UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2025 with Detailed Explanation

Table of Contents

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducted the CSE Prelims 2025 on 25th May 2025 across various exam centres in India. Shortly after the exam, StudyIQ IAS released the UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2025 with Detailed Explanation to help aspirants assess their performance.

The exam comprised two papers: General Studies Paper 1 (GS Paper I) and CSAT. While CSAT is qualifying in nature and requires a minimum score of 33%, GS Paper 1 marks are crucial for shortlisting candidates for the Mains.

To assist candidates in evaluating their responses, StudyIQ has published detailed solutions and the UPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key for all question paper sets—A, B, C, and D. The answer key is available in PDF format and helps aspirants estimate their scores and understand their chances of clearing the prelims.

UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2025 PDF

The UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2025 PDF is now available for candidates who appeared for the Civil Services Preliminary Examination held on 25th May 2025. Aspirants can download both the unofficial answer key released by coaching institutes like StudyIQ and, once released, the official answer key by UPSC. The answer key provides detailed solutions for General Studies Paper 1, enabling candidates to calculate their estimated scores and assess their chances of qualifying for the Mains exam.

UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2025 – Understanding the Marking Scheme

To calculate their scores more accurately, candidates can use the UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2025—official or unofficial—along with the marking scheme prescribed by the Union Public Service Commission. The Preliminary exam includes two papers: General Studies Paper 1 (GS-I) and CSAT Paper 2 (GS-II), together carrying a total of 400 marks. GS Paper 1 determines selection for the Mains stage, while CSAT is qualifying in nature, requiring at least 33% to pass. Reviewing your responses using the answer key, alongside the marking scheme, helps you get a clear idea of your performance and where you stand in the competition.

UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2025 Marking Scheme
Particulars	Paper 1	Paper II
Correct Answer	2	2.5
Incorrect Answer	-0.66	-0.83
Unanswered	0	0
No. of Questions	100	80
Total Marks	200	200

UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2025 with Detailed Explanation

The UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2025 with Detailed Explanation is now available with detailed, question-wise explanations to help aspirants evaluate their performance. Conducted on May 25, 2025, the UPSC Prelims exam 2025 included GS Paper 1 and the CSAT paper. As candidates look to estimate their scores and assess their chances of qualifying for the Mains, this answer key offers clear reasoning behind each correct answer. Every question from GS Paper 1 has been broken down to explain the logic and concepts tested, making it a valuable resource for both current evaluation and future preparation. The UPSC Prelims Answer Key 2025 is an essential tool for aspirants aiming to refine their approach and stay ahead in their preparation journey.

UPSC Prelims 2025 Answers Key for GS Paper 1 (Set B)

Q1. Consider the following types of vehicles:
I. Full battery electric vehicles
II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
III. Fuel cell electric hybrid vehicles
How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Alternative powertrains refer to propulsion systems for vehicles that go beyond the traditional internal combustion engines. These include:

Full battery electric vehicles: They operate entirely on electricity stored in
2. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles: Uses hydrogen fuel to produce electricity, with water as a byproduct.
Fuel cell electric hybrid vehicles:

Q2. With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:
I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
III. All types of UAVs can use battery as a source of power supply.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

VTOL technology stands for Vertical Take Off and Landing. It refers to drones that can take off and land vertically, eliminating the need for runways. However, not all UAVs have this capability.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Fixed wing UAVs are not capable of vertical take-off and landing. For example, MQ-9 Reaper is not designed for vertical take-off.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
Statement 3 is incorrect:

Q3. In the context of electric vehicles, consider the following elements:
I. Cobalt
II. Graphite
III. Lithium
IV. Nickel
How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Among the

Typically cathode of lithium-ion batteries is composed of materials like lithium nickel manganese cobalt oxide or lithium iron phosphate.
Graphite serves a primary anode in lithium-ion batteries, which power the vehicles. (Hence, Graphite is not included).
Hence, among the above elements, Cobalt, Graphite and Lithium are included in Electric Cathodes.

Q.4 Consider the following:
I. Cigarette butts
II. Eyeglass lenses
III. Car tyres
How many of them contain plastic?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: C

Explanation:

All of the three Contains plastic
Many eyeglass lenses are made of plastic, particularly materials like CR-39, polycarbonate, and Trivex.
Cigarette butts contain a significant amount of plastic. Specifically, the filters in cigarettes are made of cellulose acetate, which is a type of plastic.
Car tyres contain plastic. Specifically, they are made of synthetic rubber, which is a type of plastic polymer, along with natural rubber, metal, and other compounds.

Q. 5 Consider the following substances:
I. Ethanol
II. Nitroglycerine
III. Urea
Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer:(b)

Explanation:

Coal gasification is process of conversion of coal into syn gas, which is a mixture of gases such as carbon monoxide, hydrogen, carbon di oxide and methane.
Ethanol and Urea can be produced from Coal Gasification technology as the methane produced from Coal Gasification can be used to further manufacture these chemicals.
Nitroglycerin is produced from nitration of Glycerine (glycerol). In the process, glycerine is mixed with white fuming nitric acid. This chemical cannot be derived from coal gasification. Nitroglycerine has been used as an active ingredient in the manufacture of explosives such as dynamite and as a propellant. Nitroglycerine is converted into Nitric Oxide and serves as vasodilator and is thus, used in the medical industry as well.

Q6. What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in the media?
(a) These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants
(b) These are explosives in military weapons
(c) These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
(d) These are fuels for rocket propulsion

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

CL-20 (Hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane), HMX (High Melting Explosive), and LLM-105 (2,6-Diamino-3,5-dinitropyrazine-1-oxide) are all high-energy explosives developed for military applications.
They are utilized in various munitions, including missile warheads and shaped charges, due to their high detonation velocities and energy densities. For instance, CL-20 is considered one of the most powerful non-nuclear explosives and is used in advanced weaponry. HMX is employed in missile warheads and armor-piercing charges. LLM-105 offers high energy with improved safety features, making it suitable for sensitive applications.

Q7. Consider the following statements:
I. It is expected that Majorana chip will enable quantum computing.
II. Majorana chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).
III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. Microsoft introduced the Majorana 1 chip, which is based on a topological qubit architecture. This design aims to enhance the stability and scalability of quantum computers, potentially accelerating the development of practical quantum computing solutions.

Statement II is Incorrect. Majorana Chips introduced by Microsoft.

Statement III is Incorrect.

Q8. With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:
I. They are man-made proteins.
II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.
III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: D
Explanation:

Monoclonal antibodies(mAbs) are laboratory-produced molecules engineered to act as substitute antibodies that can restore, enhance or mimic the immune system’s attack on harmful cells. They are made by cloning a unique white blood cell, resulting in identical antibodies that target a specific antigen.
Monoclonal antibodies are designed to bind specifically to certain antigens. This binding may render the target(such as a virus) unaffected or mark it for destruction by other parts of the immune system, thereby stimulating an immune response.
Monoclonal antibodies have been developed and are being investigated for the treatment of viral infections, including Nipah virus.

Q9. Consider the following statements:
I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.
II. No virus can infect bacteria.
III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.

How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer:(d)

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect: Viruses are the most abundant biological entities in the oceans. Marine viruses, including bacteriophages, play a vital role in regulating microbial communities and biogeochemical cycles. Their concentration in seawater is very high—up to 250 million bacteriophage viruses can be found in every millilitre of seawater.
Statement II is false: Bacteriophages or phages are viruses that specifically infect bacteria. They are one of the most common and diverse entities in the entire biosphere and exist wherever bacteria exist. In fact, there are more bacteriophages on the planet than any other organism, including bacteria.
Statement III is false: Many viruses are able to alter the transcriptional activity of their host cells.

