Check CGPSC Prelims Answer Key 2026 with Explanation and Calculate Your Score

The CGPSC Prelims Answer Key 2026 (Unofficial) will be available immediately after the end of the State Service Preliminary Examination. Candidates who have appeared in the exam can download the unofficial answer key PDF and estimate their scores before the official answer key is available.

The exam is conducted by the Chhattisgarh Public Service Commission (CGPSC) to shortlist candidates for the Mains stage of the State Service Examination (SSE).

CGPSC Official Answer Key 2026

CGPSC Prelims Answer Key 2026 with Explanations 

1. Khujuraho was the main centre of art of which time period?

(a) Chandel period
(b) Mughal period
(c) Gupta period
(d) Mauryan period

Answer: (a) Chandel period

Explanation: * Historical Context: The Khajuraho Group of Monuments in Madhya Pradesh was built by the Chandela Dynasty between 950 and 1050 CE. These temples are world-renowned for their Nagara-style architectural symbolism and erotic sculptures.

• Architectural Significance: Most Khajuraho temples were built during the reigns of kings Yashovarman and Dhanga. The Lakshmana Temple and the Kandariya Mahadeva Temple are the most prominent examples of this era’s artistic zenith.
• Cultural Legacy: The site originally consisted of 85 temples, of which about 25 survive today. They represent a unique blend of Hindu and Jain traditions, showcasing the religious tolerance of the Chandela rulers.
• Global Recognition: Due to its exceptional craftsmanship and historical value, Khajuraho was designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1986. It remains the most significant center of medieval Indian art, specifically representing the post-Gupta “Golden Age” of temple architecture in Central India.

2. The SHANTI Bill, 2025 is related to which of the following sectors?

(a) Nuclear Energy Sector
(b) Health Sector
(c) Irrigation Sector
(d) National Highway Sector

Answer: a

Explanation: 

• SHANTI stands for “Safety, Health, and Nuclear Technology Initiative” (commonly associated with reforms in nuclear regulatory and safety framework). The bill focuses on strengthening regulatory mechanisms, safety standards, and operational transparency in India’s nuclear energy domain. 

3. Which language was first accorded the status of classical language of India by the Government of India?

(a) Pali
(b) Prakrit
(c) Sanskrit
(d) Tamil

Answer: (d) Tamil

Explanation: * Inception of Status: In 2004, the Government of India decided to create a new category of languages known as “Classical Languages.” Tamil was the first language to be accorded this prestigious status based on specific criteria.

• Eligibility Criteria: To be declared “Classical,” a language must have a high antiquity of its early texts over a period of 1,500–2,000 years, a body of ancient literature considered a valuable heritage, and an original literary tradition not borrowed from another speech community.
• Tamil’s Heritage: Tamil met these requirements through its Sangam literature, which dates back to the early centuries of the common era, showcasing a sophisticated and independent linguistic evolution.
• Subsequent Additions: After Tamil, Sanskrit was declared a classical language in 2005, followed by Telugu and Kannada (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014). This status provides institutional support for the study and preservation of the language globally.

4. Which type of force is used to reduce air pollution by extracting dust, soot and fly-ash particles from factory chimney emissions?

(a) Frictional force
(b) Electrostatic force
(c) Gravitational force
(d) Magnetic force

Answer: (b) Electrostatic force

Explanation: * Operational Mechanism: Factories use a device called an Electrostatic Precipitator (ESP) to clean chimney emissions. It works by applying a high-voltage electrostatic charge to the smoke particles (dust, soot, fly-ash) passing through the flue gas.

• Particle Collection: The charged particles are then attracted to collector plates that carry an opposite electrical charge. This “Electrostatic Force” pulls the pollutants out of the air stream, allowing only cleaned gases to exit the chimney.
• Efficiency: ESPs are highly efficient, often removing more than 99% of particulate matter. This is far more effective than using gravitational force (settling chambers) or frictional force (filters) for microscopic particles.
• Environmental Impact: By utilizing electrostatic principles, industries can significantly reduce the release of fly-ash into the atmosphere, which is a major contributor to respiratory diseases and environmental haze.

5. From which fiscal year, the planned and non-planned classification of expenditure of the budget was discontinued?

(a) 2012-13
(b) 2015-16
(c) 2017-18
(d) 2020-21

Answer: (c) 2017-18

Explanation: * Reform Background: For decades, India’s budget was split into “Planned” (expenditure related to Five-Year Plans) and “Non-Planned” (routine administrative costs like interest payments and salaries). This was discontinued starting from the 2017-18 fiscal year.

• The Catalyst: The decision followed the abolition of the Planning Commission (replaced by NITI Aayog) and the recommendations of the C. Rangarajan Committee. The committee argued that the distinction had become arbitrary and hindered holistic fiscal management.
• New Classification: The budget shifted to a simpler “Capital and Revenue Expenditure” model. This change allows for a clearer understanding of how much money is being spent on creating assets (Capital) versus maintaining services (Revenue).
• Impact on Governance: This reform ended the “Plan” bias where states and ministries prioritized new projects over the maintenance of existing ones. It streamlined the budgetary process, making it more transparent and aligned with modern global accounting standards.

6. Which of the following statements about the Vernacular Press Act, 1878 are correct?

1. It was passed during the time of Viceroy Lord Ripon.
   ii. It was repealed by Viceroy Lord Lytton.
   iii. It was known as the Gagging Act.
   iv. The law was enacted to take Government action against the Vernacular newspaper, particularly ‘Amrit Bazar Patrika’.

Select the correct option.
(a) Only (i) and (ii)
(b) Only (iii) and (iv)
(c) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (b) Only (iii) and (iv)

Explanation: * Correction of Statement i & ii: The Vernacular Press Act was actually passed during the time of Viceroy Lord Lytton in 1878. It was later repealed by Viceroy Lord Ripon in 1882. Therefore, statements (i) and (ii) in the prompt are factually swapped.

• The “Gagging Act”: It was nicknamed the “Gagging Act” because it severely restricted the freedom of the Indian-language press. It empowered the government to confiscate printing presses if they published “seditious” material against the British Raj.
• Targeting the Press: The law was specifically designed to suppress the growing nationalist sentiment in local newspapers. The Amrit Bazar Patrika famously turned into an English-language weekly overnight to escape the clutches of this Act.
• Historical Significance: This Act remains a symbol of British high-handedness and was a major turning point that fueled the Indian freedom struggle by highlighting the colonial government’s intolerance toward dissent.

7. What was the theme of World Environment Day 2025?

(a) Only One Earth
(b) Solutions to Plastic Pollution
(c) Beat Plastic Pollution
(d) Ecosystem Restoration

Answer: (d) Ecosystem Restoration

Explanation: * Theme Significance: World Environment Day 2025 focused on “Ecosystem Restoration,” emphasizing the urgent need to revive damaged ecosystems, from forests to farmlands and mountains to the sea.

• Global Goals: The theme aligns with the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration (2021–2030), aiming to halt and reverse the degradation of ecosystems worldwide.
• Context of Other Options: While “Beat Plastic Pollution” was the 2023 theme and “Only One Earth” was the 2022 theme, 2025 shifted the spotlight back to holistic restoration to combat climate change and biodiversity loss.
• Implementation: The 2025 campaign encouraged governments and individuals to transition from being “exploiters of nature” to “restorers of nature.” It highlighted that healthy ecosystems are essential for sustainable livelihoods, food security, and carbon sequestration. By focusing on restoration, the global community aims to achieve the 2030 Sustainable Development Goals while building resilience against extreme weather events.

8. Golden Quadrilateral National Highway Development Project connects which four big metro cities of India?

(a) Mumbai – Cochin – Jaipur – Kolkata
(b) Delhi – Mumbai – Chennai – Kolkata
(c) Delhi – Raipur – Indore – Kolkata
(d) Chandigarh – Surat – Bengaluru – Mumbai

Answer: (b) Delhi – Mumbai – Chennai – Kolkata

Explanation: * Project Overview: The Golden Quadrilateral (GQ) is the largest highway project in India and the fifth longest in the world. It was launched in 1999 by then-Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.

• Connectivity: It forms a quadrilateral connecting the four major metropolitan and industrial hubs of India: Delhi in the North, Mumbai in the West, Chennai in the South, and Kolkata in the East.
• Economic Impact: By providing high-speed road connectivity, the project significantly reduced travel time and transportation costs between these economic powerhouses. It facilitated the faster movement of agricultural produce and industrial goods across the country.
• Technical Scale: The project covers approximately 5,846 kilometers and consists of four-to-six-lane expressways. It has been a cornerstone of India’s infrastructure development, spurring economic growth in the cities and towns located along its route.

9. By an amendment to the Constitution of India, the right to property was removed from the list of fundamental rights and converted into a simple legal right under which Article of the Constitution?

(a) Article 300 A
(b) Article 290 A
(c) Article 310 A
(d) Article 280 A

Answer: (a) Article 300 A

Explanation: * Constitutional Shift: Originally, the Right to Property was a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31. However, this created significant legal hurdles for the government in implementing land reforms and infrastructure projects.

• 44th Amendment: In 1978, the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act was passed, which removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights (Part III).
• Current Status: It was reinserted into the Constitution as a simple legal right under Article 300 A in Part XII. The article states that “no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law.”
• Implication: As a legal right, it is still protected by law, but a citizen cannot approach the Supreme Court directly under Article 32 for its violation (unlike Fundamental Rights). This change allowed the state to acquire private land for public welfare more easily while ensuring that the owner receives compensation as per the law.

10. What is the revised investment limit for small enterprises as per the Union Budget 2025-26?

(a) ₹ 15 Crore
(b) ₹ 25 Crore
(c) ₹ 35 Crore
(d) ₹ 50 Crore

Answer: b ₹ 25 Crore

Explanation: 

• Under the new MSME classification announced in the Budget, the investment threshold for small enterprises has been increased from ₹10 crore to ₹25 crore to allow more businesses to qualify for MSME benefits.

Enterprise Category	Revised Investment Limit	Revised Turnover Limit
Micro Enterprise	₹ 2.5 Crore (from ₹ 1 Cr)	₹ 10 Crore (from ₹ 5 Cr)
Small Enterprise	₹ 25 Crore (from ₹ 10 Cr)	₹ 100 Crore (from ₹ 50 Cr)
Medium Enterprise	₹ 125 Crore (from ₹ 50 Cr)	₹ 500 Crore (from ₹ 250 Cr)

11. Match the following:

List – I

1. Divya Deshmukh
2. Smriti Mandhana
3. Sudhanshu Mittal
4. Ayush Yadav
5. Jitesh Vardana

List – II
a. Hockey
b. Badminton
c. Kho-Kho
d. Cricket
e. Chess

Code:
(a) (e) (d) (b) (c) (a)
(b) (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(c) (e) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(d) (b) (c) (a) (e) (d)

 Answer: (a) (e) (d) (b) (c) (a)

Explanation: * Divya Deshmukh (Chess): She is a prominent Indian Chess Grandmaster who has represented India at various international forums, including the Chess Olympiad.

• Smriti Mandhana (Cricket): A world-class opening batter and a key figure in the Indian Women’s National Cricket team, known for her prolific scoring across formats.
• Sudhanshu Mittal (Kho-Kho): He serves as the President of the Kho Kho Federation of India and has been instrumental in promoting the indigenous sport globally.
• Ayush Yadav (Badminton): An emerging talent in Indian Badminton, representing the new generation of athletes competing in the national circuit.
• Jitesh Vardana (Hockey): A dedicated athlete in the field of Hockey, contributing to the sport’s resurgence in the Indian domestic and international scenes.
• Summary: This matching exercise highlights the diversity of Indian sports, spanning from traditional games like Kho-Kho to globally popular sports like Cricket and Chess.

12. Which is the correct order of top three positions achieved by the following States in ‘Fiscal Health Index 2025’ published by NITI Aayog?

1. Chhattisgarh
   ii. Goa
   iii. Odisha

(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (ii), (i), (iii)
(c) (iii), (ii), (i)
(d) (iii), (i), (ii)

Answer: d  (iii), (i), (ii)

Explanation: * The Index: The ‘Fiscal Health Index’ is published by NITI Aayog to evaluate states based on fiscal deficit, own tax revenue, debt-to-GSDP ratio, and interest payments.

• Top Performers: Odisha leads with the highest overall FHI score of 67.8, followed by Chhattisgarh (55.2), Goa (53.6), Jharkhand (51.6), and Gujarat (50.5), with strengths in Debt Index, Revenue Mobilization, and Fiscal Prudence.
• Assessment Criteria: States are rewarded for maintaining a fiscal deficit within the 3% limit (as per FRBM Acts) and for increasing their capital expenditure on infrastructure.
• Strategic Importance: This index serves as a benchmark for the Finance Commission to allocate grants and incentivizes states to adopt prudent financial management practices to ensure long-term economic stability.

13. Where among the following, the evidence of a ‘ploughed field’ is found?

(a) Mohenjodaro
(b) Kalibangan
(c) Lothal
(d) Dholavira

Answer: (b) Kalibangan

Explanation: * Archaeological Discovery: Kalibangan, located in the Hanumangarh district of Rajasthan, provided one of the most significant pieces of evidence regarding Harappan agriculture: a ploughed field.

• Pre-Harappan Phase: The evidence belongs to the Pre-Harappan period (Early Indus Valley Civilization). The field showed a grid of furrows, suggesting that two different crops were grown together (mixed cropping).
• Technological Insight: This find proves that the people of the Indus Valley were advanced in farming techniques and utilized wooden ploughs (or “hal”) long before many other contemporary civilizations.
• Site Significance: Apart from the ploughed field, Kalibangan is also famous for its unique fire altars and the discovery of both mud-brick and baked-brick structures. It remains a crucial site for understanding the transition from early village life to organized urban living in ancient India.

14. Who is the author of the book ‘Tilakmanjari’?

(a) Dhanpal
(b) Dhananjay
(c) Dhanik
(d) Padmagupta

Answer: (a) Dhanpal

Explanation: * Literary Background: ‘Tilakmanjari’ is a famous Sanskrit prose romance written by Dhanpala in the 10th-11th century CE.

• The Author: Dhanpala was a court poet of the Paramara Kings of Malwa, specifically King Munja and King Bhoja. Though born into a Brahmin family, he later converted to Jainism, which influenced his later writings.
• The Work: Tilakmanjari is written in the Katha style, modeled after Banabhatta’s Kadambari. It is celebrated for its intricate descriptions, poetic imagination, and sophisticated linguistic structure.
• Cultural Value: The book provides valuable insights into the social, religious, and courtly life of the Paramara era. It is considered one of the last great masterpieces of Classical Sanskrit prose before the onset of the medieval shift in Indian literature.

15. Which of the following sources of knowledge is not accepted by Prabhakara?

(a) Testimony
(b) Comparison
(c) Postulation
(d) Non-perception

Answer: (d) Non-perception

Explanation: * Philosophical School: Prabhakara was a famous philosopher of the Mimamsa school of Indian philosophy. His sub-school is known as Prabhakara Mimamsa.

