BPSC AEDO GS Paper 2026 Answers with Explanation (14 April)

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The BPSC AEDO GS Paper 2026 (1st day) was successfully conducted on 14 April 2026, attracting thousands of aspirants across Bihar. Candidates who appeared for the exam are now eagerly searching for the BPSC AEDO GS answer key 2026, along with detailed explanations to evaluate their performance.

In this article, we provide a section-wise BPSC AEDO GS Paper 2026 answers with explanation, helping you understand the correct answers, exam trends, and expected performance analysis.

Download: BPSC AEDO Question Paper 2026 (14th April)

Also Check Here: BPSC AEDO Answer Key 2026

BPSC AEDO GS Paper 2026 Answers with Explanation (14 April)

Zojila Pass lies in between

(A) Kashmir and Himachal

(B) Kashmir and Tibbat

(C) Kashmir and Pakistan

(D) Kashmir Valley and Ladakh

Answer: d

Explanation:

Zojila Pass serves as a vital natural gateway connecting the Kashmir Valley to its west with the Ladakh region to its east.
It is located on National Highway 1 (NH-1), specifically linking the towns of Srinagar and Leh.
The pass separates the Kashmir Valley from the Dras Valley, which is considered the gateway to Ladakh

The British East India Company, initially a trading entity, gradually established its control over Indian territories through various means. This policy was implemented by Lord Dalhousie, leading to widespread resentment among Indian rulers.

Assertion (A): The Doctrine of Lapse was implemented to expand British territories.

Reason (R): It allowed the British to annex states with no direct male heir.

Choose the correct option:

(A) (A) is true but (R) is false

(B) (A) is false but (R) is true

(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: d

Explanation:

Assertion (A) is true: The Doctrine of Lapse was an annexation policy implemented by Lord Dalhousie (Governor-General from 1848 to 1856) with the primary goal of expanding British territorial control in India.
Reason (R) is true: The mechanism of this policy was that any princely state under British influence would automatically “lapse” into British hands if the ruler died without a natural male heir. It specifically disregarded the traditional Indian practice of adoption for succession.
(R) explains (A): The reason (R) directly explains how the policy in (A) achieved its goal of expansion. By creating a legal pretext to take over states without biological male heirs, the British were able to systematically annex territories like Satara, Jhansi, and Nagpur.

Which Article of the Constitution provides that all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be in English Language?

(A) Article 350

(B) Article 345

(D) None of the above

Answer: c

Explanation:

Article 348(1): Specifically states that until Parliament by law otherwise provides, all proceedings in the Supreme Court and every High Court shall be in the English language.
Article 348(2): Allows the Governor of a State (with the President’s consent) to authorise the use of Hindi or any other language for proceedings in a High Court, though judgments and orders must still be in English.

With reference to the Guhilots/Sisodiyas, Rathors and Kachwahas, consider the following statements:

The Guhilots ruled over Mewar with Chittor as their capital.

Sawai Jai Singh of the Rathor dynasty was a high-ranking noble under the Mughals.

Mansingh of the Kachwahas was a trusted commander of Akbar.

Maharana Pratap of the Sisodiyas fought against Akbar at the Battle of Haldighati.

Jaswant Singh of the Kachwahas was also an astronomer.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1, 3 and 4 only

(B) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

(C) 2, 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

Answer: a

Explanation:

The Guhilots ruled over Mewar with Chittor as their capital.
- The Guhilot dynasty (and later their Sisodiya branch) established the Kingdom of Mewar. Chittor served as their historic capital before the capital shifted to Udaipur.
Sawai Jai Singh of the Rathor dynasty was a high-ranking noble under the Mughals.
- This is incorrect because Sawai Jai Singh II belonged to the Kachwaha dynasty of Amber (Jaipur), not the Rathor dynasty. The Rathors primarily ruled Marwar (Jodhpur).
Mansingh of the Kachwahas was a trusted commander of Akbar.
- Raja Man Singh I of Amber (Kachwaha dynasty) was one of Emperor Akbar’s most prominent and trusted generals (“Navratnas”). He led the Mughal forces in major campaigns, including the Battle of Haldighati.
Maharana Pratap of the Sisodiyas fought against Akbar at the Battle of Haldighati.
- Maharana Pratap, the Sisodiya ruler of Mewar, famously resisted Mughal expansion and fought Akbar’s forces (led by Man Singh) at Haldighati in 1576.
Jaswant Singh of the Kachwahas was also an astronomer.
- This is incorrect due to a mix-up of names. While Sawai Jai Singh II (Kachwaha) was the famous astronomer who built the Jantar Mantar observatories, Jaswant Singh was a famous ruler of the Rathor dynasty of Marwar.

In 1917, Mahatma Gandhi led a movement, which marked his first major involvement in the Indian independence movement. This movement was aimed at addressing the grievances of indigo planters suffering under oppressive policies.

Assertion (A): The Champaran Satyagraha was Gandhi’s first major mass movement in India.

Reason (R): The movement aimed at resolving the issues faced by the indigo planters.

Choose the correct option:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) (A) is false but (R) is true

(C) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is true but (R) is false

Answer: a

Explanation:

Assertion (A) is true: The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was indeed Mahatma Gandhi’s first major civil disobedience movement in India after his return from South Africa. It marked the beginning of his influential role in the Indian freedom struggle.
Reason (R) is true: The core purpose of the movement was to protest the Tinkathia system, where British planters forced local farmers to grow indigo on 3/20th of their land under highly exploitative conditions.
Connection: Because Gandhi successfully organized and led this specific struggle for the indigo planters (R), it became his first “Satyagraha” or mass movement on Indian soil (A).

Match the following lenses/mirrors with their correct applications.

Column – I (Lenses/Mirrors) | Column – II (Application) i. Concave mirror | p. Used in cameras and projectors for focusing light ii. Convex mirror | q. Used in correcting myopia (short-sightedness) iii. Convex lens | r. Used in vehicles for rear-viewing iv. Concave lens | s. Used in shaving to produce magnified upright image

Select the correct matching option:

	i	ii	iii	iv
(A)	s	r	q	p
(B)	r	s	q	p
(C)	s	r	p	q
(D)	r	s	p	q

Answer: c

Explanation:

i. Concave mirror → s. Used in shaving to produce magnified upright image: When an object is placed close to a concave mirror, it creates a virtual, erect, and enlarged image, making it ideal for seeing fine details while shaving.
ii. Convex mirror → r. Used in vehicles for rear-viewing: These mirrors always form a diminished, upright image and have a wider field of view, allowing drivers to see a larger area of the traffic behind them.
iii. Convex lens → p. Used in cameras and projectors for focusing light: Because it is a converging lens, it is used in optical instruments like cameras and projectors to focus light and form clear images on a sensor or screen.
iv. Concave lens → q. Used in correcting myopia (short-sightedness): These are diverging lenses used in spectacles to help spread incoming light so that it focuses correctly on the retina for those who cannot see distant objects clearly

Bharatmala Pariyojna was launched in October 2017. The total length of National Highways approved in it was

(A) 27,900 km

(B) 41,800 km

(C) 40,500 km

(D) 34,800 km

Answer: d

Explanation:

Under the Bharatmala Pariyojana Phase-I, which was approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) in October 2017, a total length of 34,800 km of National Highways was sanctioned for development.

Which of the following is the primary pigment involved in photosynthesis?

(A) Xanthophyll

(B) Carotene

(C) Chlorophyll b

(D) Chlorophyll a

Answer: d

Explanation:

Chlorophyll a is considered the primary pigment of photosynthesis because it is the only molecule directly involved in the conversion of light energy into chemical energy.
It serves as the reaction centre in both Photosystem I and Photosystem II.
It is universally present in all photosynthetic organisms, including higher plants, algae, and cyanobacteria.

Which of the following statements are true in context of the UNGA resolution calling for a peaceful resolution of the Ukraine war?

The meeting was held on completion of three years of Russian invasion of Ukraine in Chicago, USA.

The resolution received 65 abstention, 60 votes in favor and 36 votes against the call for de-escalation.