Q.10 Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
Statement II:
Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
Statement III:
Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Activated carbon is a popular choice for removing pollutants from effluent streams and remediating contaminants due to its large surface area, porous structure, and ability to be easily synthesized at low cost. It effectively adsorbs both organic and inorganic pollutants, colors, and odors, making it useful in various industries like textile, pharmaceutical, and chemical treatment.

Q. 11 Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.
Statement II:
Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.
Statement III:
Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Studies consistently show that carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions from the cement industry indeed account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions. In fact, some sources indicate it can be as high as 8%.

It stem from two main processes: the calcination of limestone and the burning of fossil fuels. Calcination, where limestone is heated to produce clinker, is a significant source of CO2 due to the decomposition of calcium carbonate.

Q.12 Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’.
Statement II:
The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.
Statement III:
If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: C

Explanation:

At COP28, India chose not to sign the “Declaration on Climate and Health”. This decision was primarily due to concerns about the practicality and feasibility of reducing greenhouse gas emissions within the healthcare sector, particularly regarding the need for cold storage for vaccines and medicines
Statement 2 is incorrect: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is not a legally binding document; it’s a voluntary, non-binding political declaration. While it encourages countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions in the health sector, signing the declaration doesn’t make decarbonization.
Statement 3 is correct: India’s primary reason for not signing greenhouse gas reduction for cooling in the health sector could hinder its ability to meet the growing demands for medical services, particularly in remote and underserved areas. (According to Livemint report).

Q.13 Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.
Statement II:
Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with a tremendous amount of energy.
Statement III:
As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Statement is correct: Recent studies confirm that the Earth’s axis is drifting, a phenomenon known as polar wander. The distribution of mass on Earth—especially due to climate-related changes—can influence the rotational axis of the Earth.
Statement 2 is correct: Solar flares and CMEs (Coronal Mass Ejections) do release massive energy that impacts Earth’s magnetosphere, causing geomagnetic storms, auroras, and can affect satellite operations and communication. However, they do not directly affect Earth’s rotation or axial tilt.
Statement 3 is correct and explains statement 1: Melting polar ice leads to redistribution of mass (water) from the poles toward the equator. This mass redistribution can influence the Earth’s moment of inertia, leading to a shift in its rotational axis.

Q.14 Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.
Statement II:
Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.
Statement III:
Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is a critical component of the global effort to combat climate change, facilitating cooperation and the use of carbon markets to achieve Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). It enables countries to work together, leveraging international carbon credits and non-market approaches to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and achieve climate targets.

Q.15 Which one of the following launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific?
(a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
(c) The New Development Bank (NDB)
(d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

The Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific was launched by the Asian Development Bank (ADB). The hub was launched at COP28. The ADB aims to attract at least $2 billion into investment programs that incorporate nature-based solutions.

Q.16 With reference to Direct Air Capture, an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.
II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.
III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I and II only
(b) III only
(c) I, II and III
(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Direct Air Capture (DAC) is a technology that extracts carbon dioxide(CO2) directly from the atmosphere using chemical or physical processes. This captured CO2 can then be stored underground, used for various industrial applications, or further processed.
Statement 2 is correct: Captured carbon di oxide can be used as a feedstock for plastic industry and can also be used in food processing industry in processes such as beverage carbonation, food preservation etc.
Statement 3 is correct: Carbon di oxide extracted from Direct Air Capture technology can be combined with hydrogen to create synthetic fuels like jet fuel. This process, often called Power-to-Liquid (PtL) or Power-to-Jet, offers a path towards decarbonizing aviation by producing fuels that are essentially carbon-neutral.

Q.17 Regarding Peacock tarantula (Goody tarantula), consider the following statements:
I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.
II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.
III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) I and III
(c) II only
(d) II and III

Answer: D

Explanation:

Peacock tarantula (Goody tarantula) is not omnivorous crustacean
The natural habitat of the Peacock tarantula, also known as the Gooty tarantula or Poecilotheria metallica, is a degraded deciduous forest in Andhra Pradesh, central southern India.
In its natural habitat it is an arboreal species as they live in trees, constructing webs within tree holes and other structures.

Q.18 Consider the following statements:
I. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂/ caipta.
II. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.
III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and III only
(b) II only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: According to Worldometer, India’s per capita CO₂ emissions were 1.89 t CO₂/capita in 2022. While this is still relatively low compared to many developed nations, it’s significantly higher than 0.5 t CO₂/capita.
Statement 2 is correct: India ranks second in the Asia-Pacific region in terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion. China is the largest emitter in the region, followed by India. The International Energy Agency (IEA) data confirms this
Statement 3 is correct: In India, the electricity and heat production sector is indeed a major source of CO₂ emissions. This sector, particularly coal-based thermal power plants, contributes significantly to the country’s overall emissions. In fact, the IEA – International Energy Agency reports that power generation is a major source of CO2 emissions globally, and in India, it’s a leading contributor due to the use of coal and other fossil fuels

Q. 19 Consider the following pairs:

Plant	Description
I. Cassava	Woody shrub
II. Ginger	Herb with pseudostem
III. Malabar spinach	Herbaceous climber
IV. Mint	Annual shrub
V. Papaya	Woody shrub

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All the five

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Cassava (Manihot esculenta) is a perennial woody shrub. It is native to South America and is now grown in tropical and subtropical regions worldwide.
Statement 2 is correct: Ginger is indeed a herb that grows with a pseudostem. Ginger (Zingiber officinale) is a rhizome, which is an underground stem, but the above-ground portion of the plant consists of pseudostems.
Statement 3 is correct: Malabar or climbing spinach (Basella alba) is a heat-loving vine that can be used fresh or cooked just like spinach. This is not a true spinach, but has a similar flavor that is a bit more buttery and nutty. It’s high in vitamins A and C and thrives in the heat that shuts down spinach and most greens
Statement 4 is not correct: mint is not an annual shrub. It’s a perennial herb. This means it lives for more than two years and typically comes back from the roots each year, rather than dying off and having to be replanted.
Statement 5 is not correct: Papaya is not a woody shrub; it’s a herbaceous plant, also referred to as a “giant herb” or a “short-lived perennial”. While it can grow quite large and tall, reaching heights of up to 10 meters.

Q.20 With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:
I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.
II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of the world’s oxygen.
III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II only
(c) I and III
(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct and 2 is correct: The statement that rainforests produce more oxygen than oceans is incorrect. Oceans, primarily through phytoplankton, produce a significantly larger share of Earth’s oxygen than rainforests. Phytoplankton, tiny marine organisms, are estimated to produce between 50% and 80% of the planet’s oxygen. Rainforests, while crucial for many reasons, contribute a smaller percentage, around 28%, according to some studies
Statement 3 is incorrect: While surface water does contain oxygen, it is significantly less abundant than in air. Air is about 21% oxygen, while surface water holds much less, even at saturation, according to Global Seafood Alliance.

Q. 21 Consider the following statements about Rajar Ram Mohan Roy:
I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.
II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer. C

Explanation:

Raja Ram Mohan Roy possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophic systems of the East; but, at the same time, he believed that modern culture Would help regenerate the India Society

Statement 2 is correct: He advocated for a rational and scientific approach to life, promoting human dignity and equality for all, regardless of gender

Q.22 Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:
I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth
II. Observance of strict non-violence
III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public
IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes
How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four

Answer C

Explanation:

Statement 4 is in correct:

Titles were not retained during the Non-cooperation Movement. In fact, renouncing titles was a key part of the movement’s program. Mahatma Gandhi himself renounced titles bestowed upon him by the British, and other leaders and individuals followed suit, surrendering honorary posts and titles.