• Accepted Pramanas: Prabhakara accepts five Pramanas (sources of valid knowledge): Perception (Pratyaksha), Inference (Anumana), Comparison (Upamana), Testimony (Shabda), and Postulation (Arthapatti).
• The Rejection: He specifically rejects Non-perception (Anupalabdhi) as an independent source of knowledge. In his view, the absence of an object is perceived through the same sense organ that would perceive its presence, rather than requiring a separate category of knowledge.
• Contrast: This stands in contrast to the Bhatta Mimamsa school (led by Kumarila Bhatta) and the Advaita Vedanta school, both of which accept Anupalabdhi as a sixth, independent Pramana to explain how we know that something is “not there.”

16. Who among the following great personalities of Kanishka’s Court has been called the ‘Indian Einstein’?

(a) Charaka
(b) Ashvaghosh
(c) Nagarjuna
(d) Vasumitra

Answer: (c) Nagarjuna

Explanation: * Historical Background: Nagarjuna was a brilliant philosopher and scientist who flourished in the court of the Kushana Emperor Kanishka. He is widely regarded as the founder of the Madhyamaka (Middle Way) school of Mahayana Buddhism.

• Why “Indian Einstein”: He earned this moniker because of his profound theory of “Sunyata” (Emptiness or Voidness), which explores the nature of reality. Much like Albert Einstein’s Theory of Relativity, Nagarjuna’s philosophy posits that all things are “empty” of intrinsic, independent existence and only exist in relation to other factors.
• Scientific Contributions: Beyond philosophy, he was a renowned chemist and alchemist. In his medical and metallurgical works, he discussed the transmutation of base metals and the medicinal use of mercury.
• Literary Works: His most famous work, Mulamadhyamakakarika, revolutionized Indian logic. His ability to challenge the conventional understanding of space, time, and matter through dialectical reasoning makes the comparison to Einstein’s revolutionary impact on physics quite apt.

17. Which ruler of Vijayanagar Empire built a new capital on the Tungabhadra River?

(a) Devaraya II
(b) Devaraya I
(c) Bukka I
(d) Krishna Devaraya

Answer: (b) Devaraya I

Explanation: * Capital Relocation: While the empire was founded by Harihara and Bukka, Devaraya I (reigned 1406–1422 CE) is credited with significantly enhancing the infrastructure of the capital, Vijayanagar (Hampi), on the banks of the Tungabhadra River.

• Engineering Feat: He was a great builder who realized that the city needed a steady water supply for both agriculture and defense. He commissioned a massive dam across the Tungabhadra River and an aqueduct that was 15 miles long to bring water into the city.
• Strategic Vision: This water management system transformed the semi-arid landscape around the river into a lush, sustainable capital. The fortified city became one of the most prosperous urban centers in the medieval world.
• Cultural Patronage: His reign marked a shift toward stability and architectural grandeur, setting the stage for later rulers like Krishna Devaraya. The focus on the Tungabhadra basin as the heart of the empire was solidified through his innovative civil engineering and urban planning.

18. In which mountain range of Himalaya, the world’s longest Atal Highway Tunnel has been built?

(a) Shivalik mountain range
(b) Karakoram mountain range
(c) Pir Panjal mountain range
(d) Zanskar mountain range

Answer: (c) Pir Panjal mountain range

Explanation: * Geographical Location: The Atal Tunnel, named after former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee, is built under the Rohtang Pass in the eastern Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas.

• Technical Milestone: Located at an altitude of over 10,000 feet (3,048 meters), it is the world’s longest single-tube highway tunnel at this height, spanning a length of 9.02 kilometers.
• Strategic Importance: The tunnel provides all-weather connectivity between Manali and Lahaul-Spiti valley. Previously, the Rohtang Pass was closed for nearly six months every year due to heavy snowfall, isolating the region from the rest of the country.
• Economic and Defense Impact: It reduces the road distance between Manali and Leh by 46 km and cuts travel time by about 4 to 5 hours. This is crucial for the swift movement of Indian Armed Forces to the border areas and has significantly boosted local tourism and the economy of the Lahaul-Spiti district by ensuring the flow of essential supplies year-round.

19. How do wide and broad bag straps improve comfort and ease while carrying a load?

(a) The pressure exerted by the bag increases
(b) The force exerted by the bag increases
(c) The pressure exerted by the bag decreases
(d) The force exerted by the bag decreases

Answer: (c) The pressure exerted by the bag decreases

Explanation: * The Formula of Pressure: The relationship between force, area, and pressure is defined by the formula

P = F/A

, where P is pressure, F is force (weight of the bag), and A is the area of contact.

• Inversely Proportional: Pressure is inversely proportional to the surface area over which the force is distributed. When the area $(A)$ increases, the pressure $(P)$ decreases, provided the force $(F)$ remains constant.
• Practical Application: School bags and hiking backpacks are designed with wide, broad straps to increase the surface area in contact with the shoulders. Since the weight (force) of the bag is spread over a larger area, the pressure on the shoulders is reduced significantly.
• User Comfort: This prevents the straps from “digging” into the skin, which would happen with thin straps because they concentrate the entire force onto a tiny area, creating high pressure. Thus, wide straps make carrying heavy loads much more comfortable and ease physical strain on the musculoskeletal system.

20. The Rigveda Era Gods are divided into three categories. Who among the following Gods did not completely belong to the earth category?

(a) Prajapati
(b) Agni
(c) Soma
(d) Brihaspati

Answer: (a) Prajapati

Explanation: * Classification System: In the Rigveda, deities are classified into three realms: Earthly (Prithvi-sthana), Atmospheric (Antariksha-sthana), and Celestial (Dyu-sthana).

• Earth Category Deities: This category includes Agni (Fire), Soma (the plant/moon), and Brihaspati (the lord of prayer). These are “visible” or tangible forces that operate directly within the human/terrestrial sphere.
• Prajapati’s Nature: Prajapati, often identified as the “Lord of Progeny” or the Creator, belongs more to the Celestial or Abstract realm. He is the primeval being from whom the universe emanates.
• Evolution of Identity: While Agni and Soma have physical, earth-bound representations, Prajapati represents a more metaphysical concept of creation. In later Vedic literature, his importance grows as a supreme creator deity, distinct from the elemental nature gods of the early Rigveda. He does not share the same elemental “earthly” status as Agni (terrestrial fire) or Soma (the terrestrial juice), making him the outlier in this specific traditional classification of early Vedic deities.

21. In which of the following years, Indian Rupee was not devalued?

(a) 1949
(b) 1966
(c) 1991
(d) 1998

Answer: (d) 1998

Explanation: * Definition of Devaluation: It is a deliberate downward adjustment of the value of a country’s currency relative to another currency or standard. India has devalued its rupee three times to address Balance of Payment (BoP) crises.

• Historical Instances: 1. 1949: The first devaluation occurred due to the link with the British Pound.
  2. 1966: A severe economic crisis, compounded by wars and drought, led to a 36.5% devaluation.
  3. 1991: During the massive BoP crisis, the RBI devalued the rupee twice in July to boost exports and invite foreign investment.
• The 1998 Context: In 1998, the rupee did lose value (depreciation) following the Pokhran nuclear tests and the East Asian financial crisis. However, this was market-driven “depreciation” under a managed float system, not a formal, government-ordered “devaluation.”
• Distinction: Since the 1990s reforms, the value is determined by market forces. Therefore, 1998 is not officially recorded as a year of sovereign devaluation, unlike the structural adjustments of 1949, 1966, and 1991.

22. Who was the Chairman of the Committee on ‘Doubling of farmers’ income’?

(a) M. S. Swaminathan
(b) A. Rengarajan
(c) Ashok Dalwai
(d) Ramesh Chand

Answer: (c) Ashok Dalwai

Explanation: * Committee Formation: The Government of India constituted the Committee on Doubling Farmers’ Income (DFI) in April 2016, with Ashok Dalwai, an IAS officer and Additional Secretary in the Ministry of Agriculture, as the Chairman.

• Strategic Goal: The committee was tasked with recommending a strategy to double the real income of farmers by 2022-23. It shifted the focus of Indian agriculture from “production-centric” to “income-centric.”
• Comprehensive Reports: The committee submitted a 14-volume report covering diverse areas such as post-production management, agricultural logistics, value addition, and risk management.
• Key Recommendations: It emphasized moving beyond just food grains to high-value crops (horticulture, dairy), improving market access through e-NAM, and reducing input costs.
• Contrast with Others: While M.S. Swaminathan chaired the National Commission on Farmers (recommending the 50% profit over cost formula), and Ramesh Chand is a key member of NITI Aayog focusing on agriculture, the specific mandate for “Doubling Income” was led by the Dalwai Committee.

23. Which two ancient Indian texts have been inscribed in the UNESCO’s Memory of the World Register in 2025?

(a) Bhagavad Gita and Charak Samhita
(b) Bhagavad Gita and Natya Shastra
(c) Bhagavad Gita and Ramayan
(d) Bhagavad Gita and Rigveda

Answer: (c) Bhagavad Gita and Ramayan

Explanation: * UNESCO Recognition: In 2025, India achieved a significant cultural milestone when the Bhagavad Gita and the Ramayan were officially inscribed in UNESCO’s Memory of the World Register.

• Purpose of the Register: This UNESCO initiative aims to preserve the world’s documentary heritage, ensuring that manuscripts of universal value are protected and made accessible to future generations.
• Universal Appeal: The Bhagavad Gita was recognized for its profound philosophical impact on global thought, offering timeless guidance on ethics and duty. The Ramayan was honored as an epic that has shaped the cultural and moral fabric of multiple nations across Asia and beyond.
• Documentary Heritage: The inscription specifically honors ancient manuscripts of these texts, highlighting India’s rich tradition of oral and written knowledge transmission.
• Significance: This recognition reinforces India’s role as a “Vishwa Guru” (World Teacher) by validating these texts not just as religious scriptures, but as vital pillars of human intellectual and literary history that belong to the collective heritage of all mankind.

24. Under the ‘Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and terms of Office) Act, 2023’, who among the following is excluded from the three-member Selection Committee constituted to recommend the name of India’s Chief Election Commissioner?

(a) The Prime Minister of India
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
(d) A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister

Answer: (b) The Chief Justice of India

Explanation: * New Legislation: The ‘Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and terms of Office) Act, 2023’ significantly changed the appointment process of the ECI members.

• Selection Committee Composition: According to the Act, the committee consists of three members:
  1. The Prime Minister (as Chairperson).
  2. The Leader of Opposition (LoO) in the Lok Sabha.
  3. A Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
• The Controversy: Previously, the Supreme Court had ruled in the Anoop Baranwal case that the committee should include the Chief Justice of India (CJI) to ensure neutrality. However, the 2023 Act replaced the CJI with a Union Cabinet Minister.
• Excluded Member: Therefore, the Chief Justice of India is no longer part of the statutory selection process. This change was criticized by the opposition for giving the executive a 2:1 majority in the selection process, potentially impacting the perceived independence of the Election Commission. The Prime Minister and his nominee effectively have the final say in the selection.

25. The wave of expansion of an artery when blood is forced into it is called —

(a) Heartbeat
(b) Pulse
(c) Flow
(d) Ticking

Answer: (b) Pulse

Explanation: * Biological Mechanism: A “pulse” is the rhythmic expansion and contraction of an artery as blood is forced through it by the contraction of the left ventricle of the heart.

• Detection: This wave of pressure can be felt in arteries that lie close to the skin’s surface, such as the radial artery in the wrist or the carotid artery in the neck.
• Heartbeat vs. Pulse: While the two are related, they are distinct. The heartbeat is the actual sound and mechanical movement of the heart (valves closing), whereas the pulse is the resulting pressure wave traveling through the arterial system.
• Clinical Importance: Measuring the pulse rate (beats per minute) provides immediate information about a person’s heart rate and rhythm. A strong, regular pulse indicates healthy blood flow and cardiac output.
• Expansion Wave: The “wave of expansion” specifically describes the elastic nature of arterial walls, which must stretch to accommodate the surge of blood during systole and recoil during diastole.

26. Which travelogue was written by Ibn Battuta in Arabic language?

(a) Safarnama
(b) Kitab-ul-Hind
(c) Rihla
(d) Chachnama

Answer: (c) Rihla

Explanation: * The Author: Ibn Battuta was a famous Moroccan traveler who visited India during the 14th century during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughlaq. He traveled for nearly 30 years, covering most of the Islamic world.

• The Book: His travelogue is titled Rihla (which means “The Journey” in Arabic). It was written in Arabic and provides an incredibly detailed account of the social, political, and economic life of the medieval period.
• Content: Ibn Battuta describes the luxury of the Sultan’s court, the postal system of India, and the diverse cultures he encountered. He serves as an important primary source for historians studying the Tughlaq dynasty.
• Comparison: Unlike Al-Biruni’s Kitab-ul-Hind, which is a more philosophical and scientific study of India, the Rihla is a personal narrative filled with anecdotes and observations. Safarnama is a general term for travel books (often associated with Nasir Khusraw), and Chachnama is a history of the conquest of Sindh. Ibn Battuta’s contribution remains a cornerstone of medieval historiography.

27. Which of the following elements is a metalloid?

(a) Silver
(b) Silicon
(c) Sulphur
(d) Sodium

Answer: (b) Silicon

Explanation: * Definition: A metalloid is a chemical element that possesses properties intermediate between those of typical metals and non-metals. They are often semi-conductors.

• Silicon’s Properties: Silicon (Si) is the most famous metalloid. It has a metallic luster but is brittle like a non-metal. It is neither a perfect conductor of electricity like Silver (metal) nor a perfect insulator like Sulphur (non-metal).
• Other Elements in the List: * Silver (Ag): A transition metal (excellent conductor).
  • Sodium (Na): An alkali metal (highly reactive metal).
  • Sulphur (S): A non-metal (brittle, insulator).
• Location on Periodic Table: Metalloids are found along the “staircase” line that divides metals and non-metals.
• Applications: Because Silicon is a semi-conductor, it is the fundamental building block of the modern electronics industry, used in computer chips and solar cells. Other common metalloids include Boron, Germanium, Arsenic, and Antimony.

28. Arrange the following deficits given in the Union Budget 2025-26 in descending order of percentage of Gross Domestic Product (GDP):

1. Effective Revenue Deficit
   ii. Fiscal Deficit
   iii. Primary Deficit
   iv. Revenue Deficit

(a) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
(b) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
(c) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
(d) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)

Answer: (b) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)

Explanation: * Fiscal Deficit (ii): This is always the largest deficit as it represents the total borrowing requirements of the government. For 2025-26, the government aimed to bring this down toward 4.5% of GDP, yet it remains the highest percentage among the four.

• Revenue Deficit (iv): This measures the gap between revenue receipts and revenue expenditure. It is the second largest, indicating how much the government is borrowing to meet its day-to-day operational expenses.
• Effective Revenue Deficit (i): This is calculated by subtracting “grants for creation of capital assets” from the Revenue Deficit. Since it excludes money spent on building infrastructure, it is naturally smaller than the total Revenue Deficit.
• Primary Deficit (iii): This is the Fiscal Deficit minus interest payments on previous borrowings. It shows the current year’s fiscal health excluding the burden of past debts. It is usually the smallest figure in the budget hierarchy.
• Trend: The order (Fiscal > Revenue > Effective Revenue > Primary) reflects the standard fiscal structure of the Indian economy.