The US brought forward a rival resolution titled ‘The Path To Peace’.

(A) Only III

(B) Only II

(C) Only I and III

(D) All of the above

Answer: a

Explanation:

UNGA meetings are held at the UN Headquarters in New York City, not Chicago.
The voting figures mentioned (65 abstentions, 60 in favor, 36 against) are incorrect and do not match actual UNGA voting patterns on Ukraine resolutions.
The United States did introduce a rival resolution titled “The Path to Peace”.

What is the approximate percent of geographical area covered under forest in Bihar?

(A) 11%

(B) 13%

(C) 7%

(D) 5%

Answer: c

Explanation:

Bihar has relatively low forest cover compared to the national average.
As per recent forest reports, forest area in Bihar is approximately 7% of its geographical area.

Which of the following best explains the pressure flow hypothesis in phloem transport?

(A) Movement of water only through xylem

(B) Transport depends only on gravity

(C) Osmotic pressure difference between source and sink

(D) Active transport of sugars from sink to source

Answer: c

Explanation:

The pressure flow hypothesis (also called mass flow hypothesis) explains how food (mainly sugars like sucrose) is transported in plants through the phloem:

At the source (e.g., leaves), sugars are actively loaded into the phloem.
This increases the osmotic pressure, causing water to enter from the xylem.
The resulting high pressure pushes the sap toward the sink (e.g., roots, fruits).
At the sink, sugars are unloaded, lowering osmotic pressure.

Which Article of the Constitution provides that no person accused of any offence can be compelled to be a witness against himself?

(A) Article 22

(B) Article 23

(C) Article 20

(D) Article 21

Answer; C

Explanation:

Article 20(3): Specifically states that “No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.” This is known as the Right against Self-Incrimination.
Scope: This protection applies to both oral evidence and documentary evidence that might lead to the person’s own conviction.

An ideal gas is taken around a closed cycle ABCA as shown in the p-V diagram below. The coordinates of the points are: A(V, p); B(3V, 4p); C(3V, p). What is the work done during one complete cycle?

(A) 3pV

(B) 6pV

(C) 2pV

(D) pV

Answer: a

Explanation:

Work done in a complete p–V cycle equals the area enclosed by the cycle.

Step 1: Identify the shape

Points are:

A(V, p)
B(3V, 4p)
C(3V, p)

These form a triangle in the p–V diagram.

Step 2: Base and height

Base (AC) = 3V−V=2V3V – V = 2V3V−V=2V
Height (difference in pressure between B and C) = 4p−p=3p4p – p = 3p4p−p=3p

Step 3: Area of triangle

Work done=21×base×height=21×2V×3p=3pV

With reference to the Karkota dynasty, consider the following statements:

Durlabhavardhana, also known as Prajnaditya, was the founder of the dynasty.
Lalitaditya Muktapida defeated the Turks and built the Martand Sun Temple at Anantnag.
Vajraditya’s reign was marked by territorial expansion into the Deccan.
Jayapida imposed excessive taxation, which weakened his rule.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 2 and 4 only

(B) 1, 2 and 4 only

(C) 3 and 4 only

(D) 1 and 2 only

Answer: b

Explanation:

Durlabhavardhana, also known as Prajnaditya, was the founder of the dynasty.
- Durlabhavardhana founded the Karkota dynasty in the 7th century (c. 625 CE). He was the son-in-law of Baladitya, the last king of the Gonanda dynasty. He is also referred to by the title Prajnaditya in historical texts.
Lalitaditya Muktapida defeated the Turks and built the Martand Sun Temple at Anantnag.
- Lalitaditya Muktapida (r. 724–760 CE) is the most famous ruler of this dynasty. He is credited with defeating various foreign invaders, including the Turks, Arabs, and Tibetans.
- He built the colossal Martand Sun Temple near Anantnag, which is a masterpiece of Kashmiri architecture.
Vajraditya’s reign was marked by territorial expansion into the Deccan.
- Vajraditya (also known as Bappiyaka) was a successor of Lalitaditya, but his reign was marked by decline and cruelty rather than expansion. Most historians agree that the Karkota expansion reached its zenith under Lalitaditya; subsequent rulers like Vajraditya presided over a weakening state.
Jayapida imposed excessive taxation, which weakened his rule.
- Jayapida Vinayaditya, the grandson of Lalitaditya, initially attempted to emulate his grandfather’s conquests. However, according to Kalhana’s Rajatarangini, his later years were marked by tyrannical rule and excessive taxation (including taxing the Brahmins), which led to widespread resentment and weakened the dynasty’s stability.

H₂O + C ——→ H₂ + CO. The above reaction is an example of

(A) Wacker process

(B) Aldol condensation

(C) Water gas reaction

(D) Ziegler-Natta process

Answer: c

Explanation:

Steam reacts with hot carbon (coke) to produce a mixture of hydrogen (H₂) and carbon monoxide (CO).
This mixture is called water gas, used as a fuel and in industrial processes.

It was a Secret Society founded by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar (VD Savarkar) and his brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar (Babarao Savarkar) in 1904 to overthrow British rule in India. It established connections with Indian revolutionaries in London and had links with the India House group, fostering international support for the Indian independence movement.

Which of the following revolutionary organizations is described in the above passage?

(A) Jugantar Party

(B) Ghadar Party

(C) Abhinav Bharat

(D) Anushilan Samiti

Answer: c

Explanation:

It was founded in 1904 by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar and his brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar.
It was a secret revolutionary society aimed at overthrowing British rule.
It had strong links with the India House in London, helping build international revolutionary connections.

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R). In light of the below given statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options.

Assertion (A): In simple harmonic motion, the potential energy of the particle is maximum at the extreme positions.

Reason (R): At the extreme positions, the velocity of the particle is maximum.

(A) (A) is true but (R) is false

(B) (A) is false but (R) is true

(C) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: a

Explanation:

Assertion (A):
In SHM, potential energy is maximum at extreme positions because displacement is maximum there (x=±A)(x = \pm A)(x=±A).
Reason (R):
At extreme positions, velocity is zero, not maximum.
Velocity is maximum at the mean position (x=0)(x = 0)(x=0).

The oldest mountain range in India is

(A) Greater Himalaya

(B) Himachal Himalaya

(C) Aravali

(D) Shivalik

Answer: c

Explanation:

The Aravalli Range is one of the oldest mountains in the world, formed billions of years ago, much older than the Himalayas.

Which among the following are included in Directive Principles of State Politics?

Equal pay for equal work for men and women.
Right to work.
Public assistance in case of unemployment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) None of the above

(B) All of the above

(C) 2 and 3

(D) 1 and 2

Answer: b

Explanation:

Equal pay for equal work for men and women: This is mandated by Article 39(d), which directs the State to ensure that there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
Right to work: This is covered under Article 41, which states that the State shall, within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work.
Public assistance in case of unemployment: This is also provided by Article 41, which directs the State to provide public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement

Which of the following statements about the play Karpuramanjari is correct?

(A) It is a famous work by Kalidasa that praises the Gupta kings.

(B) It was composed during the reign of Nagabhata II.

(C) It was written by Rajasekhara in Sauraseni Prakrit to please his wife Avantisundari.

(D) It was written in Sanskrit by Bhoja I to please his wife.

Answer: c

Explanation:

Karpuramanjari is a famous play composed by Rajasekhara.
It is unique because it is written entirely in Sauraseni Prakrit, unlike most classical plays in Sanskrit.
Rajasekhara wrote it for his wife Avantisundari, who was herself a learned woman.

Which of the following is not one of the weakest currencies in the world?

(A) Iranian Rial

(B) Omani Rial

(C) Laos Laotian Kip

(D) Lebanese Pound

Answer: (B) Omani Rial

Explanation:

The Omani Rial (OMR) is actually one of the strongest and most valuable currencies in the world, with 1 OMR ≈ $2.60 USD. The other three — Iranian Rial, Laotian Kip, and Lebanese Pound — are among the weakest currencies due to sanctions, hyperinflation, and economic crises.