Q.23 The irrigation device called ‘Araghata’ was:
(a) a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley
(b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
(c) a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks
(d) a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand

Answer B

Explanation:

Araghatta is a Persian wheel used in irrigation of land in medieval India. It is a mechanical device used to life water, typically from open wells.

Q.24 Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles ‘Mattavilasa’, ‘Vichitrichta’ and ‘Gunabhara’?
(a) Mahendravarman I
(b) Simhavishnu
(c) Narasimhavarman I
(d) Simhavarman

Answer A

Explanation:

The ancient Indian ruler who assumed the titles ‘Mattavilasa’, ‘Vichitrichta’, and ‘Gunabhara’ was Mahendravarman I.

Q.25 Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, traveled to India during the reign of:
(a) Samudragupta
(b) Chandragupta II
(c) Kumeragupta I
(d) Skandagupta

Answer B

Explanation:

Fa-Hien was a Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II on a religious mission. He traveled by foot from China to India and returned by sea route.

Q. 26 Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime state, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?
(a) Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)
(b) Prataparudra (Kakatiya)
(c) Rajendra I (Chola)
(d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)

Answer C

Explanation:

In 1025 CE, the Chola Emperor Rajendra I launched naval invasions on Srivijaya in maritime Southeast Asia, leading to the fall of the Sailendra Dynasty of Srivijaya.

Q.27 With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs:

Table

Territorial region	River flowing in the region
I. Asmaka	Godavari
II. Kamboja	Vipas
III. Avanti	Mahanadi
IV. Kosala	Sarayu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four

Answer: B

Explanation:

Option 1 and 4 is correctly matched

Aśmaka or Assaka was a Mahajanapada in ancient India which existed between 700 BCE and 425 or 345 BCE according to the Buddhist texts and Puranas.

Kosala extended across both banks of the Sarayu (modern Ghaghara) River and north into what is now Nepal. According to the Hindu epic the Ramayana, Kosala was ruled by kings descended from the Sun; one of these kings was Rama, whose capital was Ayodhya (Oudh), near modern Faizabad.

Q.28 The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in:
(a) Delhi
(b) Gwalior
(c) Ujjain
(d) Lahore

Answer D

Explanation:

In 1901, Paluskar reached Lahore, then in Punjab, where he decided to establish a music school. Recognizing the need for a structured approach to teaching Indian classical music, he founded the Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore in 1901.

Q.29 Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the ‘Pradeshika’, ‘Rajuka’ and ‘Yukta’ were important officers at the:
(a) village-level administration
(b) district-level administration
(c) provincial administration
(d) level of the central administration

Answer: B

Explanation:

Ashokan inscriptions indicate that the ‘Pradeshika’, ‘Rajuka’, and ‘Yukta’ were important officers at the district level. These officers were responsible for the administration, revenue collection, and accounting functions within the districts of the Mauryan Empire.

Q.30 Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:
I. The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.
II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is Correct: C.R. Das moved the main resolution on Non-Cooperation in the annual session of Congress in Nagpur in 1920. In Nagpur session Congress decided to have the attainment of Swaraj through peaceful and legitimate means

Statement 2 is also Correct: The strategy described, implemented by the Congress, involved a phased approach to achieving “Swaraj” (self-rule). The initial stage involved non-cooperation, which included withdrawing voluntary association with the British government. If Swaraj wasn’t achieved within a year and the government responded with repression, the next stage would involve civil disobedience, including non-payment of taxes. This was a strategy to exert pressure on the British government through nonviolent means

Q.31 With reference to investments, consider the following:
I. Bonds
II. Hedge Funds
III. Stocks
IV. Venture Capital

How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four

Answer: B

Explanation:

Alternative Investment Fund or AIF means any fund established or incorporated in India which is a privately pooled investment vehicle which collects funds from sophisticated investors, whether Indian or foreign, for investing it in accordance with a defined investment policy for the benefit of its investors.
Applicants can seek registration as an AIF in one of the following categories, and in sub-categories thereof, as may be applicable:
Category I AIF:

○ Venture capital funds (Including Angel Funds). Hence, option II is correct.

○ SME Funds

○ Social Venture Funds o Infrastructure funds

Category II AIF Category III AIF

Source: https://www.sebi.gov.in/sebi_data/attachdocs/1471519155273.pdf

Q.32 Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?
I. Buying and selling Government bonds
II. Buying and selling foreign currency
III. Pension fund management
IV. Lending to private companies
V. Printing and distributing currency notes

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I and II only
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III, IV and V
(d) I, II and V

Answer: A

Explanation:

Foreign Currency Investments: RBI invests India’s forex reserves in dollars, euros, pounds, etc. It earns interest on these investments. Statement I is correct.
Currency Trading: RBI buys and sells dollars to keep the value of the rupee stable. The profit from these transactions is RBI’s income.
Interest on Domestic Assets: RBI holds government bonds and lends to banks at the repo rate. It earns interest from these activities. In 2023- 24, the repo rate was mostly at 6.5%, so earnings were good. Statement II is correct.

Q.33 With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:

Table

Organization	Some of its functions	It works under
I. Directorate of Enforcement	Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018	Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence	Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management	Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: B

Explanation: I is Incorrect

Directorate of Enforcement (ED)

Functions: Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 – Correct, as the ED enforces this act along with PMLA and FEMA.
Works Under: Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs – Incorrect. The ED operates under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Option II is correct.

Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI)

Functions: Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 –as the DRI focuses on customs-related enforcement.
Works Under: Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance – as the DRI functions under the CBIC, which is part of the Department of Revenue.

Directorate General of Systems and Data Management (DG Systems)

Functions: Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders – Correct, as DG Systems uses data analytics for tax administration.
Works Under: Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance (noted as CBIC) – Correct, as DG Systems is under the CBIC, part of the Department of Revenue.

Q.34. Consider the following statements:
I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates (all) the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BSRR).
II. In India, a company submitting a BSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement I is Incorrect.

The Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) is a framework for disclosing a company’s performance on environmental, social, and governance (ESG) factors. In India, the BRSR was introduced by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), not the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Statement II is correct.

The BRSR framework, as defined by SEBI, focuses on disclosures related to environmental, social, and governance (ESG) factors.
These include metrics like energy consumption, water usage, waste management, carbon emissions, employee diversity, community engagement, and governance practices (e.g., board diversity, anti-corruption policies).
While some financial aspects, such as investments in sustainability initiatives, may be reported, the primary focus of the BRSR is on non-financial disclosures that reflect the company’s sustainability and social responsibility performance.

Q.35 Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
In India, income from agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
Statement II:
In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-Tax Act, 1961.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement I does not explain Statement II
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement I is Incorrect.

Allied Agricultural Activities and Taxation: Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, Section 10(1) exempts “agricultural income” from income tax. Agricultural income is defined under Section 2(1A) and includes:

○ Income derived from land situated in India and used for agricultural purposes.

○ Income from processes ordinarily employed by a cultivator to render the produce fit for market (e.g., threshing, winnowing).

○ Income from the sale of such agricultural produce.

Allied Activities like Poultry Farming and Wool Rearing: The Income-tax Act does not explicitly include poultry farming or wool rearing (e.g., sheep rearing for wool) as “agricultural income” under Section 2(1A).

Statement II is correct.

Rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under Section 2(14)(iii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, if it is outside specified urban or semi-urban limits,

Q.36 Consider the following statements:
I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that has identified.
III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: India joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in June 2023. The MSP is a U.S.-led initiative involving countries like the U.S., Australia, Canada, Japan, and others, aimed at securing stable and sustainable supply chains for critical minerals.