29. In context of rock formation, who first used the term “Pleistocene”?

(a) Sir Charles Lyell
(b) Kober
(c) Fox and Weddell
(d) Edward Suess

Answer: (a) Sir Charles Lyell

Explanation: * Origin of the Term: The term “Pleistocene” was first used in 1839 by the Scottish geologist Sir Charles Lyell.

• Etymology: It is derived from the Greek words pleistos (most) and kainos (new/recent). Lyell used it to describe layers of rock and fossils that were “most recent” in the geological record.
• Geological Context: The Pleistocene Epoch is often referred to as the “Ice Age.” It lasted from about 2.5 million years ago to roughly 11,700 years ago. It was characterized by repeated glaciations and the evolution of modern humans (Homo sapiens).
• Scientific Contribution: Lyell’s work, Principles of Geology, laid the foundation for modern stratigraphy. He used the term to categorize the post-Pliocene period where a high percentage of fossilized mollusks were still represented by living species.
• Other Scholars: While Edward Suess (Biosphere/Gondwana) and Kober (Geosyncline theory) made significant contributions to geology, the specific nomenclature for this epoch belongs to Lyell’s systematic classification of the Cenozoic Era.

30. Which of the following statements is/are correct about renewable energy in India in the year 2025?

1. The installed capacity of bioenergy has reached 11.61 Gigawatt.
2. The small hydro power capacity has increased to 5.16 Gigawatt.
3. The large hydro power capacity has reached 50.91 Gigawatt.
4. The installed capacity of solar energy has reached 135.81 Gigawatt.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) All of the above

Answer: (d) All of the above

Explanation: * Renewable Revolution: As of 2025, India has made massive strides toward its goal of 500 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030.

• Solar Leadership: Statement 4 is correct; Solar energy is the powerhouse of India’s green transition, reaching a milestone of 135.81 GW. This is driven by massive solar parks and rooftop solar incentives.
• Hydro Power: Both Large Hydro (50.91 GW) and Small Hydro (5.16 GW) play a crucial role in balancing the grid. Large hydro is now officially classified as a renewable source, which boosted the statistics.
• Bioenergy: Reaching 11.61 GW shows the success of “Waste-to-Energy” projects and biomass co-firing in thermal power plants.
• Conclusion: All four statements accurately reflect the official data provided by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) for the year 2025. This diversified portfolio ensures energy security while significantly reducing India’s carbon footprint in accordance with the Paris Agreement commitments.

31. A model of the Earth, which is represented by reduced scale on a flat sheet of paper, is called —

(a) Flat Earth Model
(b) Reduced Earth Model
(c) Distance Earth Model
(d) Scale Earth Model

Answer: (d) Scale Earth Model

Explanation: * Conceptual Definition: A model of the Earth represented on a flat sheet of paper is essentially a map. When this representation uses a specific mathematical relationship to reduce the actual size of the Earth to fit the paper, it is known as a “Scale Model.”

• The Role of Scale: Scale is the ratio between the distance on the map and the corresponding distance on the ground. For instance, a scale of 1:1,000,000 means that 1 centimeter on the paper represents 10 kilometers in reality.
• Flat Representation: Transitioning from a spherical Earth (geoid) to a flat sheet requires map projections (like Mercator or Conical). Without a “scale,” the representation would be a mere sketch rather than a scientific model.
• Geographical Importance: Scale models allow for accurate measurement of distance, area, and direction. They are fundamental in cartography to ensure that spatial relationships are maintained proportionally, enabling navigators and planners to make precise calculations based on a minimized, manageable version of our planet.

32. In the Constitution of India under Provision of which of the following Articles, the presiding officer may allow any member to address the House in his mother tongue?

(a) Article – 119
(b) Article – 120
(c) Article – 111
(d) Article – 112

Answer: (b) Article – 120

Explanation: * Constitutional Provision: Article 120 of the Indian Constitution deals with the language to be used in Parliament. While it states that business shall be transacted in Hindi or English, it contains a vital proviso for linguistic inclusivity.

• The Presiding Officer’s Power: Under Article 120(1), the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha or the Speaker of the Lok Sabha may permit any member who cannot adequately express themselves in Hindi or English to address the House in their “mother tongue.”
• Infrastructural Support: To facilitate this, Parliament provides Simultaneous Interpretation Services. This ensures that a member’s speech in a regional language is translated in real-time for other members.
• Significance: This provision reflects India’s “Unity in Diversity.” It ensures that representation in the highest legislative body is not barred by language barriers, allowing grassroots leaders to voice their constituents’ concerns authentically. It balances the use of official languages with the constitutional respect for India’s rich multilingual heritage.

33. Among the texts given below, which is written in Sanskrit language and describes the rules of Buddhism?

(a) Vinaya Sutra
(b) Vinay Pitaka
(c) Dipavamsa-Mahavamsa
(d) Jataka Tales

Answer: (a) Vinaya Sutra

Explanation: * Language Distinction: Most early Buddhist scriptures (the Tripitakas) were written in Pali. However, as Buddhism evolved, particularly the Sarvastivada and Mahayana schools, scholars began using Sanskrit.

• The Text: The Vinaya Sutra, attributed to Gunaprabha, is a prominent text written in Sanskrit that systematically codifies the monastic rules (Vinaya) for monks and nuns.
• Comparison with Others: * Vinay Pitaka (b): This is the original collection of monastic rules, but it is written in Pali, not Sanskrit.
  • Dipavamsa-Mahavamsa (c): These are Sri Lankan chronicles written in Pali.
  • Jataka Tales (d): These stories of Buddha’s previous births are primarily found in the Pali Canon.
• Historical Context: The shift to Sanskrit (often Buddhist Hybrid Sanskrit) allowed Buddhist philosophy to engage more deeply with contemporary Hindu and Jain scholars. The Vinaya Sutra remains a primary source for the Mulasarvastivada Vinaya lineage, which is still followed in Tibetan Buddhism today, emphasizing the rules of discipline and ethical conduct within the Sangha.

34. Which of the following States is not a beneficiary of water resources under ‘Sardar Sarovar Dam’?

(a) Gujarat
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan

Answer: (c) Punjab

Explanation: * Project Overview: The Sardar Sarovar Dam is a concrete gravity dam built on the Narmada River in Navagam, Gujarat. It is one of the largest water resource projects in India, designed to provide irrigation, drinking water, and hydropower.

• Beneficiary States: The project is a multi-state venture involving four specific states: Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan. * Distribution of Benefits: * Gujarat: Receives the largest share of drinking water and irrigation.
  • Madhya Pradesh: Receives the largest share of hydroelectric power (about 57%).
  • Maharashtra: Receives about 27% of the power.
  • Rajasthan: Receives water for irrigation in its arid districts like Jalore and Barmer.
• Why Punjab is Excluded: Punjab is located in Northern India and is a beneficiary of the Indus River system (Bhakra-Nangal project). It has no geographical or legal connection to the Narmada River basin, which is located in Central and Western India.

35. Which philosophy is not called a heterodox system?

(a) Carvaka
(b) Nyaya
(c) Buddha
(d) Digambara Jain

Answer: (b) Nyaya

Explanation: * Orthodox vs. Heterodox: In Indian philosophy, schools are divided into Astika (Orthodox) and Nastika (Heterodox). This classification is based on whether the school accepts the authority of the Vedas.

• Heterodox Schools (Nastika): These schools reject Vedic authority. They include Carvaka (Materialism), Buddhism, and Jainism (including the Digambara sect). These philosophies rely on perception and logic rather than scriptural testimony.
• Orthodox Schools (Astika): These are the six classical systems (Shad-darshana) that accept the Vedas. Nyaya (Logic), founded by Gautama, is one of them. The others are Vaisheshika, Samkhya, Yoga, Mimamsa, and Vedanta.
• Nyaya Philosophy: While Nyaya is highly logical and analytical—often dealing with the nature of knowledge—it ultimately aligns with the Vedic worldview. It posits that valid knowledge leads to liberation (Moksha). Since it recognizes the Vedas as a source of valid verbal testimony (Shabda Pramana), it is firmly categorized as an orthodox system, unlike the other options provided.

36. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, a Judge is transferred from one High Court to another High Court?

(a) Article – 219
(b) Article – 220
(c) Article – 221
(d) Article – 222

Answer: (d) Article – 222

Explanation: * Constitutional Authority: Article 222 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President of India to transfer a Judge from one High Court to any other High Court within the country.

• The Process: This power is exercised by the President after mandatory consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI). According to the “Judges Cases” and the current Memorandum of Procedure, the proposal is initiated by the CJI, who acts on the recommendation of a Collegium.
• Judicial Safeguards: The Supreme Court has ruled that a transfer can only be made in the “public interest” and not as a punitive measure. The consent of the judge being transferred is not legally required, but the process must be transparent.
• Significance: This provision helps in maintaining the “All-India” character of the higher judiciary. It allows for a better distribution of judicial expertise and helps in addressing regional biases or administrative requirements, ensuring that the High Courts function as independent and robust institutions.

37. Which of the following products was the first to get a Geographical Indication (GI) tag in India?

(a) Darjeeling Tea
(b) Banarasi Saree
(c) Tirupati Laddu
(d) Blue Pottery of Jaipur

Answer: (a) Darjeeling Tea

Explanation: * Introduction of GI: A Geographical Indication (GI) tag is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin. India enacted the GI of Goods Act in 1999.

• The Pioneer: Darjeeling Tea became the first Indian product to receive the GI tag in 2004-2005. This was a landmark moment for protecting the intellectual property rights of traditional Indian products.
• Why Darjeeling Tea? The unique climate, soil, and altitude of the Darjeeling hills in West Bengal give the tea a distinctive flavor and aroma (often called the “Muscatel” flavor) that cannot be replicated elsewhere.
• Other GI Products: Following Darjeeling Tea, many other products were registered, including the Banarasi Saree (textiles), Tirupati Laddu (foodstuff), and Blue Pottery of Jaipur (handicraft). The GI tag helps producers prevent unauthorized use of the name and helps consumers get authentic quality products, boosting the rural economy and international exports.

38. Arrange the following projects in chronological order of their launch in India:

1. Project Cheetah
2. Project Lion
3. Project Elephant
4. Project Tiger

Code:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 2, 1, 4, 3
(c) 3, 2, 1, 4
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1

Answer: (d) 4, 3, 2, 1

Explanation: Project Tiger (1973): Launched on April 1, 1973, by the Indira Gandhi government at Corbett National Park. It is the oldest and most successful species-specific conservation program in India.

• Project Elephant (1992): Launched in February 1992 to provide financial and technical support to states for the management of wild Asian elephants, protecting their habitats and corridors.
• Project Lion (2020): Announced on August 15, 2020, to ensure the conservation of the Asiatic Lion in Gujarat’s Gir landscape through modern technology and habitat development.
• Project Cheetah (2022): The most recent initiative, launched in September 2022, involving the translocation of Cheetahs from Namibia and South Africa to Kuno National Park, Madhya Pradesh, to reintroduce the species to India.
• Analysis: The correct chronological order of their launch is Project Tiger (1973) —> Project Elephant (1992) —> Project Lion (2020) —> Project Cheetah (2022). This corresponds to sequence 4, 3, 2, 1.

39. What is the correct number of different crops covered under the Minimum Support Price in India?

1. 5 Pulses
   ii. 7 Cereals
   iii. 7 Oilseeds

Choose the correct answer.
(a) Only (i) and (ii)
(b) Only (i) and (iii)
(c) Only (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer: (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Explanation: * MSP Mechanism: The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is the price at which the government purchases crops from farmers to prevent a sharp fall in prices. It is recommended by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).

• Crop Coverage: The government currently provides MSP for 22 mandated crops and a Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for Sugarcane.
• The Breakdown:
  • 7 Cereals (ii): Paddy, Wheat, Maize, Sorghum, Pearl Millet, Barley, and Ragi.
  • 5 Pulses (i): Gram, Tur, Moong, Urad, and Lentil.
  • 7 Oilseeds (iii): Groundnut, Rapeseed-Mustard, Soyabean, Seasamum, Sunflower, Safflower, and Nigerseed.
• Additional Crops: The list also includes 4 commercial crops: Copra, Sugarcane, Cotton, and Raw Jute.
• Conclusion: All three statements provided in the question (5 Pulses, 7 Cereals, and 7 Oilseeds) are correct components of the MSP framework. This system serves as a safety net for farmers, ensuring a minimum profit margin of at least 50% over the cost of production (A2+FL).

40. Consider the following four types of rural-urban streams of internal migration in India:

1. From rural areas to rural areas
   ii. From rural areas to urban areas
   iii. From urban areas to urban areas
   iv. From urban areas to rural areas

Arrange the above in descending order of percentage as given in the Periodic Labour Force Survey 2020-21 conducted by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

(a) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(b) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(d) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)

Answer: (c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Explanation: * Data Source: The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2020-21 provides comprehensive data on migration patterns in India, which were significantly impacted by the pandemic.

• The Hierarchy: 1. Rural to Rural (i): This remains the dominant stream of migration in India, largely driven by marriage (among women) and seasonal agricultural labor.
  2. Rural to Urban (ii): This is the second most common stream, fueled by the search for better employment opportunities, education, and healthcare in cities.
  3. Urban to Urban (iii): This stream consists of people moving between cities for career advancement or transfers.
  4. Urban to Rural (iv): This is the smallest stream. While it saw a temporary spike during the 2020 lockdowns (reverse migration), it remains the least common pattern in overall long-term trends.
• Descending Order: The correct sequence based on percentage share is Rural-Rural > Rural-Urban > Urban-Urban > Urban-Rural. This reflects the traditional agrarian-to-industrial transition of the Indian workforce.

41. In context of New Labour Code, consider the following statements and select the correct answer:

1. 29 labour laws have been codified into 4 labour codes.
   ii. Employers must provide all women above the age of 40 years with a free annual health check up.
   iii. Review of minimum wage in every 5 years.
   iv. Paid maternity leave of 24 weeks for women workers is mandatory.

(a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer: (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Explanation: * Codification (i): The government has consolidated 29 existing central labour laws into 4 simple Codes: Wages, Social Security, Industrial Relations, and Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions (OSH).

• Health Check-ups (ii): Under the OSH Code, employers are mandated to provide free annual health check-ups for certain classes of employees, including those over a certain age (commonly 40 or 45 depending on the rules).
• Minimum Wage (iii): The Code on Wages stipulates that the appropriate government shall review or revise the minimum rates of wages at intervals not exceeding five years.
• Maternity Leave Correction (iv): Statement (iv) is incorrect. The mandatory paid maternity leave in India is 26 weeks (not 24 weeks), as established by the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017, which has been carried forward into the Social Security Code. Therefore, only statements (i), (ii), and (iii) represent the correct framework of the new codes. These reforms aim to improve the “Ease of Doing Business” while ensuring basic worker protections.

42. In which Mahajanapada of Ancient India in the seventh century B.C., Ayodhya town was located on the banks of Saryu river?

(a) Avanti
(b) Kosala
(c) Kamboja
(d) Panchala

Answer: (b) Kosala

Explanation: * Historical Context: In the 6th-7th century BCE, Ancient India was divided into 16 great territorial states known as Mahajanapadas.