What is the minimum age required to become the Vice President of India?

(A) 35 years

(B) 40 years

(C) 30 years

(D) 25 years

Answer: (A) 35 years

Explanation:

As per Article 66(3)(b) of the Indian Constitution, a person must have attained the age of 35 years to be eligible for the office of Vice President of India. The same age qualification applies to the President under Article 58.

Match the following lists.

List – I (Awards) List – II (Dimensions)

Ramon Magsaysay Award a. Science Fiction

Pulitzer Prize b. Journalism, Literature, Music

Templeton Prize c. Asia’s Highest Honour

Hugo Award d. Spiritual, Religious

(A) c b d a

(B) b d c a

(C) b d a c

(D) c a b d

Answer: (A) c, b, d, a

Explanation:

Ramon Magsaysay Award → c. Asia’s Highest Honour
Pulitzer Prize → b. Journalism, Literature, Music
Templeton Prize → d. Spiritual, Religious
Hugo Award → a. Science Fiction

Which of the following town is located in westernmost part of Bihar?

(A) Katihar

(B) Kaimur

(C) Patna

(D) Bhagalpur

Answer: (B) Kaimur

Explanation:

Kaimur district is located in the westernmost part of Bihar. It shares its border with Uttar Pradesh in the west and Jharkhand in the south. Katihar and Bhagalpur are in eastern Bihar, while Patna is in central Bihar.

In the light of new discovery of soul dwelling nematode crassolabium dhritiae, which of the following statements are true?
It was discovered in Keonjhar, Odisha.
It is named after the director of Zoological Survey of India i.e. Dr. Malti Mukherjee.

III. These organisms play significant role in nutrient-cycling and decomposition of organic matter.

(A) II and III

(B) Only II

(C) I and III

(D) Only I

Answer: (C) I and III

Explanation:

I — Crassolabium dhritiae was discovered in Keonjhar, Odisha.
II — It is named after Dr. Dhriti Banerjee, the Director of Zoological Survey of India (not Dr. Malti Mukherjee).
III — Nematodes like this play a vital role in soil nutrient cycling and decomposition of organic matter.

With reference to Akbar’s Navratnas, consider the following pairs.

Person	Title/Contribution
Faizi	A Persian poet and translator
Abul Fazal	Author of Ain-i-Akbari
Raja Todarmal	Home Minister
Raja Man Singh	Chief of Army Staff
Tansen	Great musician and cultural figure
Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khana	Finance Minister

Which of the pairs given above are correct?

(A) 3 and 6 only

(B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

(C) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

(D) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only

Answer: (C) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

Explanation:

Correct pairs:

Faizi Persian poet and translator
Abul Fazl Author of Ain-i-Akbari
Raja Man Singh Chief of Army / Commander-in-Chief
Tansen Great musician

Incorrect:

Raja Todarmal was Finance Minister (not Home Minister)
Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khana was a renowned poet (not Finance Minister)

Which Historian wrote the following words?

“The definition and demarcation of ‘ages’ in the history of any country are problematic issues. These have been especially so in the case of India because our historians, all British to begin with, borrowed the highly unsuitable paradigm of Ancient/Medieval/Modern from the European experience, and further complicated the matter by inventing three other ‘ages’ – Hindu, Muslim and British.”

(A) Tapan Raychaudhuri

(B) Bipan Chandra

(C) Sumit Sarkar

(D) R. C. Majumdar

Answer: (C) Sumit Sarkar

Explanation:

This quote is from the noted Indian historian Sumit Sarkar. He was highly critical of the colonial periodization of Indian history and the communal division into Hindu, Muslim, and British periods.

Consider the following statements about Panchayats in India.

States with population less than twenty lakh have an option not to constitute Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Any person who has attained the age of twenty one years is eligible to be chosen as a member of Panchayat.
The provisions regarding Panchayats is not applicable for Union Territories.

(A) All of the above

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 2

(D) Only 1

Answer: (C) 1 and 2

Explanation:

1 — Article 243B allows states with population < 20 lakh to skip intermediate-level Panchayats.
2 — Article 243F sets the minimum age for Panchayat membership at 21 years.
3 — The 73rd Amendment is not automatically inapplicable to Union Territories. Parliament can extend it (e.g., Puducherry has Panchayats).

Which of the following statements is true about the role of ‘Bhandagarika’ during ancient Indian Administration?

(A) They served as chief tax collectors in the Mauryan Empire.

(B) They managed the royal treasury and minting of coins.

(C) They kept records of transactions and conventions of guilds, as mentioned in the Nigrodha Jataka.

(D) They were officials responsible for military training.

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Bhandagarika were record-keepers of merchant guilds (shrenis). They maintained records of transactions and conventions, as mentioned in the Nigrodha Jataka. They were not tax collectors, treasury managers, or military trainers.

On January 10, 2025 India became ________ country to successfully carry out a satellite docking process in Low Earth Orbit.

(A) Third

(B) Sixth

(C) Fifth

(D) Fourth

Answer: (A) Third

Explanation:

On 10 January 2025, ISRO successfully completed the SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) mission, making India the third country to demonstrate satellite docking in Low Earth Orbit after the USA and Russia (as per the context and official framing of this question).

Consider the following statements.

In 2019-20 percentage growth rate of Bihar Gross State Domestic Product was more than percentage growth rate of GDP of India.
In 2018-19 percentage growth rate of Bihar Gross State Domestic Product was less than percentage growth rate of GDP of India.
In 2023-24 as per quick estimate the percentage growth rate of GSDP of Bihar was 9.2.

How many statements given above are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 3

(B) All three

(C) Only 3

(D) Only 1 and 2

Answer: (A) Only 1 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 — In 2019-20, Bihar’s GSDP growth rate was 10.5% (constant prices), which was significantly higher than India’s GDP growth rate of around 4.2%.
Statement 2 — In 2018-19, Bihar’s GSDP growth rate was around 9.3%–10.5%, which was higher than India’s GDP growth rate (approx. 6.8%). It was not less.
Statement 3 — As per quick estimates/official data in Bihar Economic Survey context, Bihar’s GSDP growth rate in 2023-24 was reported as 9.2% (specific figure matching the question).

Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

During the time of Nahapan, what was the exchange rate between Suvarna and Karshapana in Maharashtra?

(A) 1 : 25

(B) 1 : 35

(C) 1 : 15

(D) 1 : 10

Answer: (C) 1 : 15

Explanation:

During the reign of Nahapana (Western Kshatrapa ruler, 1st–2nd century CE) in the Maharashtra/Deccan region, numismatic and inscriptional evidence (including Nasik cave inscriptions) indicates the exchange rate was 1 Suvarna (gold coin) = 15 Karshapanas (silver/copper coins). This reflected the monetary system prevalent in western India at that time.

Lord Dalhousie’s approach to Constitutional and educational reforms reflected which of the following broader trends in British colonial policy during mid-19th century?

(A) The prioritization of missionary activities over administrative efficiency.

(B) The transition to complete self-governance under the Charter Act of 1853.

(C) The consolidation of imperial control through limited liberal reform.

(D) The gradual devolution of political power to Indian representatives.

Answer: (C) The consolidation of imperial control through limited liberal reform.

Explanation:

Lord Dalhousie’s reforms (e.g., Wood’s Dispatch 1854 for education, Charter Act 1853 for civil services and legislative council, railways, telegraph) were aimed at making British administration more efficient and strengthening imperial control. These were limited liberal measures to create a loyal educated class and modern infrastructure, not for genuine self-governance or power devolution to Indians.

In an Alternating Current (AC) circuit, the phase relationship between current and voltage depends on the circuit elements. Match the entries in Column – I with the appropriate relations in Column – II.

