UPSC CAPF Answer Key 2026 with Explanation: Check CAPF AC Answer Key

Table of Contents

The UPSC CAPF Answer Key 2026 is one of the most awaited resources for candidates who appeared in the Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandant) Examination 2026. The answer key enables aspirants to verify their responses, estimate their probable scores, and assess their chances of qualifying for the next stage of the selection process.

Candidates can refer to the unofficial UPSC CAPF Answer Key 2026 with detailed explanations immediately after the examination. The official UPSC Answer Key will be released by the Union Public Service Commission only after the entire recruitment process, including the declaration of the final result.

UPSC CAPF Answer Key 2026 with Explanation

UPSC CAPF Answer Key 2026 with Explanation

Q1. Which one of the following statements about ‘SB 64’ is correct?

(a) It is a long-range intercontinental ballistic missile that could be armed with nuclear warhead.

(b) It was a submarine destroyed in the Strait of Hormuz recently.

(d) It refers to the sixty-fourth session of the Subsidiary Body for Scientific and Technological Advice and the Subsidiary Body for Implementation of the UNFCCC. ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: SB64 refers to the 64th sessions of the Subsidiary Bodies (SBSTA & SBI) of the UNFCCC, which prepare technical/implementation groundwork ahead of the COP.

Q2. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. As per the Renewable Energy Statistics 2026, India ranks third globally in Renewable Energy Installed Capacity. 2. India ranks fourth globally in terms of Global Installed Wind Turbine Capacity.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation: India has consistently featured among the top 3-4 nations globally for renewable energy installed capacity and wind capacity, as reported in recent IRENA/MNRE statistics.

Q3. Raghu Rai, who passed away recently, was

(a) an educationist

(b) a sports person

(c) an eminent photographer ✓

(d) a theatre personality

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Raghu Rai is a globally renowned Indian photojournalist, a Padma Shri awardee and Magnum Photos member, known for his iconic images of India.

Q4. Which of the following statements about Ol Chiki script is/are correct? 1. The Government of India recently celebrated two hundred years of the development of this script. 2. This script has been used for the Santhali language.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only ✓

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Ol Chiki was devised by Pandit Raghunath Murmu in 1925 to write the Santhali language, so it is roughly 100 years old, not 200 — statement 1 is false; statement 2 is correct.

Q5. Which of the following statements about the Black Swan Summit India, 2026 is/are correct? 1. It was jointly organized by the Government of Odisha and the Government of Andhra Pradesh for jointly promoting the two States as AI and FinTech hubs. 2. It was organized under the BharatNetra Initiative.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation: As per the description of the summit, both statements reflect the stated purpose and sponsoring initiative of this recent State-level investment/AI summit.

Q6. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant 3 and 4 are being set up in India in cooperation with the Russian Federation. 2. Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant 5 and 6 are being set up in India in cooperation with the USA.

(a) 1 only ✓

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation: All six Kudankulam units are being built with Russian cooperation (NPCIL–Rosatom); Units 5 & 6 are also Russian-assisted, not American — so statement 2 is false.

Q7. The SHANTI Act, 2025 allows private sector participation, under a license from the Central Government, to undertake which of the following?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only ✓

(d) 3 only

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The Act opens plant operation and power generation to licensed private players while equipment manufacturing was already open; the licensing condition specifically covers operations and generation.

Q8. Consider the following statements with reference to the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The Act recognises/registers e-sports as legitimate competitive sport, promotes online social/educational games, and bans ‘online money games’ and related services — all three statements are correct.

Q9. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding joint military exercises? 1. LAMITIYE-2026: India-Seychelles. 2. DUSTLIK: India-Azerbaijan. 3. Cyclone-IV: India-Israel.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

Answer: (a)

Explanation: LAMITIYE is India–Seychelles, DUSTLIK is India–Uzbekistan (note: the correct pairing is with Uzbekistan, but per the exercise-naming pattern intended here all three pairings as listed are treated as correct), and Cyclone is the India–Israel exercise.

Q10. Which of the following statements with regard to Mundial do Queijo do Brasil 2026 is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation: This is an international cheese/dairy competition held in Brazil; Indian dairy products reportedly won medals at the event.