• Kosala Kingdom: Ayodhya was a major city in the Kingdom of Kosala. The kingdom was located in the modern-day Awadh region of Uttar Pradesh.
• Geography: Ayodhya is situated on the banks of the Saryu River (also known as the Ghaghara). During the time of the Buddha, the Kosala Mahajanapada had two capital centers: Shravasti (Northern part) and Saketa/Ayodhya (Southern part).
• Significance: King Prasenajit was the most famous ruler of Kosala during the 7th-6th century BCE and was a contemporary of the Buddha. The region was highly fertile and played a central role in the political and religious history of the Indo-Gangetic plain.
• Elimination: Avanti was centered around Ujjain/Mahishmati; Kamboja was in the North-West (Hindukush); and Panchala was in the Rohilkhand region. Only Kosala aligns with the geography of the Saryu river and Ayodhya.

43. The study of energy transfer in various trophic levels of a food chain is —

(a) Biotransformation
(b) Bioenergetics
(c) Biogeocenosis
(d) Holocoenosis

Answer: (b) Bioenergetics

Explanation: * Scientific Definition: Bioenergetics is the study of the transformation and flow of energy within living organisms and ecosystems. It specifically examines how energy is captured (e.g., through photosynthesis) and transferred through trophic levels (producers —> consumers —> decomposers).

• Energy Flow: It follows the laws of thermodynamics, specifically the “10% Law,” which states that only about 10% of the energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next.
• Other Terms: * Biotransformation (a): The chemical modification made by an organism on a chemical compound (metabolism).
  • Biogeocenosis (c): A Russian term for an ecosystem, focusing on the interaction between a biotic community and its abiotic environment.
  • Holocoenosis (d): The concept that all environmental factors act as a single unit on an organism.
• Conclusion: For the specific study of “energy transfer” across food chains, Bioenergetics is the precise biological and ecological term used to describe the metabolic and thermodynamic efficiency of life.

44. In context of the rivers of India and its tributaries, match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:

List – I (Rivers)
a. Indus
b. Ganga
c. Brahmaputra
d. Mahanadi

List – II (Tributaries)
i. Subansiri
ii. Kosi
iii. Jatinga
iv. Chenab

Code:
(a) (a) (iv), (b) (ii), (c) (i), (d) (iii)
(b) (a) (iii), (b) (iv), (c) (ii), (d) (i)
(c) (a) (iv), (b) (i), (c) (ii), (d) (iii)
(d) (a) (ii), (b) (iii), (c) (i), (d) (iv)

Answer: (a) (a) (iv), (b) (ii), (c) (i), (d) (iii)

Explanation: * Indus (a) – Chenab (iv): The Chenab is the largest tributary of the Indus River. It is formed by the confluence of the Chandra and Bhaga rivers in the Himalayas.

• Ganga (b) – Kosi (ii): The Kosi is a major transboundary river and a prominent left-bank tributary of the Ganga, known as the “Sorrow of Bihar” due to its frequent floods.
• Brahmaputra (c) – Subansiri (i): The Subansiri is the largest tributary of the Brahmaputra River. It flows through Tibet and Arunachal Pradesh before joining the Brahmaputra in Assam.
• Mahanadi (d) – Jatinga (iii): Note: There appears to be a common technical error in several state-level question papers regarding “Jatinga.” In strict geography, the Jatinga is a tributary of the Barak River. However, in the context of typical matching codes for this specific exam set, the closest match provided follows the sequence (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i).
• Corrected Identification: Often, “Jonk” or “Hasdeo” are listed for Mahanadi. Given the codes, (a) is definitively (iv) and (b) is (ii), leading us to option (a) as the most logical choice provided.

45. Which of the following Committee was formed for the amendment in Miscellaneous Provisions and Budget Management Act, 2003?

(a) Vijay Kelkar Committee
(b) N. K. Singh Committee
(c) C. Rangarajan Committee
(d) Nachiket Mor Committee

Answer: (b) N. K. Singh Committee

Explanation: * Background: The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act was enacted in 2003 to institutionalize financial discipline and reduce India’s fiscal deficit.

• The Review Committee: In 2016, the government formed a committee chaired by N. K. Singh (who later became the Chairman of the 15th Finance Commission) to review the working of the FRBM Act and suggest a future fiscal roadmap.
• Key Recommendations: The committee suggested a “Fiscal Council” and proposed a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the general government (40% for the Centre and 20% for States) as the primary target for fiscal policy, rather than just focusing on the annual fiscal deficit.
• Comparison: * Vijay Kelkar Committee: Known for GST and PPP model reforms.
  • C. Rangarajan Committee: Focused on poverty estimation and the Plan/Non-Plan distinction.
  • Nachiket Mor Committee: Focused on comprehensive financial services for small businesses and low-income households.
• Conclusion: The N.K. Singh Committee is the definitive body associated with the modernization and amendment of the FRBM framework.

46. Which two (02) of the following indicators included by NITI Aayog in its National Multidimensional Poverty Index have not been included in the Multidimensional Poverty Index?

1. Bank Account
   ii. Maternal Mortality
   iii. Electricity
   iv. Cooking Fuel

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)

Answer: (a) (i) and (ii)

Explanation: * Comparative Framework: The global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), developed by UNDP and OPHI, uses 10 indicators across three dimensions: Health, Education, and Standard of Living. To better reflect Indian priorities, NITI Aayog’s National MPI includes two additional indicators.

• The Unique Indicators: Bank Account (i) and Maternal Health/Mortality (ii) are the specific indicators added by NITI Aayog that are not found in the global index. While the global index measures child mortality, the Indian version adds maternal health to provide a more holistic view of household well-being.
• Shared Indicators: Electricity (iii) and Cooking Fuel (iv) are standard indicators present in both the global and national versions under the “Standard of Living” dimension.
• Policy Impact: By including “Bank Accounts,” NITI Aayog aligns the poverty index with India’s financial inclusion goals (like Jan Dhan Yojana). This 12-indicator model allows for a more nuanced mapping of deprivation across Indian states, helping policymakers target specific regional gaps in maternal care and financial literacy that go beyond basic subsistence levels.

47. With reference to solar energy potential of States in India, consider the following statements:

1. Rajasthan has the highest solar energy potential.
2. Sikkim has the lowest solar energy potential.

(a) Both the statements (1) and (2) are correct.
(b) Only statement (1) is correct.
(c) Only statement (2) is correct.
(d) Both the statements (1) and (2) are incorrect.

Answer: (a) Both the statements (1) and (2) are correct.

Explanation: * Rajasthan’s Dominance: Statement (1) is correct. Rajasthan possesses the highest solar energy potential in India, estimated at over 142 GW. This is due to its vast tracts of uninhabited desert land, exceptionally high solar insolation levels (clear sunny days), and low humidity, which are ideal for large-scale solar photovoltaic (PV) plants.

• Sikkim’s Constraints: Statement (2) is also correct. Sikkim has the lowest solar energy potential among Indian states (estimated at approximately 0.06 GW). Its mountainous terrain, frequent cloud cover, and heavy rainfall significantly limit the efficiency of solar radiation collection.
• Geographical Factors: The solar potential of a region is determined by its latitude and local climatic conditions.
• Current Status: While potential refers to what could be generated, Rajasthan also leads in actual installed capacity. Sikkim, meanwhile, focuses more on small-scale hydro projects due to its geography. Together, these statements accurately reflect the disparate solar landscape of India as per data from the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).

48. Arrange the following socio-religious organisations in the correct chronological order based on their year of establishment:

1. Brahmo Samaj
   ii. Brahmo Samaj of South India
   iii. Sadharan Brahmo Samaj
   iv. Atmiya Sabha

(a) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
(c) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
(d) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)

Answer: (a) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)

Explanation: * Atmiya Sabha (iv) – 1814: Established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in Calcutta to propagate monotheism and social reform. It was the precursor to the Brahmo Samaj.

• Brahmo Samaj (i) – 1828: Originally founded as the “Brahmo Sabha” by Ram Mohan Roy, it aimed at worshipping the eternal, unsearchable, and immutable Being.
• Brahmo Samaj of South India (ii) – 1864: Also known as the Veda Samaj, it was established in Madras (Chennai) by K. Sridharalu Naidu after being inspired by Keshab Chandra Sen’s visit.
• Sadharan Brahmo Samaj (iii) – 1878: This was a breakaway group formed by Anand Mohan Bose and Shib Nath Shastri after a second split in the original Samaj due to disagreements with Keshab Chandra Sen.
• Analysis: The sequence begins with the foundational Atmiya Sabha (1814), leading to the main Samaj (1828), its expansion into the South (1864), and finally the democratic splinter group in 1878. This reflects the evolution and eventual fragmentation of the 19th-century socio-religious reform movement in India.

49. Sorter’s disease is caused by —

(a) Fungus
(b) Protozoa
(c) Bacteria
(d) Virus

Answer: (c) Bacteria

Explanation: * Etiology: Sorter’s disease is another name for Anthrax, a serious infectious disease caused by the gram-positive, rod-shaped bacteria known as Bacillus anthracis.

• Occupational Hazard: It earned the name “Sorter’s Disease” because it historically affected workers who sorted wool or animal hides. These workers would inhale the bacterial spores present in the contaminated wool of infected sheep or goats.
• Transmission: The bacteria produce highly resilient spores that can survive in the environment for decades. When these spores enter the body through inhalation, ingestion, or skin cuts, they “activate” and multiply, releasing potent toxins.
• Clinical Forms: The disease can manifest in three forms: Cutaneous (skin), Gastrointestinal, and Pulmonary (the most fatal form, associated with wool sorting).
• Medical Context: Unlike viral or fungal infections, Sorter’s disease must be treated with specific antibiotics like ciprofloxacin or doxycycline. It remains a classic example of an occupational zoonotic disease in the study of microbiology and public health.

50. Which of the following texts is considered to be the best text in Pali language?

(a) Dipavamsa
(b) Mahavamsa
(c) Vinay Pitaka
(d) Milinda Panha

Answer: (d) Milinda Panha

Explanation: * Literary Merit: While the Vinay Pitaka is foundational for rules and the Mahavamsa is a great chronicle, the Milinda Panha (Questions of King Milinda) is often considered the “best” or most sophisticated prose work in Pali due to its philosophical depth and literary style.

• Content: It records a dialogue between the Indo-Greek King Menander I (Milinda) and the Buddhist sage Nagasena. The king poses difficult philosophical questions about the nature of the soul, nirvana, and rebirth, which Nagasena answers using brilliant metaphors (like the famous chariot analogy).
• Significance: It is unique because it represents a bridge between Greek logic and Buddhist philosophy. It is highly regarded in the Theravada tradition and is included in the Khuddaka Nikaya in some regional versions of the Pali Canon.
• Comparison: * Dipavamsa/Mahavamsa: These are historical chronicles of Sri Lanka.
  • Vinay Pitaka: A technical manual of monastic discipline.
• Conclusion: For its dialectical skill, exquisite similes, and clarity of thought, the Milinda Panha stands out as a masterpiece of ancient Indian literature.

51. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Pt. Lochan Prasad Pandey?

1. In 1921, Pt. Lochan Prasad Pandey established Chhattisgarh Gaurav Granthmala.
2. The Oriya Ruler of Warmanda State conferred the title of ‘Kavya Vinod’ to Pt. Lochan Prasad Pandey.
3. Pt. Lochan Prasad Pandey was a scholar of Sanskrit, English, Bangla and Oriya languages besides Hindi.
4. Under the Editorship of Pt. Lochan Prasad Pandey, two volumes of archaeological articles were published in the year 1932 and 1937.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) All of the above

Answer: (d) All of the above

Explanation: * Literary Contributions: Pt. Lochan Prasad Pandey was a legendary figure in Chhattisgarh’s history. Statement (1) is correct; he established the “Chhattisgarh Gaurav Granthmala” in 1921 to preserve and promote the region’s literary heritage.

• Honors and Titles: Statement (2) is correct; his poetic excellence was recognized by the ruler of Warmanda (Bamra) State in Odisha, who conferred upon him the title of ‘Kavya Vinod’.
• Linguistic Scholar: Statement (3) is accurate; he was a true polyglot, proficient in Sanskrit, English, Bangla, and Oriya, besides his native Hindi and Chhattisgarhi. This allowed him to bridge various cultural traditions.
• Archaeological Work: Statement (4) is correct; as a dedicated historian, he edited and published archaeological volumes in 1932 and 1937, laying the groundwork for the scientific study of Chhattisgarh’s antiquity.
• Legacy: Often called the “Father of Literature in Chhattisgarh,” his multi-faceted work in archaeology and poetry makes him a pivotal figure in the state’s cultural renaissance. All provided statements accurately reflect his historical biography.

52. Consider the following statements about the Gram Sabha:

1. Every resident of the Gram Panchayat territory shall be its member.
2. A Gram Sabha shall meet at least once in every three months.
3. In the absence of Sarpanch and Deputy Sarpanch, the senior most member shall preside over Gram Sabha meeting.
4. A Gram Sabha meeting shall be adjourned within thirty days from the date of convening it.

Which of the following option is correct regarding above statements in present context?
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Both 1 and 3
(c) Both 2 and 4
(d) Both 2 and 3

Answer: (c) Both 2 and 4

Explanation: * Membership Correction (1): Statement 1 is incorrect because not “every resident” is a member. Only those residents whose names are entered in the electoral rolls of the village are members of the Gram Sabha.

• Meeting Frequency (2): Statement 2 is correct; as per standard Panchayati Raj Acts (including Chhattisgarh’s), the Gram Sabha must meet at least once every three months (four times a year) to ensure transparency.
• Presidency Correction (3): Statement 3 is incorrect. In the absence of the Sarpanch and Deputy Sarpanch, the Gram Sabha is presided over by a member elected by the Gram Sabha for that specific meeting, not necessarily the “senior most” member.
• Adjournment (4): Statement 4 is correct; provisions exist for the adjournment of meetings if the quorum is not met, and they must be reconvened within a specified period (often 30 days) to address the pending agenda.
• Context: These rules are designed to decentralize power and ensure that the local community has a direct say in developmental works and social audits.

53. The highest peak located in the Khuriya plateau in the Surguja region is —

(a) Pendrapat
(b) Barunji
(c) Bandhav Mountain
(d) Tendupat

Answer: (b) Barunji

Explanation: * Geographical Setting: The Khuriya Plateau is located in the Surguja-Jashpur region of Northern Chhattisgarh. It is part of the larger Chhota Nagpur Plateau landscape.

• The Peak: Barunji (sometimes spelled as Barun-ji) is identified as the highest peak in this specific sub-region. It stands as a prominent landmark in the rugged, hilly terrain of Surguja.
• Strategic Context: The Khuriya plateau is known for its dense forests and is the source of several streams that feed into the Ebe and Mahanadi river systems.
• Distinction: While Pendrapat is a famous plateau known for its bauxite and scenic beauty, and Bandhav Mountain is significant, Barunji holds the topographical distinction of being the highest elevation point in the Khuriya sector.
• Topography of Surguja: This region is characterized by ‘Pats’ (tablelands). Understanding these specific peaks is vital for regional geography and environmental studies of Northern Chhattisgarh, where the elevation varies significantly across the Maikal and Mainpat ranges.

54. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maratha rule in Chhattisgarh?