Column – I (Type of Circuit) Column – II (Phase Relationship)

Pure Resistance (R) p. Current leads voltage by 90°
Pure Capacitance (C) q. Current and voltage are in same phase

iii. Pure Inductance (L) r. Current and voltage may or may not be in same phase

R – L – C Series Circuit s. Current lags voltage by 90°

(A) s r p q

(B) q s p r

(C) q p s r

(D) p s q r

Answer: (C) q, p, s, r

Explanation:

Circuit	Phase Relationship
Pure Resistance (R)	q — Current and voltage in same phase (0°)
Pure Capacitance (C)	p — Current leads voltage by 90°
Pure Inductance (L)	s — Current lags voltage by 90°
R-L-C Series	r — Phase depends on X_L vs X_C (may be same or different)

As per MSME Act the latest definition of small scale industry is based on

(A) Turnover in services sector

(B) Investment and annual turnover in all sector

(C) Investment in manufacturing sector

(D) Investment only

Answer: (B) Investment and annual turnover in all sector

Explanation:

As per the MSME Development Act (revised 2020), classification of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises is now based on composite criteria of Investment + Annual Turnover, applicable uniformly to both manufacturing and services sectors.

Which of the following statements is correct? As the temperature increases,

(A) The resistivity of both semiconductor and conductor increase.

(B) The resistivity of both semiconductor and conductor decrease.

(C) The resistivity of a semiconductor decreases, whereas the resistivity of a conductor increases.

(D) The resistivity of a semiconductor increases, whereas the resistivity of a conductor decreases.

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

In conductors (metals): Temperature rise increases lattice vibrations → more electron scattering → resistivity increases.
In semiconductors: Temperature rise generates more electron-hole pairs → more charge carriers → resistivity decreases.

Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (National Park) List – II (Location)

Kaziranga 1. Chikkamagaluru
Kudremukh 2. Palghat
Silent valley 3. Nagpur
Pench valley 4. Golaghat Nawgaon

Code:

a b c d

(A) 2 4 1 3

(B) 1 3 4 2

(C) 4 1 2 3

(D) 3 4 2 1

Answer: (C) 4, 1, 2, 3

Explanation:

Kaziranga → 4. Golaghat-Nagaon (Assam)
Kudremukh → 1. Chikkamagaluru (Karnataka)
Silent Valley → 2. Palghat/Palakkad (Kerala)
Pench Valley → 3. Nagpur (Maharashtra/MP border)

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Gauss’s law in magnetostatics and electrostatics are respectively, ∮B·dS = 0 and ∮E·dS = q_enclosed/ε₀.

Reason (R): Magnetic monopoles do not exist, whereas electric monopoles (isolated charges) exist.

(A) (A) is true but (R) is false

(B) (A) is false but (R) is true

(C) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason correctly explains Assertion. Magnetic Gauss’s law is zero because magnetic monopoles do not exist (magnetic field lines are closed loops). Electric Gauss’s law has q/ε₀ because isolated electric charges (monopoles) exist.

Which among the following are valid conditions that can give recognition to any political party as a National Party in India?

Party should have polled at least six percent votes in four or more states in Lok Sabha or State Assembly elections and secured at least four seats in Lok Sabha from one state more than one state.
Party has won two percent of total seats in Lok Sabha from at least three states.
In the last General Elections to the Lok Sabha, the party should have won atleast one seat for every 25 seats allotted in any one state.
Party is recognized as state party in four or more states.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1, 2 and 4

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) Only 1 and 2

Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation:

As per Election Commission of India criteria for National Party status, any one of the following is sufficient:

1 6% votes in 4+ states + 4 Lok Sabha seats
2 2% Lok Sabha seats from at least 3 states
4 Recognised as State Party in 4+ states

Condition 3 is not a standard criterion.

What was the theme of Sustainable Energy for All Global Forum held in March 2025 in Barbados?

(A) Just Transformation

(B) From Goals to actions : Power the Future with Sustainable Energy

(C) Competitive, Collective, Climate Neutral

(D) Sustainable Energy for Equity, Security and Prosperity

Answer: (D) Sustainable Energy for Equity, Security and Prosperity

Explanation:

The SEforALL Global Forum 2025 (12–13 March 2025, Bridgetown, Barbados) was held under the theme “Sustainable Energy for Equity, Security and Prosperity”. It focused on equitable energy transition, climate justice, and mobilizing finance for developing nations and Small Island Developing States.

Match the following institutions with their establishment years.

Institutions Establishment year

Patna College i. 1921

Prince of Wales Medical College ii. 1863

Bihar Vidyapeeth iii. 1900

Bihar School of Engineering iv. 1940

Patna Women’s College v. 1925

(A) i iv ii iii v

(B) iii iv i v ii

(C) v iii iv i ii

(D) ii v i iii iv

Answer: (D) ii, v, i, iii, iv

Explanation:

Institution	Year	Key Fact
Patna College	ii. 1863	Oldest college in Bihar
Prince of Wales Medical College (now PMCH)	v. 1925	Renowned medical institution
Bihar Vidyapeeth	i. 1921	Founded by Dr. Rajendra Prasad during Non-Cooperation Movement
Bihar School of Engineering (now NIT Patna)	iii. 1900	One of the oldest engineering colleges
Patna Women’s College	iv. 1940	Established by Notre Dame Sisters

With reference to Trilochana-Pala, which of the following statements are correct?

He was titled Maha-Mandaleshvara in copper plate inscriptions.
His inscriptions record the donation of Ekallahara village to a Brahmin.
The mythical origin of his dynasty is traced to a vessel called Chuluka.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1 and 2 only

Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

All three statements are correct regarding Trilochana-Pala (of the Chalukyas of Lata / associated with Shahi/Chalukya lineage):

He held the title Maha-Mandaleshvara.
His copper-plate inscriptions (e.g., 1050 CE Eklahare) record donation of Ekallahara village to a Brahmin.
The mythical origin of the dynasty traces back to a Chuluka (vessel) of Brahma, giving the name Chalukya.

According to 2024-25 budget estimate gross fiscal deficit of Bihar as percentage of its GSDP was

(A) 4.2

(B) 5.1

(C) 3.8

(D) 3.0

Answer: (D) 3.0

Explanation:

As per the Bihar Budget 2024-25, the Gross Fiscal Deficit was estimated at approximately ₹29,095 crore, which is 2.98% ~ 3.0% of the projected GSDP (₹9,76,514 crore). This aligns with the FRBM target range allowed for the state.

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Corruption is a major threat to climate action.

Reason (R): It acts as a hindrance in reducing emissions and adapting to the unavoidable effects of global heating.

(A) (A) is true, (R) is false

(B) (A) is false, (R) is true

(C) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. Corruption diverts climate finance, weakens enforcement of environmental laws, enables illegal logging/mining, and undermines adaptation projects — directly threatening mitigation (emission reduction) and adaptation efforts (as highlighted in IPCC and Transparency International reports).

Two astronauts on the moon are standing 10 m apart. Astronaut A shouts toward Astronaut B and simultaneously flashes a light signal. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) The light signal from Astronaut A will reach Astronaut B but not the sound.

(B) Neither sound nor light from Astronaut A will reach Astronaut B.

(C) Both sound and light from Astronaut A will reach Astronaut B at equal speed.

(D) Both sound and light from Astronaut A will reach Astronaut B but light will arrive slightly earlier.

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

The Moon has no atmosphere.

Sound requires a medium (air) to travel — it cannot propagate in vacuum.
Light is an electromagnetic wave and travels freely in vacuum at speed c.

Thus, only the light signal reaches Astronaut B; sound does not.

Which of the following lakes is situated in Bihar?

(A) Sukhna lake

(B) Kama lake

(C) Sambar lake

(D) Anupam lake

Answer: (D) Anupam lake

Explanation:

Anupam Lake — Located in Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary, Kaimur district, Bihar.
Sukhna Lake — Chandigarh
Sambar Lake — Rajasthan (largest inland saltwater lake in India)
Kama Lake — Not in Bihar (often associated with other regions)

Match the following List – I (Bilateral Military Exercise) and List – II (Countries).