Statement 2 is incorrect: India is not resource-rich in all 30 critical minerals identified by the government. While India has reserves of some key minerals, it is heavily dependent on imports for others like lithium, cobalt, and nickel.

Statement 3 is correct: In 2023, the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 was amended. The amendments empowered the Central Government to: Exclusively auction mining leases and composite licenses for 24 critical and strategic minerals-viz. molybdenum, rhenium, tungsten, cadmium, indium, gallium, graphite, vanadium, tellurium, selenium, nickel, cobalt, tin, platinum group of elements, minerals of “rare earth” group (not containing Uranium and Thorium); fertilizer minerals such as potash, glauconite and phosphate (without uranium) and minerals being removed from the list of atomic minerals.

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1945102

Q.37 Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
Statement II:
Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
Statement III:
For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: Bondholders receive fixed interest payments and their principal is repaid at maturity, making their returns more predictable. Stockholders, as owners, rely on dividends and stock price appreciation, which are uncertain and tied to the company’s performance.

Statement II is correct: Bondholders lend money to a company by purchasing bonds, earning interest, and expecting repayment of principal. Stockholders buy shares, making them partial owners with voting rights and a claim on profits (dividends)

Statement III is correct: In the event of liquidation or bankruptcy, a company’s assets are distributed according to a priority order. Bondholders, as creditors, are paid before stockholders (equity holders). This is governed by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.

Q.38 Consider the following statements:
I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
II. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.
III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: India has become a global leader in equity options trading. In 2023, Indian exchanges traded 85 billion options contracts, more than any other country, a trend that started in 2019 when India overtook the US in volume (though not in dollar value).

Statement II is correct: India’s stock market has seen rapid growth, with the market capitalization of listed companies reaching $3.989 trillion by November 2023, surpassing Hong Kong’s $3.984 trillion. By December 2023, India overtook Hong Kong to become the world’s seventh-largest stock market.

Statement III is Incorrect: India has a regulatory body, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), which oversees the stock market, including options trading. SEBI has actively warned small investors about the risks of options trading.

Q.39 Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.
Statement II:
Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.
Statement III:
Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.

Answer: A

Explanation:

A circular economy is an economic system aimed at minimizing waste and making the most of resources. Unlike the traditional linear economy (take-make-dispose), a circular economy focuses on reusing, repairing, refurbishing, and recycling materials to create a closed-loop system.

Statement I is correct: By reusing and recycling materials, the need for extracting raw materials (e.g., mining, deforestation) decreases, which lowers emissions from these energy-intensive processes.
Statement II is correct: A core principle of the circular economy is to keep materials in use for as long as possible. This is achieved through:

○ Reuse and Recycling: Materials are reused or recycled instead of extracting new raw materials.

Statement III is correct: The circular economy minimizes waste by optimizing production processes and ensuring that byproducts are reused or repurposed:

○ Efficient Production: Companies adopt lean manufacturing to reduce material waste during production (e.g., using scraps from one process as inputs for another).

Q.40 Consider the following statements:
I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: Capital receipts are funds received by the Government that either increase its liabilities (e.g., borrowings) or reduce its assets (e.g., disinvestment, where the Government sells its stake in public sector enterprises).

Statement II is correct: Borrowings (e.g., issuing Government securities or taking loans) and disinvestment (e.g., selling stakes in PSUs) are classified as capital receipts in India’s budget. Borrowings increase the Government’s liabilities, and disinvestment reduces its assets, fitting the definition of capital receipts as per the Ministry of Finance.

Statement III is Incorrect: Interest received on loans (e.g., loans given by the Government to states or PSUs) is a revenue receipt, not a capital receipt, as it does not create a liability or reduce assets. Instead, it increases the Government’s income.

Q.41 Consider the following countries:
I. Austria
II. Bulgaria
III. Croatia
IV. Serbia
V. Sweden
VI. North Macedonia

How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?
(a) Only three
(b) Only four
(c) Only five
(d) All the six

Answer: B

Explanation:

About NATO

Genesis: Founded in 1949, with the signing of the North Atlantic
Treaty or Washington Treaty, with the aim of acting as a deterrent to the threat of Soviet expansion in Europe after World War II.
Headquarters: Brussels (Belgium)
It is founded on the principle of collective defence (Article 5 of the Treaty), meaning that if one NATO Ally is attacked, then all NATO Allies are attacked.
So far, Article 5 has been invoked once – in response to the 9/11 terrorist attacks.

Sebia and Austria is not member of NATO

Serbia is not a member of NATO because it has adopted a policy of military neutrality and does not aspire to join the alliance, despite being a partner in the Partnership for Peace (PfP) program.
Austria is not a member of NATO primarily because of its constitutional commitment to neutrality, enshrined in the Austrian State Treaty in 1955. This neutrality prohibits Austria from joining any military alliance, hosting foreign military bases, or participating in a war. While Austria has engaged in various forms of cooperation with NATO, such as joining the NATO’s Partnership for Peace in 1995, its neutrality remains a key tenet of its foreign policy.

Q.42 Consider the following countries:
I. Bolivia
II. Brazil
III. Colombia
IV. Ecuador
V. Paraguay
VI. Venezuela

Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) Only five

Answer: C

Explanation:

Andes are the longest continental mountain range in the world, forming a continuous highland along the western edge of South America. The Andes extend from south to north through seven South American countries: Argentina, Chile, Bolivia, Peru, Ecuador, Colombia, and Venezuela. It does not pass through Brazil and Paraguay.

Q.43 Consider the following water bodies:
I. Lake Tanganyika
II. Lake Tönlé Sap
III. Patos Lagoon

Through how many of them does the equator pass?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: D

Explanation:

Lake Tanganyika: It is located in Central Africa, bordered by Tanzania, the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC), Burundi, and Zambia The Equator does not cross the Lake Tanganyika
Lake Tönlé Sap: It is in the northwest of Cambodia. Belonging to the Mekong River system, Tonlé Sap is the largest freshwater lake in Southeast Asia. It is located north of the equator.
Lagoa dos Patos: It is a coastal lagoon located in the state of Rio Grande do Sul, southern Brazil. It is located south of the equator.

Q.44 Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23:
I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing states in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) All the three

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement I is correct: India is the largest producer, consumer and exporter of turmeric in the world. In the year 2022-23, an area of 3.24 lakh ha was under turmeric cultivation in India with a production of 11.61 lakh tonnes (over 75% of global turmeric production).
Statement II and III are correct: More than 30 varieties of Turmeric are grown in India and it is grown in over 20 states in the country. The largest producing states of Turmeric are Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1964083

Q.45 Which of the following are the evidence of the phenomenon of continental drift?
I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III only

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Geological formations on the east coast of South America (Brazil) and the west coast of Africa (Western Africa) match in rock type, age, and structure, providing strong evidence that these continents were once joined.
Statement 2 is correct: The gold bearing veins are in Brazil and it is obvious that the gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
Statement 3 is correct: The Gondwana sediments found in India share striking similarities with those found in South America, Africa, Antarctica, Australia, and Madagascar, providing compelling evidence that these landmasses were once part of a larger supercontinent called Gondwana, also known as Gondwanaland.

Q. 46 Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.
Statement II:
Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The higher concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions due to dry winds in comparison to equatorial and Polar Regions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: dry and windy conditions prevail in subtropical and temperate areas in comparison to equatorial and polar regions.

Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy207.pdf

Q.47 Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.
Statement II:
In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: In January, it is winter in the Northern Hemisphere. Landmasses (e.g., Asia, North America) cool faster than oceans due to lower specific heat capacity. This makes air over land colder, and isotherms bend toward the equator over land. Over oceans, where temperatures remain relatively warmer, isotherms bend poleward.
Statement 2 is correct: Oceans retain heat longer than land due to higher heat capacity. Therefore, in winter, oceanic air is warmer than the continental air.