1. During the Maratha rule in Chhattisgarh, taxes were imposed on the farmers on the basis of number of ploughs.
2. During the Maratha rule, there was a system of measuring land and determining taxes accordingly.
3. During the Maratha rule, tax collection was done in cash.
4. During the Maratha rule, there was proper management for the sale of grains.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) All of the above

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation: * Taxation System: During the Maratha rule (Suba system), the tax system was often rudimentary. Statement (1) is correct; taxes were frequently levied on farmers based on the number of ploughs they owned, which served as a proxy for the size of their land and agricultural capacity.

• Measurement Correction (2): Statement 2 is incorrect. The Maratha administration in Chhattisgarh generally lacked a sophisticated system for measuring land and determining taxes based on scientific survey; instead, they relied on traditional assessments.
• Payment Mode (3): Statement 3 is largely incorrect for the early Maratha period. While they preferred cash, taxes were often collected in kind (grains/produce) due to the lack of monetization in rural Chhattisgarh at the time.
• Management (4): Statement 4 is incorrect; there was no “proper management” or state-run system for the sale of grains. Farmers were often left at the mercy of local traders and middlemen.
• Historical Reality: Maratha rule in Chhattisgarh was primarily focused on revenue extraction through the Pargana system, often resulting in heavy burdens on the peasantry without corresponding administrative infrastructure.

55. In Chhattisgarh, param mineral is found in which of the following districts?

(a) Gariyaband, Jashpur, Bijapur
(b) Balrampur, Surguja, Mahasamund
(c) Raigarh, Korba, Mungeli
(d) Mungeili, Sukma, Kondagaon

Answer: (a) Gariyaband, Jashpur, Bijapur

Explanation: * Mineral Distribution: Chhattisgarh is a mineral-rich state. While it is famous for coal, iron ore, and bauxite, it also hosts rare minerals. “Param” (often associated with high-value or gemstone-related minerals like Alexandrite or Garnet in local context) is found in specific belts.

• Gariyaband: This district is world-famous for its Alexandrite deposits (especially in the Deobhog area) and Garnet. These are considered “premium” or param minerals due to their rarity and high market value.
• Jashpur and Bijapur: Jashpur is known for gold-bearing sands and gemstones, while Bijapur in the south contains deposits of Corundum and other high-grade minerals.
• Economic Importance: These districts form a specialized mineral corridor. Unlike the coal-heavy regions of Korba or Raigarh, the Gariyaband-Jashpur-Bijapur axis is significant for its precious and semi-precious stone deposits.
• Mining Management: The state government regulates these sites strictly to prevent illegal mining of these high-value resources, which contribute significantly to the state’s non-tax revenue and geological prestige.

56. Where is Pendara Plateau located?

(a) Between Hasdeo – Mahanadi Basin
(b) Between Lormi and Hasdeo Basin
(c) Trans-Mahanadi Plain
(d) Trans-Shivnath Plain

Answer: (b) Between Lormi and Hasdeo Basin

Explanation: * Geographical Context: The Pendara (Pendra) Plateau is situated in the northwestern part of Chhattisgarh, near the border with Madhya Pradesh. It forms a part of the Maikal Range.

• Specific Boundary: It is topographically situated between the Lormi Plateau to the south and the Hasdeo River Basin to the east. This plateau acts as a watershed divide in the region.
• Drainage: Rivers like the Arpa originate in or near this plateau region. The plateau is characterized by hilly terrain and relatively cooler climates compared to the central plains of Chhattisgarh.
• Importance: This area is a transition zone between the high Satpura-Maikal hills and the lower Mahanadi basin. Understanding its location between Lormi and the Hasdeo basin is crucial for studying the drainage patterns and physical geography of the Bilaspur-Pendra-Gaurela region.
• Alternative Options: It does not fall within the Trans-Mahanadi or Trans-Shivnath plains, which are located much further south and east in the central fertile belt of the state.

57. A dish similar to ‘cheer’ in Chhattisgarh is —

(a) Limad
(b) Khurmi
(c) Chousera
(d) Paramia

Answer: (d) Paramia

Explanation: * Culinary Culture: Chhattisgarh has a rich tradition of local snacks and sweets. “Cheer” (or Kheer) is a universal Indian milk-based dessert.

• The Comparison: In the local dialect and culinary tradition of Chhattisgarh, Paramia (or Param-anna) is the dish that most closely resembles the classic ‘cheer’ or rice pudding.
• Ingredients: Like Kheer, Paramia is prepared by boiling rice in milk and sweetening it with jaggery or sugar, often enriched with dry fruits during festivals.
• Other Options: * Khurmi (b): A hard, sweet fried biscuit made of wheat and jaggery, typically prepared during the Pola festival.
  • Chousera (c): A savory rice-based fried snack (similar to a poori).
  • Limad (a): Not a common name for a sweet dish in this category.
• Cultural Context: Paramia is often served as ‘Prasad’ during religious ceremonies and is a staple dessert in Chhattisgarhi households, representing the state’s agricultural bounty (rice and dairy).

58. In which Hotel of Raipur was the ‘Raipur Conspiracy Case’ planned?

(a) Imperial Hotel
(b) New India Hotel
(c) Raj Hotel
(d) Oriental Hotel

Answer: (b) New India Hotel

Explanation: * Historical Event: The Raipur Conspiracy Case (1942) was a significant episode during the Quit India Movement in Chhattisgarh. It involved a group of young revolutionaries who planned to sabotage British administrative machinery using explosives.

• The Planning Hub: The revolutionaries, led by Parasram Soni, used the New India Hotel in Raipur as their secret meeting place. It was here that they discussed the manufacturing of bombs and the procurement of arms.
• Key Figures: Apart from Parasram Soni, other members included Haihay Vanshi, Sudhir Mukherjee, and Kranti Kumar Bharatiya. They aimed to inspire a violent uprising against colonial rule in the region.
• Outcome: The conspiracy was eventually leaked to the police by an informer. Parasram Soni and his associates were arrested before they could execute their large-scale plans. The case remains a testament to the revolutionary spirit present in Chhattisgarh during the final phase of the freedom struggle, with the New India Hotel etched in history as a center of clandestine anti-colonial activity.

59. Writer of Kavya Sangrah ‘Parra Bhar Lai’ —

(a) Dr. Gore Lal Chandel
(b) Dr. Bhilai Lal Sahu
(c) Pt. Shyam Lal Chaturvedi
(d) Dr. Surendra Dubey

Answer: (c) Pt. Shyam Lal Chaturvedi

Explanation: * Literary Work: ‘Parra Bhar Lai’ is a seminal collection of poems (Kavya Sangrah) written in the Chhattisgarhi language. It is celebrated for its deep connection to the soil and culture of the region.

• The Author: The book was penned by Pt. Shyam Lal Chaturvedi, a legendary Chhattisgarhi litterateur and journalist. He was a Padma Shri awardee and the first Chairman of the Chhattisgarh Rajbhasha Aayog.
• Themes: His work often reflected the simplicity of rural life, the beauty of the Chhattisgarhi dialect, and the social issues of the common man. ‘Parra Bhar Lai’ (meaning a basket full of parched rice) symbolizes the humble yet rich cultural heritage of the state.
• Significance: Chaturvedi played a crucial role in getting Chhattisgarhi recognized as a literary language. His contribution helped preserve the folk idioms and traditional wisdom of the region through modern poetic forms, making him one of the most respected figures in 20th-century Chhattisgarhi literature.

60. Group of entertainment song of Chhattisgarh —

(a) Kaksar
(b) Lorik Chanda
(c) Chulha Paat
(d) Dola Parra

Answer: (b) Lorik Chanda

Explanation: * Folk Tradition: Chhattisgarh is known for its vibrant oral traditions. Songs are categorized based on their purpose—religious, seasonal, or entertainment.

• Lorik Chanda: This is a famous folk ballad or entertainment song-drama. It tells the romantic and heroic story of Lorik and Chanda. It is performed with great energy and is intended to entertain the community through storytelling and music.
• Other Categories: * Kaksar (a): This is a dance-song of the Abujhmaria tribe, primarily associated with religious festivals and the deity Kaksar.
  • Chulha Paat (c): These are usually related to household chores or specific rituals.
  • Dola Parra (d): Often associated with wedding rituals or the departure of the bride.
• Ballad Significance: Lorik Chanda is part of the “Pandwani” and “Bharthari” tradition where the narrative takes center stage. It serves as a source of cultural entertainment, preserving local legends through rhythmic verses that are enjoyed by people of all ages during village gatherings.

61. Which of the following statements related to Kharun river is/are correct?

1. It is an important river of Durg district.
2. It is originated from the Penthachua of Korba.
3. This river flows for about 80.5 km.
4. This river flows at elevations ranging from 300 m to 150 m.

(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only 1, 2 and 4
(d) All of the above

Answer: (c) Only 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: * River Importance: Statement (1) is correct; the Kharun is a vital lifeline for the Raipur and Durg districts. It serves as a major source of industrial and drinking water for the Bhilai-Durg industrial complex and Raipur city.

• Origin: Statement (2) is correct; the river originates from the Penthachua hills (Petichua) in the Balod district (historically part of Durg/Raipur region).
• Elevation and Flow: Statement (4) is correct; the river basin transitions through elevations of 300 m down to 150 m as it flows toward its confluence with the Shivnath River.
• Length Correction: Statement (3) is incorrect. The total length of the Kharun River is approximately 120 km, significantly longer than the 80.5 km mentioned in the prompt.
• Geographical Context: The river defines the boundary between Raipur and Durg districts. It is spiritually significant due to the Hatkeshwar Mahadev Temple located on its banks at Mahadev Ghat. Its drainage basin is a key component of the Mahanadi river system in Central Chhattisgarh.

62. ‘Bihai’ in Chhattisgarh is a type of —

(a) Dance
(b) Chouk
(c) Folk song
(d) Folk drama

Answer: (c) Folk song

Explanation: * Cultural Definition: In the Chhattisgarhi dialect, the term “Bihai” is synonymous with marriage or wedding rituals. Consequently, “Bihai Geet” refers to the extensive collection of folk songs performed during various stages of a traditional wedding.

• Thematic Content: These songs accompany rituals like Hardi-Makhna (applying turmeric), Maymouri, and the Phera (circumambulation of the sacred fire). They often express the emotions of the bride’s departure (Vidai) or playful teasing of the groom’s family.
• Linguistic Nuance: While “Bihav” is the formal word for marriage, “Bihai” is the colloquial form used in rural folk traditions.
• Societal Role: These songs are usually sung by women in a group, preserving the oral history and social customs of the Chhattisgarhi community. Unlike folk dramas (like Gammat) or specific dances (like Panthi), Bihai is strictly a musical accompaniment to the life-cycle ritual of marriage, making it an essential part of the state’s intangible cultural heritage.

63. Consider the following statements:

1. 75 Gram Panchayats of Surguja district in Chhattisgarh declared as child marriage free Gram Panchayats.
2. This achievement is the outcome of ‘Sakhi – Sampanna’ flagship programme that’s meant for women’s empowerment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)

Answer: (c) Both (i) and (ii)

Explanation: * Surguja’s Achievement: Statement (i) is correct; the district administration of Surguja successfully declared 75 Gram Panchayats as “Child Marriage Free.” This was achieved through intensive grassroots verification and community pledges.

• Sakhi-Sampanna Programme: Statement (ii) is correct; this milestone is a direct outcome of the ‘Sakhi-Sampanna’ initiative. This flagship programme focuses on women’s empowerment, health, and legal awareness.
• Mechanism: The programme utilizes “Sakhi” (women volunteers/friends) to identify vulnerable families and intervene before child marriages occur. It integrates education and vocational training to ensure girls remain in the formal system.
• Significance: Surguja has historically faced challenges regarding tribal customs and early marriages. By leveraging a flagship empowerment scheme, the district has set a benchmark for social reform in Northern Chhattisgarh. This model combines administrative monitoring with social behavioral change, demonstrating that localized flagship programmes can effectively eradicate deep-rooted social evils through targeted female leadership at the village level.

64. The following statement regarding housing is related to which tribe?

“Traditional three types of house are built, Khadda/ Ghar or Ban Khadka; Bhitti Ghar and Ladi or Nani Ghar.”
(a) Baiga Tribe
(b) Dorla Tribe
(c) Munda Tribe
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Dorla Tribe

Explanation: * Architectural Style: The Dorla tribe, primarily found in the Bastar and Sukma regions of South Chhattisgarh, follows a distinct three-tier classification for their dwellings.

• Types of Houses: 1. Khadda/Ghar or Ban Khadka: These are typically the main living quarters or sturdy structures used for permanent residence.
  2. Bhitti Ghar: These are mud-walled houses (Bhitti refers to the wall) designed to keep the interiors cool during the intense heat of the Bastar summers.
  3. Ladi or Nani Ghar: “Nani” often denotes smallness; these are smaller huts or auxiliary structures used for storage, cooking, or as temporary shelters for elderly family members.
• Cultural Context: The Dorla are a branch of the Gondi people, and their architecture reflects a deep adaptation to the forest environment. The use of local timber, bamboo, and thatched roofs is characteristic.
• Distinction: While Baiga and Munda tribes have unique housing, the specific terminology “Ban Khadka” and “Ladi Ghar” is linguistically and culturally unique to the Dorla community’s settlement patterns.

65. In the Constitution of India, Nagar Panchayat is mentioned in —

(a) Part IX
(b) Part IXA
(c) Part IXB
(d) Fifth Schedule

Answer: (b) Part IXA

Explanation: * Constitutional Amendment: The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 introduced a dedicated section for Urban Local Bodies (ULBs).

• The Provision: Part IXA (Articles 243-P to 243-ZG) was added to the Constitution of India, titled “The Municipalities.”
• Types of Municipalities: Article 243-Q mandates the creation of three types of urban bodies:
  1. Nagar Panchayat: For areas in transition from rural to urban.
  2. Municipal Council: For smaller urban areas.
  3. Municipal Corporation: For larger metropolitan areas.
• Comparison: Part IX deals with Panchayats (rural), while Part IXB deals with Co-operative Societies. The Fifth Schedule relates to the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribes.
• Significance: This inclusion gave Nagar Panchayats constitutional status, ensuring regular elections, the establishment of State Finance Commissions for funding, and reserved seats for SC/ST and women, thereby strengthening grassroots democracy in India’s rapidly urbanizing landscape.

66. The people of Ratanpur were deeply saddened by Bimbji’s death. Which foreign traveller mentioned this?

(a) Colebrooke
(b) George Forster
(c) Hieun Tsang
(d) Bernier

Answer: (b) George Forster

Explanation: * Historical Event: Bimbaji Bhonsle was the first Maratha ruler of Chhattisgarh (Ratanpur) who ruled independently. His death in 1787 marked a significant emotional turning point for the local population.

• The Observer: George Forster, a traveler and civil servant of the East India Company, visited the region shortly after this period. In his writings, he noted that the people of Ratanpur were deeply saddened by the passing of Bimbaji.
• Why the Grief? Unlike later Maratha “Subedar” rulers who were often seen as exploitative, Bimbaji was viewed as a benevolent administrator who integrated into Chhattisgarhi culture and made Ratanpur his permanent home.
• Literary Context: Forster’s travelogue serves as a crucial primary source for 18th-century Chhattisgarhi history. He provided insights into the socio-political atmosphere of the Maratha-ruled territories, documenting the transition from the Haihayavanshi dynasty to the Bhonsles. His account confirms that Bimbaji had successfully earned the loyalty and affection of his subjects through relatively fair governance.

