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Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 13 April 2023

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC 2023

Q) Recently seen in news, the ‘Copernicus Programme’, is best related to which one of the following?

  1. The progress of biodiversity and wildlife
  2. The development of mathematical sciences
  3. Monitor state of environment on land and in atmosphere
  4. Development of an astronomical telescope for space exploration

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 12 April 2023

Explanation:

  • Option (3) is correct: Copernicus Programme is implemented by the European Commission (EC) with the support from the European Space Agency (ESA) for the Space component and the European Environment Agency (EEA) for the in situ component. It was established in 2014, previously it was known as Global Monitoring for Environment and Security (GMES). It enables high quality and continuous observation of earth. Copernicus Programme aims to monitor and forecast the state of the environment on land, sea and in the atmosphere, in order to support climate change mitigation and adaptation strategies, the efficient management of emergency situations and the improvement of the security of every citizen. It improves people’s safety, e.g. by providing information on natural disasters such as forest fires or floods, and thus help to prevent the loss of lives and property, and damages to the environment. According to Copernicus Climate Change Service (C3S), temperatures were above average over southern and central Europe and below average over most of northern Europe.

Q) With reference to the process of Arbitration, consider the following statements:

  1. A neutral third party is appointed to make a resolution on the dispute.
  2. The award passed by the arbitrator is binding and enforceable.
  3. Institutional arbitration is a process where a tribunal conducts arbitration in the absence of any agreement between the parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

  • Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Arbitration is a form of alternative dispute resolution (ADR) where parties to a dispute agree to resolve their differences outside of a court system. In arbitration, a neutral third party, called an arbitrator, is appointed to hear the evidence presented by both parties and make a binding decision that resolves the dispute. Arbitration provides a more private and less formal setting for dispute resolution. Litigating a dispute in court can be expensive, whereas arbitration can be a much more cost-effective, as parties have more control over the process. There are well-defined time limits for passing awards, resulting in quick disposal of the matter. Once an award is passed, it is binding and enforceable, which can bring finality to the dispute resolution process. Parties can choose an arbitrator skilled in the law they are facing disputes over, which can lead to more informed and specialized decision-making. Arbitration proceedings are confidential, which can help protect the privacy of the parties involved and keep sensitive business information confidential.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Institutional arbitration refers to the administration of arbitration by an institution in accordance with its rules of procedure. The institution provides appointment of arbitrators, case management services including oversight of the arbitral process, venues for holding hearings, etc.

Q) Consider the following statements about ‘Agnipath’ Scheme:

  1. The scheme is applicable only to personnel below officer ranks.
  2. Both life insurance and disability insurance will be provided to the recruits.
  3. A permanent commission will be given only to 35 percent of the recruits based on merit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

  • Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The Agnipath Scheme is a recruitment process launched by the central government wherein selected candidates will be enrolled for four years period in Indian Armed Forces. It is applicable only for personnel below officer ranks. Aspirants should be between the ages of 17.5 years and 21 years. Kargil Review Committee proposed the retention of soldiers for a shorter duration of time as opposed to the existing structure of 15 to 20 years. Under this scheme, the youth joining the army will be called Agniveer. Youth will be able to be recruited into the army for a short duration.
  • Soldiers will have to contribute 30 per cent of their salary for this purpose and government will make a matching contribution.
  • Soldiers leaving after four years will be provided with skill certificates and bridge courses for future career.
  • Life insurance covers of Rs 48 lakhs and ex-gratia payment of Rs 44 lakhs in case of death.
  • They will get disability payment of Rs 44/25/15 lakhs respectively for 100/75/50 per cent disability will be given to the soldiers.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Selection will be done through rallies twice a year. Recruits will be trained for six months and then will be deployed for three and a half years. Only 25 percent of the recruits will be given a permanent commission based on merit. The four-year period will not be considered for retirement benefits after permanent commission. They will be eligible for a starting salary of Rs 30,000, along with additional benefits which will go up to Rs 40,000 by the end of the service. Rs 11.71 lakh tax-free lump sum amount as ‘Seva Nidhi’ after four-year service.

Q) With reference to the Large Hadron Collider (LHC), consider the following statements:

  1. The LHC projects two beams of electrons in opposite directions inside a ring of superconducting electromagnets at the speed of light.
  2. The LHC consists of a detector that studies the interaction of matter at extreme energy densities.
  3. The circular electron-positron collider is a proposed improvement over the LHC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Large Hadron Collider (LHC) is built by the European Organisation for Nuclear Research (CERN). It is a 27-km-long track-loop buried 100 metres underground at CERN, the European Organization for Nuclear Research, on the Franco-Swiss border near Geneva, Switzerland. It is a giant, complex machine built to study particles that are the smallest known building blocks of all things. In its operational state, it fires two beams of protons almost at the speed of light in opposite directions inside a ring of superconducting electromagnets. The magnetic field created by the superconducting electromagnets keeps the protons in a tight beam and guides them along the way as they travel through beam pipes and finally collide.
  • Statement 2 is correct: ALICE (A Large Ion Collider Experiment) is a detector dedicated to heavy-ion physics at the Large Hadron Collider (LHC). It is designed to study the physics of strongly interacting matter at extreme energy densities, where a phase of matter called quark-gluon plasma forms. The Large Hadron Collider beauty (LHCb) experiment specializes in investigating the slight differences between matter and antimatter by studying a type of particle called the “beauty quark”, or “b quark”.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Circular Electron Positron Collider (CEPC) is a proposed electron positron collider by the Chinese high energy physics community in 2012. It is a double-ring collider with electron and positron beams circulated in opposite directions in separate beam pipes, and the detectors are installed at two interaction points (IPs). Primary physics goal is to use the CEPC as a Higgs factory.

Q) Consider the following statements about ‘Cumbum grapes’:

  1. They are grown in the Lushai Hills of the north-eastern region.
  2. They are rich in tartaric acid and reduce the risk of some chronic diseases.
  3. The Geographic Indication tag was recently given to these grapes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 and 3 are correct: Cumbum grapes recently received the Geographical Indication tag or GI tag. It is also known as CumbumPanneerThratchai in Tamil Nadu. The Panneer grapes were first introduced in Tamil Nadu by a French priest in 1832. These grapes are rich in vitamins, tartaric acid and antioxidants and reduce the risk of some chronic diseases. The grapes grown are suitable for making wine, spirit, jams, canned grape juice and raisins. This variety is popular for its quick growth and early maturity. This ensures that the crop is available in the market almost throughout the year. Cumbum Valley is located at the Western Ghats in Tamil Nadu is known as the ‘Grapes city of South India’ and cultivates the PanneerThratchai. Agro-climate and the soil condition of the Cumbum region is very conducive for the cultivation of the Panneer variety.  The rich soil and water of the land are said to enhance the flavour of the natural fruit.

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