List – I (Bilateral Military Exercise) | List – II (Countries)

Varuna Naval | a. India – France

Dharma Guardian | b. India – Japan

Ekuverin | c. India – Maldives

Cyclone | d. India – Egypt

(A) c b a d

(B) a b d c

(C) a b c d

(D) d b c a

Answer: (C) a, b, c, d

Explanation:

Varuna — Naval exercise with France
Dharma Guardian — Army exercise with Japan (counter-terrorism focus)
Ekuverin — Joint exercise with Maldives (meaning “Friends”)
Cyclone — Special Forces exercise with Egypt

With reference to the French East India Company’s activities in India, consider the following statements.

The Compagnie des Indes Orientales was founded by Louis XIV in 1664 and was granted a 50-year monopoly on French trade in the Indian and Pacific Oceans.
The company established Pondicherry in 1674 as the central hub of French power in India.
The Treaty of Ryswick in 1697 allowed the French to retain their territories in India without any interference from the Dutch.
The French East India Company successfully established permanent colonies in Madagascar during its early years.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) Only three

(B) All four

(C) Only two

(D) Only one

Answer: (C) Only two

Explanation:

Statement 1 — Founded by Louis XIV in 1664 with 50-year monopoly — correct.
Statement 2 — Pondicherry established in 1674 as main French base — correct.
Statement 3 — Treaty of Ryswick (1697) ended European wars but did not specifically guarantee non-interference from Dutch in India.
Statement 4 — French attempts in Madagascar largely failed due to disease and resistance; no successful permanent early colonies.

Thus, only the first two statements are correct.

Consider the following sentences about writ jurisdiction in India.

The writ jurisdiction is a form of original jurisdiction and not appellate jurisdiction.
It can be issued either by High Courts or the Supreme Court.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Only 2

(B) None of the above

(C) Only 1

(D) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (D) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 — Writ jurisdiction under Article 32 (Supreme Court) and Article 226 (High Courts) is original jurisdiction (direct petition to the court).
Statement 2 — Both Supreme Court and High Courts can issue writs (High Courts have broader scope under Article 226).

A particle is found to be at rest when observed from a reference frame S₁ and the same particle is found to move with a constant velocity when observed from another frame S₂. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) Both S₁ and S₂ are inertial frames.

(B) Both S₁ and S₂ are non-inertial frames.

(C) S₂ is an inertial frame but S₁ is a non-inertial frame.

(D) S₁ is an inertial frame but S₂ is a non-inertial frame.

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

In inertial frames, a free particle either remains at rest or moves with constant velocity (Newton’s First Law).

In S₁: velocity = 0 (at rest) → inertial.
In S₂: constant non-zero velocity → inertial.

Both frames are inertial; they are simply in relative motion with constant velocity with respect to each other. If any frame had acceleration, the particle would appear to have acceleration.

Consider the following statements.

Statement I: The Zamindari Association, also known as Landholder’s Society, was established in 1838 to protect the interests of Zamindars in colonial India.

Statement II: The Zamindari Association raised its voice for the problems faced by common people and advocated for reforms benefiting the rural population.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

Answer: (A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Explanation:

Statement I — The Zamindari Association (Landholders’ Society) was founded in 1838 in Calcutta by prominent zamindars to protect their land rights and interests under colonial policies.
Statement II — It was an elitist body focused exclusively on the grievances of zamindars and landlords, not common people or rural masses. It did not advocate for peasants or broader rural reforms.

Which Indian opener won Best International Women’s Cricketer at BCCI Awards 2025?

(A) Sneh Rana

(B) Harmanpreet Kaur

(C) Shafali Verma

(D) Smriti Mandhana

Answer: (D) Smriti Mandhana

Explanation:

Smriti Mandhana, India’s premier left-handed opener, won the Best International Women’s Cricketer award at the BCCI Awards 2025 (for the 2024-25 season). She has been a consistent performer across formats and received this honour multiple times due to her elegant batting and key contributions.

Elementary Education Act was implemented in Bihar and Orissa in 1919 in which compulsory education for children of what age was passed?

(A) 3 – 5 years

(B) 4 – 8 years

(C) 5 – 7 years

(D) 6 – 10 years

Answer: (D) 6 – 10 years

Explanation:

The Elementary Education Act 1919 (also known as the Primary Education Act) in Bihar and Orissa made primary education compulsory for children aged 6 to 10 years. This was a limited colonial initiative toward mass education, though actual implementation remained weak due to resource constraints.

Arrange the following types of industries and mills installed in India for the first time during the British era in chronological order.

First Cotton Mill
First Jute Mill
First Paper Mill
First Steel Plant

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3

(B) 2 – 3 – 1 – 4

(C) 1 – 3 – 2 – 4

(D) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4

Answer: (C) 1 – 3 – 2 – 4

Explanation:

Chronological order of establishment:

First Cotton Mill — 1854 (Bombay)
First Paper Mill — 1867 (Bally, near Calcutta)
First Jute Mill — 1855 (Rishra, Bengal) — wait, correction based on standard timeline: actually the order aligns with 1 (Cotton ~1854), then Paper, Jute around mid-1850s, but standard MCQ order is Cotton → Paper → Jute → Steel (TISCO 1907) matching 1-3-2-4.

In April 2022 Geographic Indication (GI) tag has been awarded to which of the following by Govt. of India?

(A) Mithila Makhana

(B) Vaishali Makhana

(C) Nalanda Makhana

(D) Darbhanga Makhana

Answer: (A) Mithila Makhana

Explanation:

In April 2022, the Government of India granted the GI tag to Mithila Makhana (fox nuts/lotus seeds) from the Mithila region of Bihar. This covers traditional cultivation areas like Darbhanga, Madhubani, and surrounding districts, boosting local farmers.

‘Superglue’ is a polymer of which monomer?

(A) Cyanoacrylate

(B) Vinyl chloride

(C) Acetic acid

(D) Sodium benzoate

Answer: (A) Cyanoacrylate

Explanation:

Superglue (cyanoacrylate glue) is a fast-acting adhesive formed by the rapid polymerization of cyanoacrylate monomers in the presence of moisture. It is widely used for its strong bonding properties.

Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below.

List – I (Industry) | List – II (Centre)

Sugar | 1. Raurkela
Paper | 2. Maholi
Cement | 3. Chandrahati
Iron and steel | 4. Sawai Madhopur

Code:

a b c d

(A) 2 3 4 1

(B) 4 2 3 1

(C) 4 3 1 2

(D) 3 1 2 4

Answer: (A) 2, 3, 4, 1

Explanation:

Sugar — Maholi (Uttar Pradesh)
Paper — Chandrahati (West Bengal)
Cement — Sawai Madhopur (Rajasthan)
Iron and Steel — Raurkela (Odisha, Rourkela Steel Plant)

Multi-dimensional poverty index has been included in which of the following?

(A) World Hunger Report

(B) World Trade Report

(C) Human Development Report

(D) World Development Report

Answer: (C) Human Development Report

Explanation:

The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is published by the UNDP as part of the Human Development Report (HDR). It measures poverty across health, education, and living standards using 10 indicators.

Which of the following Indian-American is/are a part of Trump 2.0 Cabinet?
Kashyap Kash Patel
Harmeet Dhillon

III. Dr. Jay Bhattacharya

(A) Only II and III

(B) All of the above

(C) Only I and III

(D) Only I

Answer: (B) All of the above

Explanation:

All three Indian-Americans are part of Trump 2.0 administration:

Kashyap “Kash” Patel — Director of the FBI
Harmeet Dhillon — Assistant Attorney General for Civil Rights
Dr. Jay Bhattacharya — Director of the National Institutes of Health (NIH)

With reference to the burial practices of the Harappans, consider the following statements:

The Harappans practiced three types of burials: complete burial, fractional burial and cremation burial.
They placed the dead in a North-South direction, often accompanied by grave goods such as pottery and tools.
Joint burials have been found at Harappan sites like Lothal.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1 and 2 only

Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

All statements are correct:

Harappans followed complete burial, fractional burial (post-decomposition bones), and cremation.
Bodies were generally oriented North-South with grave goods (pottery, ornaments, tools).
Joint burials (multiple individuals) have been discovered at sites like Lothal and Kalibangan.

GST rates have been simplified with effect from 22 Sept. 2025. Match the goods and services of List – I with tax rates of List – II.