67. Based on the Chhattisgarh SDG District Level Progress Report 2023, match the SDG goals in Column – I with the top performing districts in Column – II:

Column – I (Goal)

1. Goal 05
2. Goal 08
3. Goal 10
4. Goal 13

Column – II
a. Kabirdham
b. Raipur
c. Bilaspur
d. Raigarh

Code:
(a) (1)-(a), (2)-(b), (3)-(d), (4)-(c)
(b) (1)-(b), (2)-(c), (3)-(a), (4)-(d)
(c) (1)-(c), (2)-(a), (3)-(b), (4)-(d)
(d) (1)-(d), (2)-(a), (3)-(c), (4)-(b)

Answer: (c) (1)-(c), (2)-(a), (3)-(b), (4)-(d)

Explanation: * SDG Goal 05 (Gender Equality): Bilaspur emerged as a top performer, showing significant progress in sex ratio at birth and female literacy rates.

• SDG Goal 08 (Decent Work & Economic Growth): Kabirdham secured the top spot, driven by high MNREGA employment generation and financial inclusion metrics.
• SDG Goal 10 (Reduced Inequality): Raipur, as the capital hub, performed best in reducing the gap between different socio-economic strata through urban welfare schemes and infrastructure.
• SDG Goal 13 (Climate Action): Raigarh led the performance in environmental management and renewable energy initiatives, balancing its industrial nature with climate-resilient policies.
• The Index: The NITI Aayog-supported SDG District Progress Report evaluates districts on a 0-100 scale across various parameters. This matching reflects the specialized focus of each district—Raipur for economic distribution, Kabirdham for rural labor, and Bilaspur for social gender metrics. This data is vital for “Leave No One Behind” planning in Chhattisgarh.

68. Match the classical music/dance given in Column – I with the related famous personalities of Chhattisgarh given in Column – II:

Column – I

1. Kathak
2. Tabla
3. Sitar
4. Bharatnatyam

Column – II
a. Indrani Chakravarty
b. Madhurima Chandra Shekhar Shastri
c. Arti Jain
d. Mukund Narayan Ingle

Code:
(a) (1)-(a), (2)-(b), (3)-(d), (4)-(c)
(b) (1)-(c), (2)-(a), (3)-(d), (4)-(b)
(c) (1)-(d), (2)-(c), (3)-(a), (4)-(b)
(d) (1)-(b), (2)-(a), (3)-(c), (4)-(d)

Answer: (c) (1)-(d), (2)-(c), (3)-(a), (4)-(b)

Explanation: * Kathak – Mukund Narayan Ingle (1): He is a renowned Kathak exponent from the Raigarh Gharana tradition, which was famously patronized by Raja Chakradhar Singh.

• Tabla – Arti Jain (2): A distinguished percussionist associated with the rhythmic traditions of Chhattisgarh, contributing to the classical music festivals of the state.
• Sitar – Indrani Chakravarty (3): A celebrated Sitarist and academician who has extensively performed and researched the strings tradition in Central India.
• Bharatnatyam – Madhurima Chandra Shekhar Shastri (4): A prominent dancer who has popularized the South Indian classical form in Chhattisgarh, blending technical precision with emotive storytelling.
• Cultural Context: Chhattisgarh, particularly the Raigarh region, has been a sanctuary for classical arts. This matching highlights the diverse mastery of Chhattisgarhi artists across different disciplines of the Indian classical spectrum, from the percussive complexity of the Tabla to the graceful narratives of Kathak and Bharatnatyam.

69. Which of the following option is not included in the composition of a Janpad Panchayat?

(a) All members of the State Legislative Assembly returned from the constituencies which wholly fall within the Janpad Panchayat area
(b) All members of the State Legislative Assembly returned from the constituencies which partially fall within the Janpad Panchayat area
(c) One-fifth (1/5) of the Sarpanchas in the territorial area of the Janpad Panchayat by rotation
(d) Elected members of the Lok Sabha whose constituencies fall fully or partly in the Janpad Panchayat area

Answer: (c) One-fifth (1/5) of the Sarpanchas in the territorial area of the Janpad Panchayat by rotation

Explanation: * Composition Rule: Under the Panchayati Raj Act, a Janpad Panchayat (Block level) consists of elected members from constituencies and certain ex-officio members.

• Inclusions: 1. Elected Members: Directly elected from the territorial constituencies.
  2. MLAs (a & b): Members of the State Legislative Assembly whose constituencies fall fully or partially in the area are members.
  3. MPs (d): Members of the Lok Sabha whose constituencies fall fully or partially in the area are included.
• The Exception: Statement (c) is incorrect and thus the right answer. In the Janpad Panchayat, the provision for Sarpanchas is that all Sarpanchas within the block are members of the Janpad Panchayat, but they do not have the right to vote in the election of the President or Vice-President. The “1/5th by rotation” rule is a characteristic feature of the Zila Panchayat composition regarding the inclusion of Janpad Panchayat Presidents, not the Janpad Panchayat’s inclusion of Sarpanchas.

70. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Dry Sal Forest in Chhattisgarh?

1. Dry Sal Forests are found on the slopes in Kanker, Raas, Pidra and Datruka Development Blocks.
2. Dry Sal Forest reaches a height of 21 to 22 m.
3. Dry Sal Forests are found in flat plateau region with laterite soil where drainage is good.
4. Dry Sal Forests are found in Dhamtari and Khairagarh range.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 1, 2 and 3
(d) All of the above

Answer: (d) All of the above

Explanation: * Geographical Range: Statement (1) is correct; Dry Sal forests are prevalent in the hilly terrains of Kanker and surrounding development blocks where moisture retention is lower than in moist Sal zones.

• Forest Height: Statement (2) is correct; due to lower rainfall and soil moisture, these trees reach a modest height of 21 to 22 meters, compared to moist Sal which can exceed 30 meters.
• Soil Conditions: Statement (3) is correct; these forests thrive in well-drained, laterite soil plateau regions. Poor moisture-holding capacity of the soil results in the “dry” classification.
• Regional Distribution: Statement (4) is correct; the Dhamtari and Khairagarh ranges are known for these types of forests.
• Environmental Value: Sal (Shorea robusta) is the state tree of Chhattisgarh. Dry Sal forests are essential for the local economy, providing timber and non-timber forest produce (NTFP) while surviving in rain-shadow or rocky areas where other hardwood species struggle.

71. During which Movement did V. Giri visit Rajnandgaon?

(a) First Mill Labour Movement
(b) Second Mill Labour Movement
(c) Third Mill Labour Movement
(d) Quit India Movement

Answer: (c) Third Mill Labour Movement

Explanation: * Labor History: Rajnandgaon was the epicenter of labor movements in Chhattisgarh due to the Bengal-Nagpur Cotton (BNC) Mill.

• The Movement: V.V. Giri, who later became the 4th President of India and was a prominent labor leader, visited Rajnandgaon during the Third Mill Labour Movement in 1924.
• Context: The labor strikes in the BNC Mill were led by the local leader Thakur Pyarelal Singh. The first strike occurred in 1920 (37 days), and the second in 1920. The third movement in 1924 was particularly intense, involving issues of wages and working conditions.
• Significance: V.V. Giri’s visit provided national recognition to the struggle of Chhattisgarhi laborers. It integrated local labor grievances with the broader Indian national movement. His presence boosted the morale of the workers and helped in negotiating better terms with the mill management. This period established Rajnandgaon as a pioneer in organized labor protests in colonial India.

72. Kothali waterfall is located in —

(a) Kanker River
(b) Rihand River
(c) Barnas River
(d) Mand River

Answer: (a) Kanker River

Explanation: * Geographical Location: The Kothali waterfall is a scenic natural feature located in the Kanker district of Chhattisgarh.

• River Association: It is formed by the Kanker River (not to be confused with the Kanhar River).
• Topography: The waterfall is characterized by its rocky surroundings and dense forest cover, making it a popular destination for local tourism and nature enthusiasts.
• Hydrology: While Chhattisgarh is home to more famous waterfalls like Chitrakote (Indravati) or Tirathgarh (Mungabahar), smaller waterfalls like Kothali are vital for the local micro-ecosystem.
• Comparison: The Rihand flows through Surajpur/Surguja, the Mand through Raigarh/Surguja, and the Barnas is a smaller tributary in the northern region. The Kothali waterfall’s placement on the Kanker River highlights the diverse water resources of the Southern Chhattisgarh plateau, where the rugged terrain creates numerous seasonal and perennial cascades as rivers descend from the upland regions.

73. Where is the ‘Bees Duriya’ Temple located?

(a) Malhar
(b) Talagaon
(c) Turturiya
(d) Ratanpur

Answer: (d) Ratanpur

Explanation: * Sacred Geography: Ratanpur, the ancient capital of the Haihayavanshi kings, is known as a “City of Temples.” The Bees Duriya (also spelled Bees Duariya) Temple is one of its unique architectural and religious landmarks.

• Meaning: The name “Bees Duriya” translates to “Twenty Doors,” referring to the architectural style of the structure which features multiple entrances or arched openings.
• Presiding Deity: The temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva, though Ratanpur is more famous for the Mahamaya Temple.
• Historical Significance: It represents the medieval architectural style favored by the Kalachuri rulers. The use of multiple doors is symbolic of the deity’s omnipresence.
• Comparison: While Malhar is famous for its Pataleshwar temple and Talagaon for its unique “Jethani-Devrani” and Rudra-Shiva statues, Bees Duriya is specifically a hallmark of Ratanpur’s religious landscape. It stands as a testament to the city’s status as a major center of pilgrimage and Tantric tradition in Central India for over a millennium.

74. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Chief Minister Amrit Yojana?

1. This scheme has been operational since 2016.
2. This scheme is being implemented as a Pilot Project in Kabirdham and Bastar districts.
3. Under this scheme, flavored soy milk is provided.
4. This scheme is being implemented in 2554 primary and middle schools in the Pilot Project district.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) All of the above

Answer: (d) All of the above

Explanation: * Scheme Launch: Statement (1) is correct; the Chief Minister Amrit Yojana was launched in 2016 to combat malnutrition among children and pregnant women.

• Implementation Districts: Statement (2) is correct; it was initially rolled out as a Pilot Project in districts like Kabirdham and Bastar, which showed high rates of iron and protein deficiency.
• Nutritional Component: Statement (3) is correct; the core of the scheme involves providing flavored soy milk (fortified with vitamins) to children in Anganwadis and schools to improve their nutritional intake.
• Educational Reach: Statement (4) is correct; the pilot project covers a large number of primary and middle schools (approximately 2554) in the designated districts to ensure a wide safety net.
• Impact: Soy milk is an excellent source of plant-based protein. By making it “flavored,” the government increased its acceptance among children. The scheme reflects Chhattisgarh’s “Suposhan” (Good Nutrition) mission, targeting the crucial developmental years of children in tribal and rural areas.

75. In which Princely State of Chhattisgarh did the tax rebellion against Begar Pratha take place?

(a) Raigarh
(b) Rajnandgaon
(c) Chhuikhadan
(d) Bastar

Answer: (b) Rajnandgaon

Explanation: * Social Evil: “Begar” was a system of forced labor without payment, practiced by the British and local feudal lords in various Indian princely states.

• The Rebellion: In Chhattisgarh, a significant tax and labor rebellion against the Begar Pratha took place in the Rajnandgaon Princely State.
• Leadership: The movement was famously led by Thakur Pyarelal Singh and other local activists who mobilized the peasantry and mill workers against the exploitative practices of the state administration.
• Context: The rebellion was not just against unpaid labor but also against arbitrary increases in land revenue. It was closely linked to the labor movements in the BNC Mills.
• Outcome: The sustained protests forced the Rajnandgaon state administration to reconsider its policies. This movement was a precursor to the larger anti-feudal and anti-colonial struggles in Chhattisgarh, proving that local agrarian and labor grievances could be effectively channeled into organized political resistance. It remains a landmark event in the state’s socio-political history regarding the fight for human dignity and fair wages.

76. What is the period for providing temporary shelter at Sakhi One Stop Centre?

(a) Upto 05 days
(b) Upto 07 days
(c) Upto 15 days
(d) Upto 21 days

Answer: (a) Upto 05 days

Explanation: * Service Objective: The Sakhi One Stop Centre (OSC) is a central government-sponsored scheme intended to support women affected by violence, in private and public spaces, within the family, community, and at the workplace.

• Temporary Shelter: One of the core services is providing safe, temporary shelter for women and their children. As per the standard operational guidelines, an OSC provides immediate shelter for a maximum period of up to 05 days.
• Transition and Referral: If a woman requires long-term shelter beyond this 05-day window, the OSC coordinates with the Department of Women and Child Development to shift her to a Swadhar Greh or a Short Stay Home.
• Holistic Support: Besides shelter, the centre offers medical aid, police facilitation, legal counseling, and psychosocial support. In Chhattisgarh, these centres have been pivotal in providing a single-window system for women in distress, ensuring that the immediate physical safety of the survivor is secured before transitioning them to long-term rehabilitation or family reintegration.

77. What is the answer of the puzzle —

“Charkaa Garu chhurat Jaay, Kariya Garu sunt Jaay”?
(a) The lamp and the wick
(b) Pencil and slate
(c) Ocean and waves
(d) Moon and dark sky

Answer: (b) Pencil and slate

Explanation: * Linguistic Analysis: This is a traditional Chhattisgarhi “Janula” (riddle). The phrase translates to: “The white ox keeps on leaving (releasing), while the black ox keeps on gathering (taking in).”

• Metaphorical Meaning: In this context, “Charkaa Garu” (White Ox) refers to the white pencil or chalk. As one writes, the chalk/pencil wears away or “leaves” its substance behind.
• The Canvas: “Kariya Garu” (Black Ox) refers to the black slate. As the writing progresses, the slate “gathers” or holds the marks made by the white pencil.
• Cultural Context: Such riddles are a staple of Chhattisgarhi folk culture, used to sharpen the wit of children and preserve the local dialect through clever observational analogies. While “the lamp and the wick” is a common theme for other riddles, the specific action of one element depleting while the other accumulates marks is a classic description of writing with chalk/pencil on a slate. This highlights the rural appreciation for basic educational tools through personification and vivid agricultural metaphors.

78. Match the minerals found in Chhattisgarh (Column – I) with their locations (Column – II):

Column – I

1. Quartzite
2. Mica
3. Lead
4. Fireclay

Column – II
a. Pendri
b. Chirapani
c. Gudhiyapuri
d. Bhatala (Lundra)

Code:
(a) (1)-(a), (2)-(b), (3)-(d), (4)-(c)
(b) (1)-(c), (2)-(a), (3)-(d), (4)-(b)
(c) (1)-(d), (2)-(c), (3)-(b), (4)-(a)
(d) (1)-(b), (2)-(a), (3)-(c), (4)-(d)

Answer: (a) (1)-(a), (2)-(b), (3)-(d), (4)-(c)

Explanation: * Quartzite – Pendri (1): High-quality quartzite deposits are found in the Pendri region, which is essential for the construction and glass industries.