Q.48 Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
In the context of the effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.
Statement II:
Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.
Statement III:
Clay is not at all porous.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Chalk is a porous sedimentary rock, allowing water to pass through easily—hence permeable. Clay, on the other hand, is impermeable or least permeable.
Statement 2 is correct: Chalk contains microscopic pores and can hold and transmit water.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Clay is porous. However, it is made up of extremely fine particles, which create very small spaces between them.These small spaces make it difficult for water to move through the clay.

Q.49 Consider the following statements:
I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.
II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.
III. Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III only

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The atmosphere acts as an insulating layer, preventing extreme fluctuations in temperature. Without it, Earth would lose heat rapidly at night and would not retain enough warmth to support life and the temperature would drop well below freezing.
Statement 2 is correct: The atmosphere absorbs and re-radiates infrared radiation from the Earth’s surface. It helps maintain the Earth’s average surface temperature and makes it habitable.
Statement 3 is correct: Gases like carbon dioxide (CO₂), methane (CH₄), and water vapor (H₂O) are known as greenhouse gases. These gases are highly efficient in absorbing infrared radiation emitted by the Earth and trapping heat, contributing to the warming of the atmosphere.

Source: https://scied.ucar.edu/learning-zone/atmosphere/what-is-atmosphere

Q.50 Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:
I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Rashtriya Gokul Mission is crucial for upliftment of rural poor as more than 80% low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
Statement 2 is correct: One of the objectives of the scheme is to promote indigenous cattle & buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.

https://www.dahd.gov.in/sites/default/files/2023-08/AAUpdatedOperationalGuidelinesOnRGM2021.pdf

Q.51 Consider the following statements:

I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.

II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.

III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: According to Article 243B of the Indian Constitution, Panchayats are organized at three levels:

○ Village level (Gram Panchayat)

○ Intermediate level (Block Panchayat)

○ District level (Zila Parishad)

○ However, states with populations less than 20 lakhs are not required to establish intermediate-level Panchayats. For example, Goa, Sikkim, and some northeastern states do not have intermediate-level Panchayats. (https://www.pib.gov.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=64390)

Statement 2 incorrect: as per Article 243F(1)(a), the minimum age to contest Panchayat elections is 21 years, not 30. There is no separate age requirement for the intermediate level.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The State Finance Commission is constituted under Article 243-I, but it is appointed by the Governor, not the Chief Minister. It is tasked with reviewing the financial position of all Panchayats (at all levels) and recommending distribution of resources.

Q.52. Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC :
I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.
II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of
BIMSTEC.
IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of ‘tourism’ is being led by India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) I only

Answer:(d)

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) is a regional organization comprising of seven Member States (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand).
Statement 2 is incorrect: It was established on 06 June 1997 with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Bangkok Declaration (1997) formally laid the foundation for the organization, as BIST-EC(Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand Economic Cooperation). Nepal is not the funding member; it joined the grouping later in 2004.
Statement 4 is incorrect: In BIMSTEC, the subsector of ‘tourism’ is being led by Nepal

Q.53 Who among the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of ‘Gandhi Peace Prize’?
I. The President of India
II. The Prime Minister of India
III. The Chief Justice of India
IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) II and IV only
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I and III only

Answer: C

Explanation:

The International Gandhi Peace Prize is an annual award conferred by the Government of India to recognize individuals or institutions for their contributions to peace, non-violence, and social, economic, and political reforms inspired by Mahatma Gandhi’s ideals. The Jury comprises of five members, i.e. the Prime Minister of India, who would chair the Jury; the Chief Justice of India; the Leader of Opposition recognized as such in the Lok Sabha or where there is no such Leader of Opposition then, the Leader of the single largest opposition party in that House; and two other eminent persons.

Q54. GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?
I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.
II. It will allow more uniform and high-quality air traffic management.
III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and III only
(c) I only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: D

Explanation:

ISRO and Airports Authority of India (AAI) have implemented the GAGAN project as a Satellite Based Augmentation System for the Indian Airspace. The primary objective of GAGAN is to establish a certifiable satellite based augmentation system for safety-of-life applications. The functional performance and operational requirements of GAGAN shall be governed by the specifications as mentioned in the international standards.

Statement I is correct: The GAGAN is designed to provide the additional accuracy, availability, and integrity necessary to enable users to rely on GPS for all phases of flight, from en route through approach for all qualified airports within the GAGAN service volume.

Statement II is correct: GAGAN will also provide the capability for increased accuracy in position reporting, allowing for more uniform and high-quality Air Traffic Management (ATM).

Statement III is correct: GAGAN will provide benefits beyond aviation to all modes of transportation, including maritime, highways, railroads and public services such as defence services, security agencies, telecom industry and personal users of position location applications.

Q.55 Consider the following statement regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palai, Paris in February 2025:

Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and Seoul Summit held in 2024.

Along with the other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: A

Explanation:

The AI Action Summit is a global forum that brings together world leaders, policymakers, technology experts, and industry representatives to discuss AI governance, ethics, and its role in society.
The AI Action Summit in Paris is the 3rd summit, following the Bletchley Park Summit (UK 2023) and the Seoul Summit (South Korea 2024).
Bletchley Park Declaration (28 countries): Advocated safe, human-centric, and responsible AI.
Seoul Summit (27 nations): Reaffirmed international cooperation and proposed a network of AI Safety Institutes.
Joint Declaration on Inclusive and Sustainable AI: Joint Statement on ‘Inclusive and Sustainable Artificial Intelligence for People and the Planet’ was signed by 58 countries including India, China, EU, except US and the UK (expressing concerns related to excessive regulations on AI).

Q.56 Consider the following pairs:
I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026
II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027
III. International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025
IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four

Answer: D

Explanation:

The International Year of the Woman Farmer will be observed in 2026. The United Nations General Assembly has declared 2026 as the International Year of the Woman Farmer, recognizing the crucial role women play in agriculture and food security.
The International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism is set for 2027. It aims to promote actions at all levels, including through international cooperation, to support sustainable and resilient tourism as a means of promoting and accelerating sustainable development
International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025: It aims to foster cooperation, inclusivity, and sustainable development.
In December 2024, the United Nations proclaimed 2029 as the International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence.On 13 April 2029, the asteroid 99942 Apophis will pass safely at a distance of about 32,000 kilometers above Earth’s surface, within the geostationary orbit.

Q.57 Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS:
I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.
II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.
III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I only

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: On October 22-24, 2024, the 16th BRICS Summit was held in Kazan under the chairmanship of the Russian Federation.

Statement 2 is correct: Indonesia has joined the BRICS group effective from January 2025.

BRICS

The BRICS is currently composed of eleven countries: its five original members – Brasil, China, India, Russia, and South Africa -, and six new members admitted in 2024-25 – Egypt, Ethiopia, Indonesia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was: “Strengthening Multilateralism for Fair Global Development and Security.”

Q.58 Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) III only
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: A

Explanation:

Composition

The Lokpal comprises a Chairperson and up to 8 Members.
At least 50% of the Members must be Judicial Members.
A minimum of 50% of the total Members should be from Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), Other Backward Classes (OBC), Minorities, and Women.

Term for Members

Members serve for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.