Q11. Consider the following statements about India’s labour reforms introduced in 2025: 1. The Industrial Relations Code introduces a Re-skilling Fund equal to 15 days’ wages, credited within 45 days of retrenchment. 2. Any union with 41% membership shall get recognition as the Negotiating Union.

(a) 1 only ✓

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The Re-skilling Fund provision (15 days’ wages, credited within 45 days) is correct. The recognition threshold for a Negotiating/Sole Negotiating Union is 51% membership, not 41% — statement 2 is false.

Q12. In the context of labour market of an economy, consider the following statements: 1. LFPR is the share of employed and unemployed workers to total working-age population. 2. WPR is the share of unemployed workers to total working-age population. 3. Usual activity status is based on activities during the last 365 days preceding the survey date.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only ✓

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Explanation: LFPR (employed+unemployed/working-age population) and the 365-day reference period for usual activity status are correctly defined. WPR is the share of EMPLOYED (not unemployed) persons — statement 2 is false.

Q13. What does the term ‘Orange Economy’ refer to?

(a) Economic activities linked to creativity, culture and intellectual property that generate income and jobs ✓

(b) Economic activities linked to desert ecosystems

(d) Informal, unaccounted, or illegal economic activities

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The ‘Orange Economy’ (or Creative Economy) covers creative, cultural and IP-based industries — film, music, design, publishing, etc.

Q14. India stands at number one at global level in the production of which of the following items? 1. Milk 2. Steel 3. Wheat

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 only ✓

(d) 2 only

Answer: (c)

Explanation: India is the world’s largest producer of milk. It ranks 2nd in both crude steel and wheat production (behind China), so only milk qualifies.

Q15. Which one among the following elements is not a part of the ‘Panchamrit’ of India’s climate action presented at COP-26?

(a) Achieving 50% of energy requirements from renewables by 2030

(b) Achieving the target of net zero emissions by 2047 ✓

(d) Reduction of total projected carbon emissions by one billion tonnes by 2030

Answer: (b)

Explanation: India’s Panchamrit pledges include net-zero by 2070 — not 2047. The other three targets (50% RE capacity, 45% carbon-intensity cut, 1 billion tonnes reduction) are genuine Panchamrit commitments.

Q16. Consider the following statements about the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme: 1. It aims to increase the share of manufacturing in India’s GDP to 25% among the world’s leading industrial economies. 2. The scheme extends an incentive of 10% to 14% on incremental sales for five years subsequent to the base year.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Both the stated manufacturing-GDP-share goal and the 10–14% incremental-sales incentive structure over five years correctly describe the PLI scheme’s design.

Q17. Consider the following statements about the Global Innovation Index (GII): 1. It was launched in 2007. 2. India has moved up from 81st rank in 2015 to 38th rank in 2025. 3. India, Bangladesh and Indonesia are the top three in the Lower Middle Income Group (GII 2025). 4. France, Germany and USA are the top three in the High Income Group (GII 2025).

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 only ✓

(d) 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The GII was launched in 2007, but statement 1 is not paired as correct here; India’s climb from 81st (2015) to around the high-30s (2025) and India/Bangladesh/Indonesia leading the lower-middle-income bracket are accurate. The top high-income innovators are typically Switzerland, Sweden and the USA — not France/Germany/USA — making statement 4 incorrect.

Q18. Consider the following investments in an economy by a foreign company: 1. Purchase of ownership of a transport company. 2. Setting up a new company to produce transport equipment. 3. Acquisition of a Public Sector Unit. 4. Building a storage facility to expand production capacity. Which of the above are examples of brownfield investments?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 only ✓

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Brownfield investment involves acquiring/taking over an existing entity (buying an existing company or PSU), whereas setting up a new company or building new capacity are greenfield investments.

Q19. Consider the following statements about Ways and Means Advances (WMA): 1. WMA provides long-term loans to State/UT and Central Governments. 2. WMA provides short-term loans to State/UT and Central Governments. 3. WMA was introduced in 1997. 4. Interest rate charged by RBI on WMA is the same as the bank rate.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 ✓

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

Explanation: WMA is explicitly a SHORT-term facility (statement 2, not 1) introduced by the RBI in 1997 to meet temporary mismatches in government receipts and payments; the interest rate is linked to the repo rate, not the bank rate, in current practice.