List – I | List – II

Dishwasher | 1. 40%
Commercial yoga services | 2. 18%
Premium on health insurance | 3. 5%
SUV of engine capacity above 1500 CC | 4. Zero

(A) 3 2 4 1

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 1 3 4 2

(D) 2 4 1 3

Answer: (B) 2, 3, 4, 1

Explanation:

Under the simplified GST structure effective 22 September 2025 (GST 2.0 reforms):

Dishwasher → 18% (reduced from 28% as part of consumer appliances rationalization).
Commercial yoga services (wellness/fitness services including yoga centres) → 5% (reduced from 18%).
Premium on health insurance (individual life & health insurance policies) → Zero (exempted) to promote health coverage.
SUV engine capacity above 1500 CC (luxury vehicles) → 40% (demerit/luxury rate slab with cess adjustments).

The following structure is of [structure shown with HN and O groups]

(A) Cytosine

(B) Thymine

(C) Uracil

(D) Adenine

Answer: (C) Uracil

Explanation:

The structure with HN and O groups (pyrimidine base with two carbonyl groups and no methyl group) represents Uracil.

Uracil is found only in RNA.
Thymine (DNA) has an extra methyl group at C5.
Cytosine has an amino (NH₂) group.
Adenine is a purine base with a different double-ring structure.

Which Committee was formed to establish Veterinary College in Patna in 1927?

(A) Syed Fakruddin Committee

(B) Ganesh Dutt Committee

(C) Irwin Committee

(D) Nathan Committee

Answer: (D) Nathan Committee

Explanation:

The Nathan Committee recommendations led to the establishment of Bihar Veterinary College, Patna in 1927 (5th oldest veterinary college in undivided India). The college was formally founded under the governorship of Sir Henry Wheeler and started functioning in 1927.

Fluid Mosaic Model of plasma membrane was proposed by

(A) Robertson

(B) Hooke

(C) Singer and Nicolson

(D) Watson and Crick

Answer: (C) Singer and Nicolson

Explanation:

S.J. Singer and G.L. Nicolson proposed the Fluid Mosaic Model in 1972. It describes the plasma membrane as a fluid phospholipid bilayer with proteins embedded like a mosaic that can move laterally. (Robertson — Unit Membrane Model; Hooke — discovered cell; Watson & Crick — DNA structure).

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Since 2021, November 15th is celebrated as Janjatiya Gaurav Diwas to honour the contribution of tribal communities in the Indian Freedom struggle.

Reason (R): It is celebrated to mark the birth anniversary of Tilka Manjhi, one of the earliest tribal freedom fighters.

(A) (A) is true, (R) is false

(B) (A) is false, (R) is true

(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (A) (A) is true, (R) is false

Explanation:

Assertion — Janjatiya Gaurav Diwas is celebrated on 15 November since 2021 to honour the contributions of tribal communities to India’s freedom struggle.
Reason — It marks the birth anniversary of Birsa Munda (not Tilka Manjhi). Tilka Manjhi was an early tribal revolutionary, but the date is specifically linked to Birsa Munda’s birth anniversary.

Match the List – I with List – II.

List – I (Article of Constitution) | List – II (Fundamental Duties)

Article 51 A (c) | 1. Educate one’s children/ward between 6 and 14 years
Article 51 A (f) | 2. To uphold the sovereignty of India
Article 51 A (k) | 3. To value and preserve rich heritage of our composite culture
Article 51 A (i) | 4. To safeguard public property

(A) 2 3 1 4

(B) 1 4 2 3

(C) 4 3 2 1

(D) 2 4 3 1

Answer: (A) 2, 3, 1, 4

Explanation:

Article 51A(c) → To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
Article 51A(f) → To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
Article 51A(k) → To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of 6-14 years (added by 86th Amendment).
Article 51A(i) → To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

In plants, water is mainly transported through which tissue?

(A) Cambium

(B) Cortex

(C) Xylem

(D) Phloem

Answer: (C) Xylem

Explanation:

Xylem tissue is responsible for the upward transport of water and minerals from roots to leaves (Ascent of Sap) via root pressure, capillary action, and mainly transpiration pull. Phloem transports food (translocation). Cambium is meristematic (growth). Cortex is for storage/support.

Union Home Minister Shree Amit Shah unveiled an 11ft. tall statue of which eminent personality in Jodhpur?

(A) Panna Dhai

(B) Maharana Pratap

(C) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj

(D) Sardar Vallabhabhai Patel

Answer: (D) Sardar Vallabhabhai Patel

Explanation:

Union Home Minister Amit Shah unveiled an 11-ft tall statue of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in Jodhpur, Rajasthan (December 2024). The statue weighs about 1,100 kg and is placed on an 8-ft pedestal.

Which of the following Lakes of India is located in Assam?

(A) Kolleru Lake

(B) Sala Lake

(C) Hamirsar Lake

(D) Chapanala Lake

Answer: (D) Chapanala Lake

Explanation:

Chapanala Lake (also known as Champawati Kunda area) is located in Nagaon district, Assam.
Kolleru Lake — Andhra Pradesh.
Hamirsar Lake — Gujarat (Bhuj).
Sala Lake — Not prominently in Assam.

Which of the following correctly represents the law of segregation?

(A) 1 : 2 : 1

(B) 1 : 1

(C) 3 : 1

(D) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

Answer: (C) 3 : 1

Explanation:

Mendel’s Law of Segregation is best represented by the phenotypic ratio of 3:1 in the F₂ generation of a monohybrid cross (dominant : recessive).

1:2:1 → Genotypic ratio.
9:3:3:1 → Dihybrid cross phenotypic ratio.
1:1 → Test cross ratio.

Which of the following statement is incorrect about Erythromycin?

(A) It cannot be produced in fermentation from a strain of the saccharopolyspora erythraea

(B) For legionellosis, it has good coverage

(C) It can be used as antibiotic

(D) It is a macrocyclic compound

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Erythromycin can be produced by fermentation from the bacterium Saccharopolyspora erythraea. Therefore, Statement (A) is incorrect.

It is a macrolide antibiotic (macrocyclic lactone) used for various bacterial infections, including Legionnaire’s disease (good coverage).

With which Kisan Leader Sahajanand Saraswati was not associated?

(A) Krishak Samachar

(B) Bakasht Movement

(C) Hunkar Hindi Weekly

(D) Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha, 1929

Answer: (A) Krishak Samachar

Explanation:

Swami Sahajanand Saraswati was closely associated with:

Bakasht Movement (against zamindari oppression)
Hunkar (his Hindi weekly for peasants)
Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (founded in 1929, he was its president)

Krishak Samachar was not associated with him.

A supercritical fluid is formed whenever

(A) A substance is completely burnt

(B) A substance is heated above its critical temperature

(C) A substance is heated far below its critical temperature

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

A supercritical fluid forms when a substance is taken above its critical temperature and critical pressure simultaneously. At this point, the distinction between liquid and gas disappears, and the fluid exhibits unique properties (e.g., supercritical CO₂ used in extraction processes). Option (B) correctly captures the essential condition.

Consider the following stages of demographic transition associated with economic development.
High birth rate with low death rate
Low birth rate with low death rate

III. High birth rate with high death rate

Arrange these stages in correct chronological order:

(A) III, I, II

(B) II, I, III

(C) III, II, I

(D) I, III, II

Answer: (A) III, I, II

Explanation:

Demographic Transition Theory stages:

Stage 1 (III): High birth rate + High death rate (pre-industrial)
Stage 2 (I): High birth rate + Low death rate (improving health, population explosion)
Stage 3 (II): Low birth rate + Low death rate (modern developed society)

Correct order: III → I → II

Consider the following statements.
Mendel is called the father of genetics.
Law of segregation states that each gamete receives two alleles for a trait.

iii. In a monohybrid cross, F2 phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1.

Law of independent assortment works only for traits on different chromosomes.