Appointment

Members are appointed by the President of India based on the recommendations of a Selection Committee comprising:

○ Prime Minister (Chairperson)

○ Speaker of Lok Sabha

○ Leader of Opposition or leader of the single largest opposition party in Lok Sabha

○ Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge nominated by the Chief Justice

Jurisdiction of Lokpal

The Lokpal has jurisdiction over:
The Prime Minister (with exceptions for allegations related to international relations, security, public order, atomic energy, and space)
Ministers
Members of Parliament
Group A, B, C, and D officers and officials of the Central Government

Q.59 Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:
I. The event was held in Delhi, India.
II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78–40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.
III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54–36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and II only
(d) II and III only

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The inaugural Kho Kho World Cup was held at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium in New Delhi, India, from January 13 to 19, 2025.
Statement 2 is incorrect:In the men’s final, India defeated Nepal with a score of 54–36, to become the World Champions in the men’s category
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian women’s team also won the title, defeating Nepal 78-40.

Q.60 Consider the following statements:
I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Sat Nepomniachtchi.
II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming the world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: At the 45th Chess Olympiad India’s men’s team, led by Gukesh Dommaraju, clinched their first-ever gold medal in the Olympiad. Gukesh did not become the world’s youngest winner by defeating Ian Nepomniachtchi in this event.
Statement 2 is correct: Abhimanyu Mishra, born in the USA, became the youngest Grandmaster in chess history. He achieved the title at the age of 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days in 2021.

Q.61 Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.
Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: A

Explanation:

Rare earth elements such as europium, terbium, and yttrium are integral in producing phosphors
that emit red, green, and blue light in display technologies. These phosphors are essential
components in flat-panel displays, including those used in televisions and computer monitors.
Certain rare earth elements exhibit phosphorescence, meaning they can absorb energy and re-emit
it as visible light over time. This property is harnessed in various applications, including lighting
and display technologies.

Q.62 Consider the following statements:
I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a “future ready” railway system by 2028.
II. “Kavach” is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
III. “Kavach” system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: National Rail Plan (NRP) aims to create a ‘future ready’ Railway system by 2030. The NRP aims to formulate strategies based on operational capacities and commercial policy initiatives to increase the modal share of the Railways in freight.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Kavach is an Automatic Train Protection system which was developed indigenously by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with the Indian industry.
Statement 1 is correct: Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) tags are placed throughout the entire track length to enable the Kavach system to track train positions and detect any potential safety issues along the route.

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2082712

Q63. Consider the following space missions:
I. Axiom-4
II. SpaDeX
III. Gaganyaan

How many of the space missions given above are encouraged and support microgravity research?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: C

Explanation:

Axiom-4 is a private astronaut mission to the International Space Station (ISS), organized by Axiom Space.
○ This mission includes multiple microgravity experiments focusing on human health, biotechnology, and agriculture.
SpaDeX is an Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) mission aimed at demonstrating autonomous docking technology in orbit. In addition to its primary objective, the mission utilizes the PSLV’s fourth stage (POEM-4) to host various scientific experiments, including those related to microgravity.
Gaganyaan will be placed in the Low Earth Orbit. It will enable the humans present to conduct many micro-gravity experiments.

Q. 64 With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs:
Aircraft type | Description
I. Dornier-228 | Maritime patrol aircraft
II. IL-76 | Supersonic combat aircraft
III. C-17 Globemaster III | Military transport aircraft

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: B

Explanation:

Pair 1 is correct: The Dornier 228 is a versatile, twin-engine turboprop aircraft used for various missions, including maritime patrol, search and rescue, and utility transport.
Pair 2 is incorrect: The Il-76 is a Soviet-designed, four-engine turbofan strategic airlifter, initially developed for commercial cargo transport. It’s a versatile aircraft used for both military and civilian purposes, including troop transport, heavy cargo delivery, and even firefighting.
Pair 3 is correct: The McDonnell Douglas/Boeing C-17 Globemaster III is a large military transport aircraft developed for the United States Air Force (USAF).

Q65. Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of:
(a) silver iodide and potassium iodide
(b) silver nitrate and potassium iodide
(c) silver iodide and potassium nitrate
(d) silver nitrate and potassium chloride

Answer: A

Explanation:

Commonly Used Substances in Cloud Seeding:

Silver Iodide (AgI): Silver iodide is widely used due to its structural similarity to ice crystals, which facilitates ice nucleation in supercooled clouds. Its application has been prevalent in various cloud seeding operations worldwide.
Dry Ice (Solid Carbon Dioxide): Dry ice serves as an effective agent by cooling the surrounding air, promoting ice crystal formation within clouds.
Potassium Iodide: Similar to silver iodide, potassium iodide acts as a nucleating agent, aiding in
the formation of precipitation.

Q. 66 Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning—power of the President of India:
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subject to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Article 72 of the Constitution gives the President the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment. While this power appears discretionary, the Supreme Court has held that it is not absolute.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 74(1) of the Constitution, the President must act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers. This includes the use of pardoning powers under Article 72.

Q. 67 Consider the following statements:
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House passed by a majority of all the Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 94 of the Constitution: The Speaker does not vacate office upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha and continues until the first meeting of the new Lok Sabha (i.e., until a new Speaker is elected).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not mandate that a Speaker must resign from his or her political party. However, in practice, Speakers are expected to be neutral and often suspend party membership, but it is not a constitutional or legal requirement.
Statement 3 is correct: As per Article 94(c) and Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha: The Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha (i.e., an effective majority). At least 14 days’ notice must be given before moving such a resolution.

Q. 68 Consider the following statements:
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Disqualification under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law) is decided by the Speaker or the Chairman of the concerned House, not the President. This is clearly stated in Paragraph 6(1) of the Tenth Schedule:

○ “If any question arises as to whether a member has become subject to disqualification under this Schedule, the question shall be referred for the decision of the Chairman or, as the case may be, the Speaker of such House and their decision shall be final.”

Statement 2 is incorrect: The original Constitution did not mention “political party”. However, the term was inserted later through the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985, which added the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law).

Q. 69 Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II:
In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: State Governments do have the power to make rules for granting concessions for minor minerals. Under Section 15 of the MMDR Act, 1957, the State Governments are empowered to make rules for regulating the grant of quarry leases, mining leases, or other mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals.
Statement 2 is correct: The Central Government has the authority to declare whether a mineral is a minor mineral or not. As per the MMDR Act, the classification of a mineral as major or minor is made by the Central Government through notification.

Q. 70 Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?
(a) The European Union
(b) The World Bank
(c) The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(d) The Food and Agriculture Organization

Answer: A

Explanation:

The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) was enacted by the European Union (EU). It is a comprehensive law aimed at restoring degraded ecosystems and tackling climate change and biodiversity loss within the EU.

Q.71 Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹ 80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹ 60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹ 10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹ 6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Revenue deficit is ₹ 20,000 crores.
II. Fiscal deficit is ₹ 10,000 crores.
III. Primary deficit is ₹ 4,000 crores.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: D
Explanation:

All are correct.

Q. 72 India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect:
(a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
(b) India to Central Asia via China
(c) India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
(d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan

Answer: A

Explanation

The INSTC, initially proposed in September 2000 by Iran, Russia, and India,15 has now been ratified by 13 countries. The INSTC includes sea routes and rail and road links, connecting India to the whole of Eurasia.

The Eastern Route of the INSTC, also known as the KTI corridor, connects Russia and India and runs through Iran, Turkmenistan, and Kazakhstan, stretching about 6,100 km from the Russian-Finnish border to the Iranian port of Bandar Abbas. The route also connects Uzen in Kazakhstan with Gyzylgaya, Bereket, and Etrek in Turkmenistan, and ends at Gorgan in the Iranian province of Golestan, giving the Central Asian Republics (CARs) access to the Arabian Sea and Indian ports. Construction of the Eastern Route began in 2009 following a trilateral agreement in 2007, with the Islamic Development Bank contributing US$370 million of the total cost of around US$1.4 billion.