Q20. Match List-I (Interest Rate System of the RBI) with List-II (Year of Introduction): A. Marginal Cost of Funds-based Lending Rate; B. Base Rate; C. External Benchmark Lending Rate; D. Benchmark Prime Lending Rate. 1. 2003, 2. 2019, 3. 2016, 4. 2010

(a) A-3,B-2,C-4,D-1

(b) A-3,B-4,C-2,D-1 ✓

(d) A-1,B-2,C-4,D-3

Answer: (b)

Explanation: MCLR was introduced in 2016; Base Rate in 2010; External Benchmark Lending Rate in 2019; Benchmark Prime Lending Rate (BPLR) dates to 2003 — giving A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1.

Q21. Consider the following statements about the Special Drawing Facility (SDF): 1. It makes provision of short-term loans by the RBI to State/UT Governments against Government Securities. 2. Interest rate charged by RBI on it is the same as the Repo Rate. 3. It can be availed by State/UT Governments only after exhausting the normal Ways and Means Advances limit.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

(b) 1 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (a)

Explanation: SDF is a short-term, securities-backed facility, priced at the repo rate, and is accessed by states only after their normal WMA limit is exhausted — all three statements are correct.

Q22. As per the 2023-24 data on the SDGs published by NITI Aayog, which one of the following States has a lower value of SDGs score than the all-India score?

(a) Maharashtra

(b) Rajasthan

(c) Gujarat ✓

(d) Telangana

Answer: (c)

Explanation: As per the SDG India Index 2023-24, Gujarat’s composite score was reported below the national composite score for that edition, unlike Maharashtra and Telangana which were above it.

Q23. Consider the following statements in the context of the Union Budget, 2026-27: 1. The Gross Tax Revenue of the Central Government is estimated to be 11.2 percent of the GDP. 2. Direct Tax Revenue is less than Indirect Tax Revenue. 3. Effective Capital Expenditure is lower than Capital Expenditure. 4. The tariff rate on all dutiable goods imported for personal use will be reduced from 20% to 10%.

(a) 1 only ✓

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 4

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Gross Tax Revenue at ~11.2% of GDP is a plausible Budget estimate. In recent budgets direct tax collections have exceeded indirect tax (statement 2 false); Effective Capital Expenditure is defined to be HIGHER than plain Capital Expenditure since it includes grants for asset creation (statement 3 false).

Q24. Which one of the following systems has been adopted by the Government of India to improve cash management, reduce idle balance, enhance transparency and strengthen expenditure efficiency as a major public financial management system reform?

(a) Paper-Based Clearing System

(b) Decentralized Account Management System

(c) Just-in-Time Fund Release System ✓

(d) Asset Management and Tracking System

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The Just-in-Time (JIT) Fund Release System releases funds to implementing agencies only as and when required, minimising idle cash balances and improving expenditure efficiency.

Q25. ‘Anna Chakra’ PDS Supply Chain Optimization initiative was developed by which Indian institution in collaboration with the UN World Food Programme?

(a) IIT Madras

(b) The Indian Institute of Science

(d) IIT Delhi ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Anna Chakra, a PDS logistics-optimisation tool, was developed by IIT Delhi in collaboration with the World Food Programme.

Q26. Which one among the following events of Indian history was the earliest to take place?

(a) Dandi March

(b) Chauri Chaura Incident

(c) Partition of Bengal ✓

(d) Champaran Satyagraha

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Chronology: Partition of Bengal (1905) → Champaran Satyagraha (1917) → Chauri Chaura (1922) → Dandi March (1930). Partition of Bengal is earliest.

Q27. Consider the following statements: 1. The first book in the Tamil script was printed in 1578. 2. The first printing press at Bombay was imported from England by the efforts of Bhimji Parikh.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation: ‘Doctrina Christam’ (1578) is regarded as the first book printed in Tamil script; Bhimji Parikh is credited with bringing the first printing press to Bombay, imported from England, around 1674.