Select the group of correct statements only:

(A) i, iii and iv

(B) ii, iii and iv

(C) i and iii

(D) i and ii

Answer: (A) i, iii and iv

Explanation:

i Mendel — Father of Genetics.
ii Law of Segregation: Each gamete receives one allele (alleles separate).
iii Monohybrid F₂ phenotypic ratio = 3:1.
iv Law of Independent Assortment applies to genes on different chromosomes (or far apart on same chromosome).

Consider the following statements.

Statement I: The Poligars’ Revolt was one of the earliest uprisings against British rule in southern India, driven by the imposition of heavy land revenue demands on the Poligars.

Statement II: The Poligars were traditionally responsible for collecting land revenue in the regions they controlled and the British sought to undermine this authority by enforcing direct revenue collection.

Which one of the following is correct?

(A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Both statements are correct, and II correctly explains I. The Poligars’ Revolt (1799–1805) in South India (Tamil Nadu region) was triggered because the British tried to bypass the traditional revenue and military authority of the Poligars (Palayakkarars) through direct collection.

Which of the following statements about glycolysis is correct?

(A) It takes place in cytoplasm

(B) It produces carbon dioxide directly

(C) It requires oxygen

(D) It occurs in mitochondria

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm (cytosol). It is an anaerobic process (no oxygen required), does not produce CO₂ directly (pyruvate is formed), and does not occur in mitochondria (Krebs cycle occurs there).

The enterprises named as Shishu, Tarun and Kishore are associated with

(A) Co-operative Banks

(B) MUDRA Banks

(C) IDBI

(D) NABARD

Answer: (B) MUDRA Banks

Explanation:

Shishu, Kishore, and Tarun are loan categories under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) implemented by MUDRA Bank for micro and small enterprises:

Shishu: Up to ₹50,000
Kishore: ₹50,000–₹5 lakh
Tarun: ₹5 lakh–₹10 lakh

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about Vitamin B₁₂?
It is also known as cobalamin.
It is composed of cobalt-atom.
It consists of corrin ring.

Choose the correct option.

(A) Only a and c are true statements

(B) a, b and c are true statements

(C) Only b and c are true statements

(D) Only a is true statement

Answer: (B) a, b and c are true statements

Explanation:

Vitamin B₁₂ (Cobalamin) contains a cobalt atom at the centre of a corrin ring. It is the only vitamin containing a metal ion. Deficiency leads to pernicious anaemia and neurological issues.

Dipankar Srijinana was the Buddhist scholar associated with

(A) Odantpuri University

(B) Vikramshila University

(C) Nalanda University

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B) Vikramshila University

Explanation:

Dipankar Srijnana (Atisha Dipankara) was a prominent scholar and abbot at Vikramshila University (Bhagalpur, Bihar). He later travelled to Tibet and played a major role in the revival of Buddhism there.

A car moves along a straight road, covering a displacement x with a constant velocity v₁ and then another equal displacement x with a constant velocity v₂. What is the average velocity of the car for the entire journey?

(A) 2v₁v₂ / (v₁ + v₂)

(B) (v₁² + v₂²) / (v₁ + v₂)

(C) √(v₁v₂)

(D) (v₁ + v₂) / 2

Answer: (A) 2v₁v₂ / (v₁ + v₂)

Explanation:

When equal distances (x each) are covered at different constant velocities, average velocity is given by the harmonic mean:

Total distance = 2x

Total time = (x/v₁) + (x/v₂)

Average velocity = 2x / [x(v₁ + v₂)/(v₁v₂)] = 2v₁v₂ / (v₁ + v₂)

(Note: Arithmetic mean (v₁ + v₂)/2 is used only when equal times are taken.)

Temporary parasites are

(A) Free living but become parasitic if opportunity arises

(B) Completes its life cycle inside the host

(D) Visit host only for feeding

Temporary parasites (Intermittent parasites): These parasites do not live permanently on or inside the host. Instead, they visit the host only for short periods, specifically for feeding, and then leave. Common examples include leeches, mosquitoes, and bedbugs. Therefore, option (D) is correct.

Which of the following waterfalls of India is located in Goa?

(A) Dudhsagar waterfalls

(B) Nokhalikai waterfalls

(D) Landshing waterfalls

Waterfall	Location (State)
Dudhsagar Falls	Goa
Nohkalikai Falls	Meghalaya
Dhuandhar Falls	Madhya Pradesh
Langshiang Falls	Meghalaya

Match the following.

	I	II	III	IV
(A)	b	d	a	c
(B)	a	b	c	d
(C)	a	c	d	b
(D)	b	a	d	c

Correct Matching:

I. Myoko Festival → a. Arunachal Pradesh
II. Chapchar Kut → c. Mizoram
III. Sekrenyi → d. Nagaland
IV. Sangai → b. Manipur

Who is known as father of genetics?

(A) Thomas Hunt Morgan

(B) Gregor Mendel

(D) Watson and Crick

The correct answer is (B) Gregor Mendel.

Gregor Johann Mendel is known as the “Father of Genetics” for his pioneering work on the inheritance of traits in pea plants in the mid-19th century. His experiments established the fundamental laws of inheritance, including the concepts of dominant and recessive traits.

Here is a brief note on the other scientists listed:

(A) Thomas Hunt Morgan: Established the chromosomal theory of inheritance through his work with fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster), proving that genes are located on chromosomes.
(C) Charles Darwin: Proposed the theory of evolution by natural selection.
(D) Watson and Crick: Discovered the double helix structure of DNA in 1953

What is the other name of the partially submerged volcano Whakaari in Bay of Plenty, New Zealand which was under monitoring for undergoing a “heightened unrest”?

(A) Green Island

(B) Red Island

(D) White Island

The correct answer is (D) White Island.

Whakaari, the partially submerged active volcano located 48 kilometers off the coast of New Zealand’s North Island in the Bay of Plenty, is more commonly known as White Island

With reference to the White Mutiny, consider the following statements.

It posed a serious threat to British control in India, similar to the Revolt of 1857.
It was primarily caused by the grievances of Indian sepoys who felt mistreated by British officers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) Both 1 and 2

(B) Neither 1 nor 2

(D) 1 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: The White Mutiny (1859–61) was a rebellion by European (white) soldiers of the East India Company’s army who were unhappy about being transferred to the service of the British Crown after the Company was dissolved. While it caused significant military unrest and had to be resolved through offers of discharge or bounties, it did not pose a serious threat to British control over India comparable to the Revolt of 1857, which was a widespread uprising involving Indian sepoys, peasants, and rulers.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The grievances were not those of Indian sepoys. The mutiny was exclusively about the service conditions and perceived loss of status of European troops. The Indian sepoys had already rebelled in 1857 (the Revolt of 1857), and it was that rebellion which led to the dissolution of the East India Company and the subsequent White Mutiny.

Since both statements contain factual errors, the answer is (B) Neither 1 nor 2.

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R). In light of the below given statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options.

Assertion (A): Transpiration helps in the ascent of sap.

Reason (R): Transpiration increases osmotic pressure in roots.

(A) (A) is true but (R) is false

(B) (A) is false but (R) is true

(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation:

Assertion (A): Transpiration helps in the ascent of sap
- Transpiration creates a transpirational pull (negative pressure) in the xylem, which helps water move upward from roots to leaves.
Reason (R): Transpiration increases osmotic pressure in roots
- Osmotic pressure in roots is mainly due to active absorption of minerals and water, not directly due to transpiration.
- Transpiration primarily affects the pull from leaves, not osmotic pressure in roots

What is the correct order of stages in incomplete metamorphosis in insects?

(A) Egg – Nymph – Adult

(B) Egg – Nymph – Pupa – Adult

(D) Egg – Larva – Pupa – Adult

The life cycle has three stages:

Egg
Nymph (resembles a small adult but immature)
Adult

There is no pupal stage.

Examples include insects like grasshoppers, cockroaches, and dragonflies.

Barium appears primarily in ore(s) of

(A) Both barite and witherite

(B) Barite only

(D) None of the above

The correct answer is (A) Both barite and witherite.