Western Route of INSTC: INSTC’s Western Route connects India’s Jawaharlal Nehru Port to Iran and Azerbaijan, spanning the western coast of the Caspian Sea and covering a distance of approximately 5,100 km from the Russian-Finnish border to the port of Bandar Abbas in Iran. The Western Route is not only the shortest but also connects the most populous provinces of Russia and Iran.

https://www.orfonline.org/research/exploring-prospects-for-india-azerbaijan-ties-through-connectivity-projects

https://www.pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1892221#:~:text=The%20International%20North%E2%80%93South%20Transport,Petersburg%20in%20Russia.

https://www.mea.gov.in/lok-sabha.htm?dtl/37388/question+no1085+international+northsouth+transport+corridor

Q. 73 Consider the following statements:
Statement I :
Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
Statement II :
Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.

Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The United States is the largest producer of ethanol in the world, followed by Brazil. As per data from the U.S. Energy Information Administration (EIA) and International Energy Agency (IEA), the U.S. consistently produces more ethanol than Brazil.
Statement 2 is correct: The USA uses corn as its main raw material for ethanol. Brazil uses sugarcane, which is more efficient in terms of ethanol yield and has a lower carbon footprint compared to corn-based ethanol.

Q. 74 The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?
I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: C

Explanation:

Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts if wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C.
Survival of the animal will be affected in these situations.

Q. 75 A country’s fiscal deficit stands at ₹ 50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹ 10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are ₹ 1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?
(a) ₹ 48,500 crores
(b) ₹ 51,500 crores
(c) ₹ 58,500 crores
(d) None of the above

Answer: A

Explanation: A primary deficit is the gap between a government’s income (excluding interest payments) and its spending on non-interest expenses. Gross Primary Deficit=₹50,000 crores−₹1,500 crores=₹48,500 crore

Q. 76 Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
I. It has recommended grants of ₹ 4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
III. ₹ 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement I: Correct

The 15th Finance Commission recommended grants totaling ₹4,800 crores, allocated as ₹1,200 crores each year from 2022–23 to 2025–26, to incentivize States to enhance educational outcomes.

Statement II: Incorrect

The 15th Finance Commission recommended that 41% of the net proceeds of Union taxes be devolved to States, not 45%.

Statement III: Correct

The Commission recommended ₹45,000 crores as performance-based incentives for States to implement agricultural reforms.

Statement IV: Correct

The 15th Finance Commission reintroduced the tax effort criterion, assigning a weight of 2.5%, to reward States’ fiscal performance.

Q. 77 Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):
I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.
II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.
III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement I: Correct

IBRD is one of the five institutions of the World Bank Group, and it primarily provides loans, guarantees, and technical assistance to middle-income countries and creditworthy low-income countries.

Statement II: Incorrect

IBRD does not work single-handedly. It works in partnership with other institutions of the World Bank Group—such as IDA (International Development Association), IFC (International Finance Corporation), etc.—to reduce poverty and promote development.

Statement III: Correct

IBRD was founded in 1944 during the Bretton Woods Conference, with its initial goal to help Europe rebuild after World War II.

Q. 78 Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:
I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.
II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.

Which one of the following is correct?
(a) I only
(b) I and II
(c) I and III
(d) III only

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement I: Correct

RTGS: Settles transactions individually in real time, making it instantaneous.

NEFT: Settles transactions in batches, currently every 30 minutes. So, there’s a delay compared to RTGS.

Statement II: Incorrect

As per RBI guidelines, no charges are levied for inward transactions (i.e., receiving money) in both RTGS and NEFT.
Charges, if any, are generally applicable only to outward transactions and even those are being waived by many banks.

Statement III: Incorrect

RTGS and NEFT both are available 24×7, but there may be limited availability or maintenance breaks on certain days, especially for system upgrades.

Q. 79 Consider the following countries:
I. United Arab Emirates
II. France
III. Germany
IV. Singapore
V. Bangladesh

How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All the five

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) has been expanding its international reach, allowing Indian travelers to make merchant payments in several countries. Based on the latest information, UPI payments are accepted in the following countries:

United Arab Emirates (UAE)
France
Singapore

However, there is no official confirmation of UPI acceptance in:

Germany
Bangladesh

Q. 80 Consider the following statements about PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana:
I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.
III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and upskilling, under scheme component of capacity building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) II and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, the world’s largest domestic rooftop solar initiative, aims to supply solar power to one crore households by March 2027.
Statement 2 is correct: The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) intends to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairing of solar roof top systems at grass root level.
Statement 3 is correct: The scheme seeks to create more than 3 lakh skilled manpower, through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building, out of which at least 1,00,000 will be Solar PV Technicians

https://cdnbbsr.s3waas.gov.in/s3716e1b8c6cd17b771da77391355749f3/uploads/2024/07/202407181728251154.pdf

Q. 81 With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: C

Explanation:

Article 123 empowers the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament.
Article 213 empowers the Governor of a state to promulgate ordinances during the recess of the State Legislature.
Statement I is correct: Article 123 of the Constitution allows the President to promulgate ordinances with the same force as Acts of Parliament, enabling amendments to Central Acts.
Statement II is incorrect: Article 13 of the Constitution prohibits any law, including ordinances, from abridging Fundamental Rights, making any such provision void.
Statement III is correct: Ordinances can be retrospective, applying from a date before their promulgation, similar to other legislation.

Q.82 Consider the following pairs:

State	Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh	The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
II. Nagaland	The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
III. Tripura	Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Answer: B

Explanation:

Pair 1 is correct: Itanagar, the capital of Arunachal Pradesh, is named after Ita Fort (Ita = brick in Assamese), built in the 14th–15th century by the Ahom rulers. Arunachal Pradesh has two National Parks: Namdapha National Park, Mouling National Park.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Parliament legislated the ‘State of Nagaland Act, 1962’ which paved way for the formation of State of Nagaland. The State of Nagaland came into existence on 1^st December 1963. However, the Parliament also amended the Constitution by the Constitution (Thirteenth) Amendment paving the way for inclusion of Article 371-A for fulfilling the promises made in the 16 Point Agreement with the Naga People’s Convention. However, speaking strictly according to the law, the basis of the state was the ‘State of Nagaland Act’ enacted under Article 3 of the Constitution. Article 371-A (13^th Constitutional Amendment) merely gives special privileges to the State of Nagaland. However, UPSC can give this statement is correct also.
Pair 3 is correct: Tripura was a Part ‘C’ State post-independence. Under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, Part C states were either merged or converted into Union Territories. Tripura became a Union Territory. It later attained full statehood in 1972 through the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971.

Q. 83 With reference to India, consider the following:
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: A

Explanation:

Inter State Council: Article 263 of the Constitution of India provides for the Inter-State Council. It is meant to facilitate coordination between states and between the Centre and states
National Security Council: The NSC was established in 1998 by the Government of India as an executive body, not through the Constitution. It advises the Prime Minister on national security and strategic interests.
Zonal Councils: They were set up under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, not by the Constitution. They aim to foster cooperation among states in different regions.

Q.84 Consider the following statements:
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Article 163(1) of the Constitution states that the Governor shall act in accordance with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, except in cases where he is required to act in his discretion.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The President cannot suo motu reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature. According to Article 200, only the Governor has the power to reserve a bill for the President’s consideration. The President can only act after the Governor reserves the bill.