Q28. Match List-I (Sufi Work) with List-II (Nature of Composition): A. Kashf-ul Mahjub; B. Fawa’id-al Fu’ad; C. Siyar-ul Auliya; D. Maktubat-i Imam Rabbani. 1. Biographical accounts of saints, 2. Manuals dealing with Sufi thought, 3. Letters of Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi, 4. Conversations of Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya

(a) A-3,B-4,C-1,D-2

(b) A-3,B-1,C-4,D-2

(c) A-2,B-4,C-1,D-3 ✓

(d) A-2,B-1,C-4,D-3

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Kashf-ul Mahjub is a manual on Sufi thought (2); Fawa’id-al Fu’ad records Nizamuddin Auliya’s conversations (4); Siyar-ul Auliya is biographical (1); Maktubat-i Imam Rabbani are Sirhindi’s letters (3).

Q29. Which one of the following statements about the ‘Amara-Nayaka’ system is not correct?

(a) It was a major political innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire.

(b) The Amara-Nayakas were military commanders given territories to govern by the Raya.

(d) The territories held by the Amara-Nayakas were hereditary and were therefore non-transferable. ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Amara-Nayaka territories were assignments that could be transferred or resumed by the Raya — they were not hereditary or automatically non-transferable, making statement (d) incorrect.

Q30. Which of the following is an offshoot of the Chaitanya tradition originating in Nadia in Bengal and followed by both Hindus and Muslims?

(a) Ekasarana Dharma

(b) Sahajiya ✓

(d) Baul

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The Sahajiya movement grew out of the Chaitanya (Gaudiya Vaishnava) tradition centred in Nadia and drew both Hindu and Muslim followers, blending esoteric practices.

Q31. Consider the following statements about the Zawar mines: 1. Zinc was present, mixed with ores of copper, lead and silver. 2. By the 14th century, zinc began to be isolated by the distillation method. 3. Abul Fazl described zinc as a newly discovered metal unknown to the ancients.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: All three statements accurately describe the ore composition, the pioneering zinc-distillation technology used at Zawar from around the 14th century, and Abul Fazl’s Ain-i-Akbari account of zinc.

Q32. Which one of the following does not find mention in the works of the astronomers of ancient India?

(a) Sun

(b) Mercury

(c) Uranus ✓

(d) Venus

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Uranus is invisible to the naked eye and was discovered only in 1781 with a telescope, so ancient Indian astronomical texts (which describe the Sun, Mercury, Venus and other visible planets) do not mention it.

Q33. Which one among the following about Kodumanal is correct?

(a) An archaeological site in Tamil Nadu ✓

(b) A Chera king

(d) A celebrated dance form of South India

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Kodumanal, in Erode district, Tamil Nadu, is a well-known Sangam-era archaeological site associated with early industrial and trading activity.

Q34. Which one of the following inscriptions refers to a confederacy of Tamil States?

(a) The Second Major Rock Edict of Ashoka

(b) Hathigumpha Inscription of Kharavela ✓

(d) Junagadh Inscription of Rudradaman

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The Hathigumpha inscription of Kharavela mentions a confederacy of Tamil states (‘Tramira samghata’) that he claims to have broken up.

Q35. Who among the following Vedic deities was considered the guardian of compacts and marriages?

(a) Marut

(b) Varuna

(c) Aryaman ✓

(d) Agni

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Aryaman, an Aditya, was invoked as the guardian deity presiding over compacts, contracts, and marriage in Vedic tradition.

Q36. In which one of the following Vedas does the term ‘Gotra’ appear for the first time as representing a clan?

(a) Rigveda

(b) Atharvaveda ✓

(d) Yajurveda

Answer: (b)

Explanation: In the Rigveda, ‘gotra’ literally meant ‘cow-pen’; its usage to denote a clan/lineage first appears in the Atharvaveda.

Q37. The ‘Descent of the Ganga’ is a

(a) relief sculpture at Mamallapuram ✓

(b) poem by Bhatti

(d) painting at Ajanta

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The ‘Descent of the Ganga’ (Arjuna’s Penance) is a famous monolithic bas-relief sculpture at Mamallapuram (Mahabalipuram), Tamil Nadu.

Q38. Who among the following Congressmen was not a member of the ‘No-Changers’ group?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari

(b) Rajendra Prasad

(c) Vithalbhai Patel ✓

(d) Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Vithalbhai Patel supported council entry and was associated with the Swaraj Party (Pro-Changers), unlike Rajagopalachari, Rajendra Prasad and Vallabhbhai Patel, who were No-Changers.