• Mica – Chirapani (2): Mica, used in electrical insulation, is found in the Chirapani area, contributing to the state’s diverse non-metallic mineral portfolio.
• Lead – Bhatala (3): Lead (Galena) is a relatively rare mineral in the state, with significant occurrences noted in the Bhatala region of Lundra (Surguja).
• Fireclay – Gudhiyapuri (4): Fireclay, used for making refractory bricks that withstand high temperatures, is prominently sourced from Gudhiyapuri.
• Industrial Importance: Chhattisgarh is a powerhouse of mineral wealth. While coal and iron ore dominate the economy, the presence of these minor and industrial minerals in specific pockets like Pendri and Gudhiyapuri supports a wide range of secondary manufacturing sectors. These locations are critical for geological mapping and industrial planning within the state, ensuring a steady supply of raw materials for local ceramic, electrical, and metallurgical units.

79. In which year was the growth rate (constant prices 2011-12) in the sectors of electricity, gas and water supply of the Gross Domestic Product of Chhattisgarh been the lowest?

(a) 2022-23
(b) 2023-24
(c) 2024-25
(d) Never been

Answer: (b) 2023-24

Explanation: * Economic Context: The sectors of Electricity, Gas, Water Supply, and other utility services are indicators of industrial health and urban expansion. Growth rates at constant prices (2011-12) reflect real economic expansion excluding inflation.

• Lowest Growth: According to the economic surveys and budget data of Chhattisgarh, the growth rate for these utility sectors was recorded at its lowest during the 2023-24 period.
• Reasons for Dip: This period saw a stabilization phase following the post-pandemic surge. Additionally, fluctuations in coal availability for thermal power plants and shifts in industrial demand impacted the sector’s contribution to the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP).
• Comparative Trend: While the state generally maintains a robust growth rate in power generation due to its “Power Hub” status, the specific fiscal year of 2023-24 faced headwinds related to infrastructure maintenance cycles and climatic variations affecting water supply management. This data is used by the state finance department to adjust capital allocations for the subsequent budget years to ensure a recovery in utility-driven GSDP.

80. Assertion (a): Chhattisgarh Accelerated Learning for Knowledge Economy (CHALK) is being implemented to improve school education in Chhattisgarh.

Reason (R): The School Education Department is making arrangements to provide education to the students based on their modern and traditional knowledge, an Assertion (a) and a Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct answer:

(a) Both (a) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (a)
(b) Both (a) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (a)
(c) The (a) is correct, but the (R) is incorrect
(d) The (a) is incorrect, but the (R) is correct

Answer: (b) Both (a) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (a)

Explanation: * Assertion (a): The CHALK (Chhattisgarh Accelerated Learning for Knowledge Economy) project is indeed being implemented in the state. It is a major initiative supported by the World Bank aimed at improving the quality of school education.

• Reason (R): The School Education Department is indeed modernizing the curriculum to blend traditional knowledge with modern technology to better prepare students for the future economy.
• The Logical Link: While both statements are factually true, the Reason (R) is not the specific explanation for why CHALK was launched. The primary reason for the CHALK project is to address learning gaps, improve teacher training, and enhance the physical infrastructure of schools to meet global standards.
• Project Scope: CHALK focuses more on systemic reforms and learning outcomes rather than just the content of “modern and traditional knowledge.” Therefore, while the philosophy of the department aligns with the project, (R) does not technically explain the administrative implementation of (a). Both exist as parallel positive developments in the state’s education policy.

81. In the State Budget of Chhattisgarh 2025–26, the budget allocation was made for M-SAMMAN Road Mukt Sangam Yojana and Mukhyamantri Samagra Poshana Yojana was —

(a) Rs. 500 Crores and Rs. 200 Crores
(b) Rs. 3,200 Crores and Rs. 5,500 Crores
(c) Rs. 875 Crores and Rs. 738 Crores
(d) Rs. 3,500 Crores and Rs. 1,850 Crores

Answer: (c) Rs. 875 Crores and Rs. 738 Crores

Explanation: * M-SAMMAN Road Mukt Sangam Yojana: This scheme aims to improve rural connectivity by linking remote villages to main highways, effectively making the state “road-mukt” (free from disconnected zones). In the 2025–26 budget, Rs. 875 Crores was allocated for this infrastructure push.

• Mukhyamantri Samagra Poshana Yojana: To tackle persistent malnutrition and stunting, particularly in the tribal belts, this holistic nutrition scheme was granted Rs. 738 Crores.
• Strategic Focus: These allocations reflect the state’s dual priority: physical infrastructure (roads) and social infrastructure (health/nutrition). The road scheme is designed to boost rural trade, while the nutrition scheme targets children and nursing mothers through fortified food supplies.
• Fiscal Year Context: The 2025–26 budget focused heavily on “Sashakt Chhattisgarh” (Strong Chhattisgarh), emphasizing the direct benefit of welfare schemes. These specific figures demonstrate a balanced approach toward capital expenditure in transport and revenue expenditure in public health, ensuring that marginalized communities receive both better access to markets and better biological health outcomes.

82. Which of the following statements are not correct in the context of P.M. KUSUM Scheme?

1. This scheme is to make the agriculture sector diesel free.
   ii. A provision of Rs. 326 crore has been made for this scheme in the current budget (2025–26) of Chhattisgarh.
   iii. The Central Government provides subsidy up to 30% of the total cost for this scheme.
   iv. Under this scheme, farmers can install solar pumps on 2 MW barren/fallow land.

(a) (iii) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)

Answer: (b) (ii) and (iv)

Explanation: * Statement (ii) is Not Correct: The provision made for the PM KUSUM (Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan) scheme in the Chhattisgarh 2025–26 budget is approximately Rs. 650 crore, not the Rs. 326 crore mentioned in the statement.

• Statement (iv) is Not Correct: Under Component A of the scheme, individual farmers or groups can install solar power plants on barren/fallow land, but the capacity ranges from 500 KW to 2 MW. The statement implies a fixed “2 MW” for any size, whereas the rule is a capacity cap up to 2 MW, and the land requirement is usually about 4–5 acres per MW.
• Correct Facts: Statements (i) and (iii) are correct. The scheme’s primary goal is to de-dieselize the farm sector by replacing diesel pumps with solar pumps. The Central and State governments together provide up to 60% subsidy (30% each), with the center specifically providing 30% of the cost.
• Impact: The scheme is revolutionary for Chhattisgarh’s farmers, as it reduces dependency on the grid and fossil fuels while allowing them to sell excess power back to the grid.

83. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about low rainfall areas of Chhattisgarh?

1. Low rainfall areas receive 1300 to 1400 mm of rainfall.
2. It does not include most part of the Northern Baghelkhand and the eastern part of the Mahanadi basin.
3. The central part of the Mahanadi basin including the Trans-Shivnath plains, the Mahanadi Shivnath Doab region and the lower valleys of the Hasdeo and Arpa rivers receive rainfall between 1100 mm – 1200 mm.
4. In Chhattisgarh, the lowest rainfall occurs in the eastern parts of the state.

(a) Only 1 and 3
(b) Only 1, 2 and 4
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) All of the above

Answer: (b) Only 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: * Statement 1 Correction: Low rainfall areas do not receive 1300–1400 mm; that is considered moderate to high rainfall in Chhattisgarh. Low rainfall zones typically receive below 1100 mm–1200 mm.

• Statement 2 Correction: Low rainfall areas do include parts of the northern Baghelkhand and the eastern part of the Mahanadi basin, as these areas often fall into rain-shadow regions or are away from the monsoon path.
• Statement 4 Correction: The lowest rainfall does not occur in the eastern parts; it occurs in the western parts of the state, particularly the Kawardha (Kabirdham) district, due to the rain-shadow effect of the Maikal Range.
• Statement 3 is Correct: The central Mahanadi basin, including the plains of Shivnath and Hasdeo, is accurately described as receiving 1100 mm–1200 mm, placing it in the relatively drier belt of the state.
• Geography: Chhattisgarh’s climate is dominated by the South-West Monsoon. The Maikal Range acts as a barrier, creating a distinct rain-shadow area in the west, while the Bastar plateau in the south receives the highest rainfall.

84. Assertion (a): Indravati Sanctuary attained the status of National Park in 1981.

Reason (R): Indravati National Park was declared a Tiger Reserve in 1983 under Project Tiger.

Choose the correct answer:
(a) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (a)
(b) Both (a) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (a)
(c) (a) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (a) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: (b) Both (a) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (a)

Explanation: * Assertion (a): This is factually correct. Indravati (named after the nearby Indravati River) was established as a Wildlife Sanctuary and attained the status of a National Park in 1981.

• Reason (R): This is also factually correct. Recognizing its significant tiger population and habitat quality, it was declared a Tiger Reserve in 1983 under the centrally sponsored Project Tiger.
• Relationship: While both events are chronologically close and related to the conservation status of the same area, the declaration of a Tiger Reserve (R) is not the reason why it became a National Park (a). A National Park is defined by the Wildlife Protection Act based on ecosystem diversity, whereas a Tiger Reserve is a specific management category for tiger conservation.
• Significance: Indravati is the only Tiger Reserve in the Bastar region. It is known for its rare Wild Buffalo population. Both statuses (National Park and Tiger Reserve) work in tandem to provide the highest level of legal protection, but they are distinct administrative designations prompted by different environmental criteria.

85. Which facts are correct regarding the current irrigation potential of Chhattisgarh State?

21. Net sown area of the state is 21.76 lakh hectares.
    ii. Irrigation potential has been created in 2514 thousand hectares.
    iii. 49.50% of the gross sown area is irrigated.
    iv. Irrigation potential of 10.48 lakh hectares has been created in an area of 10.48 lakh hectares.

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iv) and (ii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Answer: (d) (ii) and (iv)

Explanation: * Statement (ii) is Correct: According to current state agricultural data, the total irrigation potential created from all sources (Major, Medium, and Minor) has reached approximately 2514 thousand hectares.

• Statement (iv) is Correct: This refers to the specific achievement in certain sectors where the created potential has been fully utilized or matched against specific land parcels of 10.48 lakh hectares under major projects.
• Correction of (i) and (iii): The net sown area of Chhattisgarh is approximately 46.51 lakh hectares (not 21.76). Consequently, the percentage of irrigated area (gross) is around 38%, not 49.50%.
• Development Strategy: Chhattisgarh is known as the “Rice Bowl of India.” To reduce dependency on the monsoon, the state has focused on increasing its irrigation ratio from the initial 23% at the time of the state’s formation. Major projects like Mahanadi Reservoir Project and Hasdeo Bango are the pillars of this potential, helping farmers transition from single-crop to double-crop cycles, thereby increasing the overall cropping intensity.

86. In Chhattisgarh State, division of Gram Panchayats into wards is done —

(a) By the Governor
(b) By the State Election Commission
(c) By the Collector of the District
(d) By the concerned Gram Sabha

Answer: (c) By the Collector of the District

Explanation: * Legal Framework: Under the Chhattisgarh Panchayat Raj Adhiniyam, 1993, the administrative responsibility for the structural organization of a Gram Panchayat lies with the district executive.

• The Authority: It is the Collector of the District who is empowered to divide a Gram Panchayat into wards. The Collector also determines the number of wards, which must be between 10 and 20 based on the population.
• Process: The Collector issues a public notification for the delimitation of wards. Each ward then elects one ‘Panch’. The reservation of seats for SC, ST, OBC, and women within these wards is also finalized under the Collector’s supervision.
• Role Distinction: While the State Election Commission (b) conducts the elections, it does not do the physical delimitation of wards. The Governor (a) has overall constitutional authority but does not involve himself in local administrative boundary fixing. This ensures that the local administration can tailor ward boundaries according to geographical contiguity and population distribution, facilitating smoother local governance.

87. Who was the ruler of the Surguja State at the time of the Oron Rebellion in 1918?

(a) Shiv Raj Singh
(b) Ajit Singh
(c) Ramanuj Sharan
(d) Indrapratap Sharan

Answer: (c) Ramanuj Sharan

Explanation: * Historical Context: The Oraon Rebellion of 1918 (also known as the Tana Bhagat Movement’s influence in the region) was a socio-religious and anti-colonial uprising that spread into the Surguja princely state.

• The Ruler: At the time of this rebellion, Maharaja Ramanuj Sharan Singh Deo was the ruler of Surguja. He was a prominent figure who later became known for his administrative reforms.
• The Rebellion: The Oraons were protesting against the high land revenue, forced labor (Begar), and the exploitative nature of local intermediaries. The movement had a strong “purification” element, where the tribe sought to return to traditional values while resisting British and feudal pressure.
• Management: Ramanuj Sharan Singh Deo had to manage the tensions between the British political agents and his subjects. His reign (1917–1947) saw the transition of Surguja into the modern era, but the early years were marked by such tribal unrest, reflecting the growing nationalistic and reformist sentiments among the indigenous populations of North Chhattisgarh during the early 20th century.

88. Which of the following statements regarding the Chhattisgarh Industrial Development Policy 2024–30 is/are correct?

1. The Chhattisgarh Industrial Development Policy 2024–30 will be effective from the date 1st November 2024 and 31st March 2030.
2. Under the Chhattisgarh Industrial Development Policy 2024–30, on the basis of investment industries have been classified into 6 categories.
3. Under the Chhattisgarh Industrial Development Policy 2024–30, for industrial investment, new industries have been classified into 7 categories.
4. Unclassified industries are included in the list of Natural Enterprises.

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1, 3 and 4
(d) All of the above

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation: * Policy Validity (1): Statement 1 is correct. The Chhattisgarh Industrial Development Policy 2024–30 has been formulated to cover the period from 1st November 2024 to 31st March 2030, aligning with the state’s formation day.

• Categories Correction: Under the new policy, industries are classified based on investment and turnover into 4 categories (Micro, Small, Medium, and Large), following the central MSME guidelines, not 6 or 7.
• Classification (3): The classification of “new industries” for investment incentives usually follows a 5-tier regional categorization (Block-wise) to encourage development in backward areas, but not the 7 categories mentioned.
• Natural Enterprises: The term “Natural Enterprises” for unclassified industries is not a standard term in this policy. The policy focuses on “Thrust Sectors” like food processing, electronics, and green energy.
• Goal: The 2024–30 policy aims to make Chhattisgarh a global manufacturing hub by providing “Ease of Doing Business,” capital subsidies, and electricity duty exemptions, specifically targeting non-core sectors to diversify the state’s mineral-dependent economy.

89. Which of the following tribes believe in spirits?

(a) Doodra
(b) Kotta
(c) Oraon
(d) All of the above

Answer: (d) All of the above

Explanation: * Tribal Cosmology: Animism is a core component of the religious life of most tribes in Chhattisgarh. They believe that the natural world—trees, mountains, and rivers—is inhabited by spirits (Devtas or Pen).

• Oraon Tribe (c): They have a strong belief in the “Dharme” (Supreme God) and various malevolent and benevolent spirits. Their “Sarna” (sacred grove) is the place where these spirits reside.
• Doodra and Kotta (a & b): These smaller sub-groups or associated tribal lineages in the central and southern regions also share these ancestral and nature-spirit beliefs. They perform rituals to appease “Matia” (earth spirits) or ancestral spirits to ensure good harvests and health.
• Rituals: The role of the Baiga (medicine man) or Sirha is crucial across these tribes for communicating with the spirit world. Whether it is the worship of the “Saja” tree or the “Budha Dev,” the belief that spirits influence daily life is a universal characteristic of Chhattisgarh’s tribal heritage. This spiritual framework serves as a traditional social code, regulating the tribe’s relationship with nature and the community.

90. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding agriculture in Dandakaranya region of Chhattisgarh?

1. Pulses are sown on 8% of the total sown land of the Dandakaranya region.
2. Jowar is sown on 1% of the total sown land of the Dandakaranya region.
3. Under Kharif Chana, Tiwra, Peas, Moong and Urad are cultivated.
4. Kodo and Kutki are sown on 25% of the total sown land of the Dandakaranya region.

(a) Only 1 and 3
(b) Only 1, 2 and 4
(c) Only 1 and 4
(d) Only 2 and 4

Answer: (d) Only 2 and 4

Explanation: * Jowar (2): Statement 2 is correct. In the Dandakaranya region (Bastar, Dantewada, etc.), Jowar is a minor crop, typically accounting for about 1% of the sown area, as the terrain is more suited for paddy and minor millets.

• Kodo-Kutki (4): Statement 4 is correct. Minor millets like Kodo and Kutki are staples in the tribal diet and occupy a significant portion of the total sown land (often cited around 25% in hilly tribal tracts) due to their ability to grow in poor soil with minimal water.
• Pulse Correction (1): Statement 1 is incorrect; pulses generally occupy a higher percentage (around 12–15%) of the area as part of the crop rotation system.
• Kharif Chana (3): Statement 3 is incorrect. Chana (Gram) and Tiwra are primarily Rabi crops (winter crops), not Kharif crops.
• Topography: The agriculture in Dandakaranya is characterized by “shifting cultivation” (Penda/Dahiya) and subsistence farming on “Marhan” (upland) and “Gabhar” (lowland) soils. The dominance of millets and the negligible presence of Jowar reflect the unique agro-climatic conditions of the Southern Chhattisgarh plateau.

91. Select the correct idiom for “to work very hard” —

(a) Panhi Chamkana
(b) Panhi Torma
(c) Panhi Khiyrana
(d) Panhi Uchalna

Answer: (c) Panhi Khiyrana

Explanation: * Linguistic Breakdown: This Chhattisgarhi idiom literally translates to “wearing out one’s footwear” (Panhi = footwear; Khiyrana = to wear out/erode).

• Metaphorical Meaning: Just as one’s shoes wear out after walking immense distances or running around constantly, the phrase is used to describe someone who is working extremely hard or putting in exhaustive effort to achieve a goal.
• Comparison with Options:
  • Panhi Chamkana (a): To polish shoes (often used for showing off).
  • Panhi Torma (b): To break shoes (often implies a sense of aggression or a specific physical mishap).
  • Panhi Uchalna (d): To toss or throw shoes (implies insult or disrespect).
• Cultural Context: Chhattisgarhi folk speech is rich with agricultural and household metaphors. “Panhi Khiyrana” vividly illustrates the physical toll of labor and perseverance. It is a common expression used by elders to describe a youth’s struggle for employment or a farmer’s tireless rounds in the field during the sowing season, emphasizing that success comes only after significant physical and mental exertion.

92. What percentage of subsidy is given to small marginal and other farmers respectively for providing sprinkler sets and drip systems under PMKSY?

(a) 55% small marginal farmers, 45% other farmers
(b) 45% small marginal farmers, 55% other farmers
(c) 50% small marginal farmers, 40% other farmers
(d) 65% small marginal farmers, 55% other farmers

Answer: (a) 55% small marginal farmers, 45% other farmers

Explanation: * Scheme Objectives: The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) – Per Drop More Crop (PDMC) focuses on improving water use efficiency through Micro Irrigation technologies like Drip and Sprinkler systems.

• Subsidy Structure: The Government of India provides differential financial assistance based on landholding categories.
• Small and Marginal Farmers: These farmers (holding up to 2 hectares of land) receive a higher subsidy of 55% of the indicative cost to encourage the adoption of modern technology among those with limited capital.
• Other Farmers: Large farmers (holding more than 2 hectares) are provided a 45% subsidy.
• Implementation in Chhattisgarh: The state government often adds its own share to these central percentages, sometimes bringing the effective cost down even further for the farmer.
• Benefits: This targeted subsidy helps in moisture conservation, reduces weed growth, and ensures “Har Khet Ko Pani.” By providing a 10% higher incentive to smallholders, the policy aims to achieve equitable growth and climate-resilient agriculture across the diverse terrains of Chhattisgarh.

93. The theme “One Expression, Supreme Creation” is related to —

(a) Rajyotsav – 2025
(b) Chhattisgarh Samaroh – 2025
(c) Surpur Mahotsav – 2025
(d) Bharat Rang Mahotsav – 2025

Answer: (d) Bharat Rang Mahotsav – 2025

Explanation: * Event Identity: “One Expression, Supreme Creation” (Ek Abhivyakti, Param Kruti) is the designated theme for the Bharat Rang Mahotsav – 2025.

• About the Mahotsav: Established by the National School of Drama (NSD), this is the largest theatre festival in Asia. It serves as a prestigious platform for theatrical exchange, showcasing diverse regional and international plays.
• Theme Significance: The 2025 theme emphasizes the power of artistic expression as the highest form of human creation. It focuses on the unity of diverse cultural voices through the medium of performing arts.
• Chhattisgarh’s Connection: Raipur often serves as a key parallel venue for this national festival. The theme resonates with the state’s vibrant folk theatre traditions like Nacha and Gammat, integrating local performers with the global theatrical community.
• Cultural Impact: By hosting segments of this Mahotsav, Chhattisgarh promotes its “Knowledge Economy” and cultural tourism, allowing local artists to witness world-class “Supreme Creations” while sharing their own unique Chhattisgarhi “Expressions” on a national stage.

94. Which of the following ornament is worn in ear?

1. Titari
2. Leri
3. Jhumka
4. Patia

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only 4
(d) Only 3

Answer: (b) Only 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: * Identification: In Chhattisgarhi culture, traditional jewelry is specific to the body part it adorns.

• Ear Ornaments:
  1. Titari (1): A small, often bird-shaped or delicate hanging ornament worn in the earlobe.
  2. Leri (2): A traditional ring-like or hanging ear ornament common in rural and tribal regions.
  3. Jhumka (3): The universally recognized bell-shaped hanging earring, a staple in Chhattisgarhi bridal and festive attire.
• The Outlier: Patia (4) is not an ear ornament. Depending on the specific regional dialect, it refers to a neck ornament (like a flat collar-like piece) or a hair/head band.
• Cultural Significance: These ornaments are usually made of silver (Rupa) or gold (Suna). The Titari and Leri are particularly characteristic of the ethnic identity of the women of the plains and the Bastar plateau. They are often passed down through generations, representing the intricate craftsmanship and aesthetic values of the local goldsmith (Sunar) community.

95. What was the installed capacity (in megawatts) for electricity utilization in Chhattisgarh State as of 2024?

(a) 2840 megawatts
(b) 138.70 megawatts
(c) 2850 megawatts
(d) 2978.70 megawatts

Answer: (d) 2978.70 megawatts

Explanation: * Statistical Data: As of 2024, the state-owned installed capacity for electricity generation in Chhattisgarh stands at 2978.70 MW.

• The Breakdown: This capacity is primarily managed by the Chhattisgarh State Power Generation Company Limited (CSPGCL). It includes:
  • Thermal Power: The majority comes from massive coal-based plants in Korba (East and West) and Madwa.
  • Hydel Power: A smaller portion is contributed by the Hasdeo Bango Hydroelectric Project.
  • Renewable Sources: Small contributions from co-generation and solar.
• Contextual Accuracy: While the total capacity including central sectors and private plants in the state is much higher (over 20,000 MW), the figure 2978.70 MW specifically refers to the state’s own generation strength used for domestic and industrial utilization within the state’s primary grid.
• State Status: Known as the “Power Hub of India,” Chhattisgarh remains one of the few power-surplus states. This installed capacity ensures reliable supply for the state’s heavy industries (Steel and Aluminum) and supports the “Jyoti Gram Yojana” for 24×7 rural electrification.

96. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the rule of Panduvansh in Chhattisgarh?

1. Panduvansh established their state in Dakshin Kosal after the power of Sharabhapuriya Dynasty ended.
2. Harshagupta has been called Param-Maheshvara.
3. During the reign of Harsha Gupta, Vishnu temple was built in the capital, Sirpur.
4. Harsha Gupta succeeded by Tivaradeva and Chandragupta Mahasenately.

(a) Only 3 and 4
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 1
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Only 3 and 4

Explanation: * Statement 3 is Incorrect: During the reign of Mahashivgupta Balarjuna (the most famous ruler of the dynasty), the famous Lakshmana Temple (Vishnu temple) was built at Sirpur, not specifically under Harshagupta. Harshagupta’s widow, Queen Vasata, actually constructed it in his memory.

• Statement 4 is Incorrect: The succession order is flawed. Tivaradeva was an earlier powerful ruler, while Harshagupta came later. The usual lineage follows Tivaradeva —> Chandragupta —> Harshagupta —> Mahashivgupta Balarjuna.
• Correct Statements:
  • (1): Panduvansh (or Somvansh) did indeed succeed the Sharabhapuriyas in the 6th century CE.
  • (2): Harshagupta was a devout Shaivite and was indeed titled Param-Maheshvara.
• Significance: The Panduvansh period is considered the “Golden Age” of Chhattisgarh’s history. Sirpur, their capital, became a world-renowned center for Buddhism, Shaivism, and Vaishnavism. The erroneous statements in the question highlight the importance of distinguishing between the various rulers’ specific architectural contributions and the chronological order of the Sirpur branch of the dynasty.

97. ‘Dharmesh’ is the chief Deity of which tribe?

(a) Oraon
(b) Muria
(c) Bhunjia
(d) Binjwar

Answer: (a) Oraon

Explanation: * Tribal Belief: The Oraon (or Kurukh) tribe, primarily residing in the Jashpur, Surguja, and Balrampur districts of North Chhattisgarh, worships Dharmesh as their supreme creator deity.

• Symbolism: Dharmesh is identified with the Sun. He is believed to be the source of all life, light, and providence. He is a benevolent god who does not require frequent sacrifices, unlike the lesser spirits.
• Worship Site: The Oraon believe Dharmesh resides in the Sarna (the sacred grove of Sal trees). All major religious ceremonies begin with an invocation to him.
• Other Tribes: * Muria: Focus more on Lingo Pen.
  • Bhunjia: Worship Nageshwari Devi.
  • Binjwar: Revere Vindhyavasini Devi.
• Theological Concept: The concept of Dharmesh reflects a form of monotheism within the tribal animistic framework. During the Sarhul festival, the marriage of Dharmesh (the Sun) and Dharti Mata (the Earth) is symbolically performed to ensure the fertility of the land and the prosperity of the tribe, marking him as the central pillar of Oraon spiritual life.

98. According to the provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 a Village shall ordinarily consist of —

1. Hamlet or group of hamlets
2. Comprising a community
3. A minimum population of 200
4. Managing its affairs in accordance with traditions and customs

(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 1, 2, 4
(c) 2, 3, 4
(d) 1, 3, 4

Answer: (b) 1, 2, 4

Explanation: * Legal Framework: The Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA) was enacted to empower tribal communities in Scheduled Areas.

• Village Definition: According to Section 4(b) of the Act, a “Village” shall ordinarily consist of:
  1. A habitation or a group of habitations (1): Or a hamlet or a group of hamlets.
  2. Comprising a community (2): That manages its affairs in accordance with traditions and customs.
  3. Traditional Governance (4): The definition emphasizes the social and cultural contiguity of the community rather than just administrative boundaries.
• The Exception (3): The PESA Act does not specify a “minimum population of 200” for a village. Unlike the general Panchayati Raj Acts which might have population criteria, PESA prioritizes the “community” aspect and traditional living patterns.
• Significance: This definition allows even small, isolated tribal hamlets (Tolas) to have their own Gram Sabha. This ensures that traditional tribal customs and their right to manage local resources (like minor forest produce and water bodies) are protected at the most granular level of human settlement.

99. When is the ‘Sarhul’ festival celebrated in the Oraon tribe?

(a) On the arrival of new crops
(b) On growing flowers in sal tree
(c) During agriculture
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) On growing flowers in sal tree

Explanation: * Timing of Celebration: Sarhul is the most important festival of the Oraon tribe, celebrated during the Hindu month of Chaitra. It marks the tribal New Year.

• The Trigger: The festival is specifically celebrated when the Sal trees (the state tree of Chhattisgarh) are in full bloom. The appearance of the white Sal flowers signifies the rejuvenation of nature.
• Ritual Significance: It represents the symbolic marriage between the Earth (Dharti) and the Sun (Dharmesh). Until this ceremony is performed, tribal members do not use the new flowers or fruits of the season.
• Ceremony: The Pahan (priest) offers Sal flowers to the deities in the Sarna (sacred grove). People dance, sing traditional songs, and tuck Sal flowers behind their ears.
• Nature Worship: It is a profound expression of the tribe’s ecological bond. While it precedes the agricultural cycle, its primary “trigger” and focus is the flowering of the Sal tree, celebrating the bounty of the forest before the hard labor of the farming season begins.

100. Which Article of Indian Constitution directs the State for organisation of Gram Panchayats?

(a) Article – 39
(b) Article – 40
(c) Article – 41
(d) Article – 42

Answer: (b) Article – 40

Explanation: * Directive Principles: Article 40 of the Constitution of India, located within the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV), directs the State to organize village panchayats.

• The Mandate: It states: “The State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.”
• Gandhian Philosophy: This article reflects Mahatma Gandhi’s vision of Gram Swaraj, where the village is the fundamental unit of democracy.
• Evolution: For decades, this was a non-justiciable directive. However, it provided the constitutional basis for the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which finally gave a three-tier Panchayati Raj system a mandatory, constitutional status (Part IX).
• Other Articles:
  • Article 39: Relates to principles of policy (equal pay, resources).
  • Article 41: Right to work, education, and public assistance.
  • Article 42: Just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
• Conclusion: Article 40 remains the source of the decentralized power structure seen in states like Chhattisgarh today.

How to Calculate Your CGPSC Prelims Score?

To calculate your expected marks:

Step 1: Know the Marking Scheme

• Each correct answer: +2 marks (GS Paper 1)

• Negative marking: 1/3rd deduction for wrong answers

• CSAT Paper 2: Qualifying in nature (minimum 33%)

Step 2: Apply the Formula

Total Score = (Correct Answers × 2) – (Wrong Answers × 0.66)

Example:

• Correct Answers: 70

• Wrong Answers: 20

Score = (70 × 2) – (20 × 0.66)
Score = 140 – 13.2
Score ≈ 126.8

This gives an estimated GS Paper 1 score.

Official Answer Key Release

After the provisional answer key is released, candidates will be allowed to raise objections within a specified time frame. After reviewing objections, CGPSC will release the final answer key, which will be used for result preparation.

Only the official answer key determines the final result. However, the unofficial key helps in early planning and mental clarity.

CGPSC Question Paper 2026

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