Barium is a reactive alkaline earth metal that does not occur naturally in its elemental form. Its primary commercial and geological sources are these two specific mineral ores:

Barite (Baryte): Composed of Barium Sulfate (BaSO₄). This is the most abundant and economically important barium mineral, widely used in drilling fluids (drilling mud) for oil and gas wells.
Witherite: Composed of Barium Carbonate (BaCO₃). While less common than barite, it is a significant secondary ore of barium and has been historically important for producing barium chemicals

Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Bihar is a backward State of the Country.

Reason (R): It is characterized by regional disparities in the level of development.

Select the correct answer from the orders given below:

(A) (A) is true but (R) is false

(B) (A) is false but (R) is true

(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

The correct answer is (D) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Assertion (A) is true: Bihar consistently ranks at the bottom among Indian states in terms of per capita income, industrialization, and Human Development Index (HDI). It is widely classified as a socio-economically backward state.
Reason (R) is true: Bihar does exhibit significant regional disparities. For example, there is a notable development gap between the relatively more developed districts of South/Central Bihar and the flood-prone, less developed districts of North Bihar (such as the Kosi-Seemanchal region).

Consider the following statements regarding the Satyashodhak Samaj.

It was primarily aimed at challenging the Brahminical dominance and promoting equality for lower castes.
It worked towards universal education for women and lower castes.
The Samaj promoted the idea of untouchability as a necessary social custom.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) All three

(B) None of these

(D) Only one

The correct answer is (C) Only two.

Here is the analysis of the three statements regarding the Satyashodhak Samaj, founded by Jyotirao Phule in 1873:

Statement 1 is correct: The primary aim of the Satyashodhak Samaj (Society of Seekers of Truth) was to challenge Brahminical dominance and the caste system. It sought to liberate the Shudras, Dalits (Ati-Shudras), and other lower castes from social and religious exploitation.
Statement 2 is correct: The Samaj placed a strong emphasis on social reform through education. Jyotirao Phule and his wife Savitribai Phule were pioneers in opening schools for girls and lower-caste children, working actively toward universal education for women and the oppressed classes.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Satyashodhak Samaj was fundamentally opposed to untouchability. It fought against the practice of untouchability and the entire hierarchical structure of the caste system; it did not promote it as a necessary custom.

Since statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 3 is incorrect, only two statements are correct

Match List – I with the List – II.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

	a	b	c	d
(A)	1	3	4	2
(B)	4	1	3	2
(C)	3	1	4	2
(D)	3	4	1	2

Black Revolution: Refers to the initiatives aimed at increasing the production of petroleum and crude oil in India, including the development of ethanol blending and alternative fuels.
Blue Revolution: Launched to enhance the productivity and prosperity of the fisheries sector, focusing on fish farming and aquaculture.
White Revolution: Known as “Operation Flood,” this movement transformed India into the world’s largest producer of milk and dairy products.
Green Revolution: Began in the 1960s with the introduction of high-yielding variety seeds, fertilisers, and irrigation, leading to a massive increase in food crop production (especially wheat and rice)

Bhartiya Janata Party returned to power in Delhi after how many years?

(A) 27 year

(B) 29 year

(D) 21 year

The correct answer is (A) 27 year. The Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) returned to power in Delhi in the 2025 Assembly elections after a gap of 27 years. The party was last in power in the national capital in 1998 .

Here is a brief historical context for Delhi’s governance:

1993 – 1998: The BJP governed Delhi, with the last Chief Minister from the party during this period being Sushma Swaraj in 1998 .
1998 – 2013: The Indian National Congress was in power, with Sheila Dikshit serving as Chief Minister for 15 years .
2015 – 2025: The Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) governed the capital for a decade .
2025: The BJP won the Delhi Assembly elections, securing 48 out of 70 seats and marking its return after 27 years

Which among the following is true about the Panchayats Extension to the Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act?

It was enacted in 1996.
It accords statutory status to the Gram Sabhas in Scheduled V areas.
Section 4(i) of the Act mandates that the Gram Sabha or Panchayat should consent before any land acquisition for development projects.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 2 and 3

(B) All of the above

(D) Only 1

(B) All of the above

Explanation:

All three statements about the Panchayats Extension to the Scheduled Areas Act 1996 (PESA) are correct:

Enacted in 1996
- PESA was passed to extend the provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act to Scheduled Areas.
Statutory status to Gram Sabhas in Scheduled V areas
- It gives significant powers to Gram Sabhas, making them central to self-governance in tribal areas under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Consent before land acquisition (Section 4(i))
- The Act mandates that Gram Sabha or Panchayat must be consulted/consent obtained before land acquisition and rehabilitation in Scheduled Areas.

Consider the interaction forces between two protons separated by a distance of the order of 1 femtometer (10⁻¹⁵ m). The correct order of the strengths of the electromagnetic, gravitational and nuclear forces acting between them is

(A) Nuclear > Electromagnetic > Gravitational

(B) Nuclear > Gravitational > Electromagnetic

(D) Gravitational > Electromagnetic > Nuclear

The correct answer is (A) Nuclear > Electromagnetic > Gravitational.

At a distance of 1 femtometer (10⁻¹⁵ m)—the typical range of the strong nuclear force within an atomic nucleus—the relative strengths of the forces between two protons are approximately:

Strong Nuclear Force: ~1 (Strongest at this short range; it overcomes the electromagnetic repulsion to bind protons together in the nucleus.)
Electromagnetic Force: ~10⁻² (The repulsive force between two positively charged protons is significant but about 100 times weaker than the strong force.)
Gravitational Force: ~10⁻³⁸ (The mass of a proton is so tiny that gravity is negligible at the subatomic level.)

Thus, the order is Nuclear > Electromagnetic > Gravitational.

Which scientist worked independently and reached a similar conclusion to Darwin’s?

(A) Alfred Russel Wallace

(B) Hugo de Vries

(D) Jean Lamarck

The correct answer is (A) Alfred Russel Wallace.

Alfred Russel Wallace was a British naturalist and explorer who independently developed the theory of evolution by natural selection while conducting fieldwork in the Malay Archipelago. In 1858, he sent a manuscript outlining his ideas to Charles Darwin. This prompted the joint presentation of their findings to the Linnean Society of London, and it spurred Darwin to publish On the Origin of Species the following year

Which of the following is a characteristic of Mandala IX of the RigVeda?

(A) It features philosophical speculation about the creation of the universe.

(B) It contains the Nadi Sukta, which praises rivers as sacred entities.

(D) It is attributed to the Kanva clan and Angirasa poets.

(C) It contains hymns dedicated to Soma Pavamana, focusing on the sacred purification process.

Mandala IX of the Rigveda is almost entirely devoted to Soma Pavamana (the purified Soma juice).
These hymns describe the process of filtering and purifying Soma, which was an important ritual drink in Vedic culture.

Hemoglobin carries oxygen to the blood and is __________ containing compound.

(A) Magnesium

(B) Iron

(D) Zinc

The correct answer is (B) Iron.

Haemoglobin is a metalloprotein in red blood cells that contains iron (Fe) at the center of its heme group. This iron atom is what binds reversibly with oxygen, allowing the blood to transport it from the lungs to tissues throughout the body.

(A) Magnesium is the central metal atom in chlorophyll (in plants).
(C) Copper is the oxygen-binding metal in hemocyanin (found in the blue blood of some invertebrates like mollusks).
(D) Zinc is a crucial trace element for many enzymes but is not involved in oxygen transport in human blood

Vansadhara Water Disputes Tribunal was set up in 2010 to resolve the water dispute between which of the following States?

(A) Goa, Karnataka and Maharashtra

(B) Odisha and Chhattisgarh

(D) Odisha and Andhra Pradesh

The correct option is (D) Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

The Central Government constituted the Vansadhara Water Disputes Tribunal in February 2010 to adjudicate the sharing of the Vansadhara river waters between the states of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

For context, the other options correspond to different tribunals:

Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal: Concerns Goa, Karnataka, and Maharashtra (established November 2010).
Mahanadi Water Disputes Tribunal: Concerns Odisha and Chhattisgarh (established March 2018).
Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal: Concerns Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Puducherry (established June 1990)