Q. 85 Consider the following pairs:

Provision in the Constitution of India	Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State	The Directive Principles of the State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving the rich heritage of our composite culture	The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories	The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: C

Explanation:

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Article 50 of the Constitution of India (under Part IV: Directive Principles of State Policy) states: “The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.”
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Article 51A(f) under Part IVA: Fundamental Duties of the Constitution reads: “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.”
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Article 24 of the Constitution under Part III: Fundamental Rights states: “No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.”

Q.86 Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule:
I. The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration
II. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer D

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect. When an area is declared a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule, the State Government does not lose its executive powers. It continues to govern these areas, though with certain special responsibilities and limitations.

Statement II is incorrect: The Constitution does not provide for the Union Government to take over the administration of Scheduled Areas under any provision of the Fifth Schedule. Administration remains with the State Government, with the Governor having the power to make regulations for governance of these areas.

Q.87 With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Organization	Union Ministry
I. The National Automotive Board	Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. The Coir Board	Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. The National Centre for Trade	Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
Information

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement I: Incorrect

The National Automotive Board (NAB) functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Statement II: Incorrect

The Coir Board works under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), not the Ministry of Heavy Industries.

Statement III: Incorrect

The National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI) was a joint initiative of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and India Trade Promotion Organisation (ITPO).

Q.88 Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: A

Explanation:

Certain constitutional amendments in India, particularly those affecting the federal structure, require a more rigorous process. These amendments must be passed by a special majority in both Houses of Parliament and also ratified by at least half of the state legislatures. Importantly, such amendments do not necessitate prior presentation to the President for assent before state ratification. This procedure is outlined in Article 368(2) of the Constitution.

Provisions requiring this process include:

Election of the President (Articles 54 and 55)
Extent of executive powers of the Union and the states (Articles 73 and 162). Statement II is correct
Supreme Court and High Courts (Articles 124–147 and 214–231)
Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states (Articles 245–255)
Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule. Statement I is correct.
Representation of states in Parliament
Amendment of the Constitution (Article 368 itself).
Conditions of the Governor’s office do not require State ratification. Hence, Statement III is Incorrect.

Q.89 With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 361(1) of the Constitution: “The President or the Governor shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office…”
Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 361(2) of the Constitution: “No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office.”
Statement 3 is correct: Article 194(2) of the Constitution (similar to Article 105 for Parliament) states: “No member of the Legislature of a State shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in the Legislature or any committee thereof.

Q.90 Consider the following activities:
I. Production of crude oil
II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
IV. Production of natural gas

How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three

(d)All the four

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement I: Incorrect

Statement IV: Incorrect

Exploration and production (E&P) of crude oil or natural gas (these are upstream activities) is not regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board.
This is under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas and governed by bodies like DGH (Directorate General of Hydrocarbons).

Statement II: Correct

Statement III: Correct

According to the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006, the PNGRB regulates the midstream and downstream sectors of the petroleum and natural gas industry. Specifically, it regulates:

Refining, storage, and transportation of petroleum products.
Transportation and distribution of natural gas through pipelines.
City or local natural gas distribution networks.
Marketing of petroleum products and natural gas.

Q. 91 “Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of:

(a) The Champaran Satyagraha
(b) Publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
(c) Attending the Second Round Table Conference in London
(d) The launch of the Quit India Movement

Answer: B

Explanation:

On 6 April, Gandhiji reached Dandi and declared- Sedition has become my religion.

Q.92 The famous female figurine known as ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of:

(a) Carnelian
(b) Clay
(c) Bronze
(d) Gold

Answer: C

Explanation:

The dancing girl of Mohenjo-Daro is made of bronze. It’s a bronze sculpture, one of the most well-known artifacts from the Indus Valley Civilization, found at the Mohenjo-Daro site. The statue was created using the lost-wax casting technique.

Q.93 Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?

(a) C. R. Das
(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(c) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
(d) M. A. Jinnah

Answer: B

Explanation:

Madan Mohan Malvia appeared in the High Court in 1923 after an interval of ten years, it was to support the appeal of the 170 persons sentenced to death by the Session judge of Gorakhpur in the Chauri Chaura case. In this case 225 persons had been tried for setting fire to the police station of Chauri Chaura (in Deoria district) and causing the death of one Sub-Inspector and 21 constables trapped in it. One hundred and seventy had been sentenced to death by the session judge. A barrister from Aligarh named Qadri was crown counsel. Malaviya argued the case in general for all the accused for four or five days. A dozen other lawyers appeared for individual accused persons. The case was heard by a bench consisting of Chief Justice Sir Grimwood Mears and Justice Sir Theodore Piggot.

Q.94 Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?

(a) The Poona Pact
(b) The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)
(c) Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement
(d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: A

Explanation:

After the Poona Pact was signed, Gandhi emphasized social reform and upliftment of the Dalits, whom he called “Harijans” (meaning “Children of God”).

Q.95 Consider the following fruits:

I. Papaya
II. Pineapple
III. Guava

How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Answer: C

Explanation:

Portuguese, being the earliest European nation to arrive in India, became the agents for introducing several American crops like maize, sweet potato and capsicums in the country. The Portuguese also introduced many ‘New World’ fruits like the pineapple, Papaya, Sapodilla, and the Guava which found acceptance and became part of Indian food culture.

https://nhb.gov.in/report_files/pineapple/PINEAPPLE.htm

https://nhb.gov.in/model-project-reports/Horticulture%20Crops/Guava/Guava1.htm

Q. 96 Consider the following countries:

I. United Kingdom
II. Denmark
III. New Zealand
IV. Australia
V. Brazil

How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
(a) All the five
(b) Only four
(c) Only three
(d) Only two

Answer: C
Explanation:

UK: Mainland UK operates on Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) or British Summer Time (BST). However, the UK has overseas territories such as the Falkland Islands, Bermuda, Gibraltar, etc. It has a total of 9 time zones.
Denmark has only one time zone
New Zealand has two standard time zones.
Australia has 9 time zones.
Brazil has four time zones.

Q.97 Consider the following statements:

I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Anadyr (Russia) and Nome (Alaska, USA) are separated by the Bering Strait and are on opposite sides of the International Date Line (IDL). There is a time difference of approx 21 hours. Therefore, people could be waking up and having breakfast on different calendar days — e.g., it could be Monday morning in Anadyr and still Sunday morning in Nome.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Anadyr is ahead of Nome by around 21 hours. So, when it is Monday in Anadyr, it is still Sunday in Nome.

Q.98 Who among the following was the founder of the Self-Respect Movement?

(a) Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav
(d) Dinkarrao Javalkar

Answer: A

Explanation:

The self-respect movement was founded by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, commonly known as Periyar. It was a dynamic social movement aimed at destroying the contemporary Hindu social order in its totality and creating a new, rational society without caste, religion and god.

https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/hess207.pdf

Q.99 Consider the following pairs:

Country	Resource rich in
I. Botswana	Diamond
II. Chile	Lithium
III.Indonesia	Nickel

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) only one

(b) only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: C

Explanation:

Botswana is renowned for its rich deposits of diamonds.
Indonesia is renowned for its abundance of various minerals, including nickel, tin, copper, bauxite, and gold.
Chile is rich in Lithium. (ABC triangle)
Australia is a leading global producer of numerous minerals, with particular strengths in bauxite, iron ore, gold, and lithium

Q.100 Consider the following pairs:

Region	Country
I. Mallorca	Italy
II.Normandy	Spain
III. Sardinia	France

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:

Mallorca is one of the four major islands in the Balearic Islands, an archipelago in the Mediterranean Sea that is part of Spain
Normandy is not in Spain. It is a region located in northwest France, specifically in the region of Haut-Normandie. Normandy is known for its historical significance, beautiful landscapes, and regional cuisine
Sardinia is an autonomous region of Italy

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