR, fertile Uranium-238 absorbs fast neutrons to transmute into fissile Plutonium-239, effectively “breeding” new fuel during operation.
Statement 3 is Correct: The PFBR uses liquid sodium as its primary coolant. Sodium is chosen because it has excellent heat transfer properties and does not slow down neutrons, which is essential for maintaining the “fast” neutron spectrum required for breeding.
Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation:- Statement 1 is Incorrect: As the name implies, a Fast Breeder Reactor (FBR) uses fast neutrons to sustain nuclear reactions. Unlike traditional thermal reactors (Stage 1), it specifically avoids “slow” or thermal neutrons, so no moderator like water or graphite is used to slow them down.
- Statement 2 is Correct: A “breeder” reactor is uniquely designed to produce more fissile material than it consumes. In the PFBR, fertile Uranium-238 absorbs fast neutrons to transmute into fissile Plutonium-239, effectively “breeding” new fuel during operation.
Statement 3 is Correct: The PFBR uses liquid sodium as its primary coolant. Sodium is chosen because it has excellent heat transfer properties and does not slow down neutrons, which is essential for maintaining the “fast” neutron spectrum required for breeding.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Annual Survey of Incorporated Services Sector Enterprises (ASISSE), consider the following statements:
- It covers only unincorporated service enterprises.
- It uses the GSTN database as a sampling frame.
- It is conducted under a statutory legal framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation:- Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Annual Survey of Incorporated Services Sector Enterprises (ASISSE) specifically focuses on incorporated service sector entities. These are formal companies registered under the Companies Act (1956/2013) or the Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) Act, 2008. The unincorporated service sector (informal sector) is covered by a separate survey called the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE).
- Statement 2 is Correct: The ASISSE utilizes the Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) database as its primary sampling frame. This allows the National Statistical Office (NSO) to identify and survey active, formal enterprises across sectors like IT, transport, hospitality, and health.
Statement 3 is Correct: The survey is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). It operates under the Collection of Statistics Act, 2008 (and its 2017 amendment), which provides the statutory legal framework for the mandatory collection of statistical data from enterprises in India.
Incorrect
Answer: (d)
Explanation:- Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Annual Survey of Incorporated Services Sector Enterprises (ASISSE) specifically focuses on incorporated service sector entities. These are formal companies registered under the Companies Act (1956/2013) or the Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) Act, 2008. The unincorporated service sector (informal sector) is covered by a separate survey called the Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE).
- Statement 2 is Correct: The ASISSE utilizes the Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) database as its primary sampling frame. This allows the National Statistical Office (NSO) to identify and survey active, formal enterprises across sectors like IT, transport, hospitality, and health.
Statement 3 is Correct: The survey is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). It operates under the Collection of Statistics Act, 2008 (and its 2017 amendment), which provides the statutory legal framework for the mandatory collection of statistical data from enterprises in India.
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