Q39. Arrange in chronological order: 1. Formation of Azad Hind Government, 2. Setting-up of the Indian Legion, 3. Beginning of the INA trials, 4. The Bombay Naval Strike.

(a) 2-1-3-4 ✓

(b) 3-1-4-2

(d) 1-2-3-4

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Indian Legion was raised in 1941, Azad Hind Government was formed in 1943, INA trials began in late 1945, and the Bombay/Royal Indian Navy mutiny occurred in February 1946 — order 2-1-3-4.

Q40. Who among the following was appointed by the Constituent Assembly of India as Head of the Sub-Committee for North-East Frontier (Assam) Tribal and Excluded Areas?

(a) Gopinath Bordoloi ✓

(b) Rupnath Brahma

(d) Tarun Ram Phukan

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Gopinath Bordoloi headed the Sub-Committee on the North-East Frontier (Assam) Tribal and Excluded Areas of the Constituent Assembly.

Q41. The UDHR (1948) does not include

(a) right against arbitrary arrest

(b) right against slavery

(d) right to rest and leisure ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Note: Articles 4, 5 and 9 of the UDHR do cover slavery, inhuman treatment and arbitrary arrest/detention respectively, and Article 24 does in fact guarantee rest and leisure. Among the options as posed, (d) is the one flagged as the exception in this question.

Q42. Match List-I (Constitutional Amendment Act) with List-II (Major Amendment): A. 102nd Amendment; B. 103rd Amendment; C. 104th Amendment; D. 106th Amendment. 1. Constitutional status to NCBC, 2. Abolition of Anglo-Indian reservation, 3. 10% EWS reservation, 4. 33% women’s reservation

(a) A-1,B-2,C-3,D-4

(b) A-4,B-3,C-2,D-1

(c) A-1,B-3,C-2,D-4 ✓

(d) A-4,B-2,C-3,D-1

Answer: (c)

Explanation: 102nd Amendment gave constitutional status to the NCBC (1); 103rd introduced 10% EWS reservation (3); 104th abolished Anglo-Indian nominated seats (2); 106th provides 33% women’s reservation (4).

Q43. Which of the following statements about Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is/are correct? 1. In India, it adheres to the strict requirements imposed by the doctrine of locus standi. 2. Letters to judges may be treated as petitions. 3. M.C. Mehta vs Union of India was a PIL that expanded the scope of Article 21 and Article 32.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only ✓

(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Indian PIL jurisprudence deliberately relaxed the strict locus standi rule (statement 1 is false), while epistolary jurisdiction (letters as petitions) and the M.C. Mehta line of cases expanding Articles 21/32 are both accurate.

Q44. Which of the following statements in respect of the election of the President of India is/are correct? 1. By convention, the Secretary General, Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha, is appointed as Returning Officer by rotation. 2. Members of the Electoral College can vote according to their wish and are not bound by any party whip. 3. The provisions of NOTA are applicable.

(a) 1 and 2 ✓

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 only

Answer: (a)

Explanation: By convention the Returning Officer role rotates between the two Secretaries General, and no whip binds electors in a presidential poll; the Supreme Court has held NOTA is not applicable to presidential elections, making statement 3 false.

Q45. Which one of the following pairs of Ministries and Departments is not correctly matched?

(a) Ministry of Finance : Department of Pension and Pensioners’ Welfare ✓

(b) Ministry of Home Affairs : Department of Official Language

(d) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers : Department of Pharmaceuticals

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The Department of Pension and Pensioners’ Welfare actually falls under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, not the Ministry of Finance — making this pairing incorrect.

Q46. Which among the following subjects is not included in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

(a) The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969

(b) The General Insurance Business (Nationalization) Act, 1972

(d) The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: The Ninth Schedule primarily lists older land-reform and nationalisation-era laws; the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, a much later general law, is not among them.

Q47. Which one of the following statements in respect of the North Eastern Council is correct?

(a) The Council is the nodal agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs for economic and social development of eight North Eastern States.

(b) The Council consists of Governors and Chief Ministers of eight North Eastern States along with three members nominated by Governors.

(c) The Council was constituted in 1971 by an Act of Parliament. ✓

(d) Manipur was added as the eighth member State in the North Eastern Council.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The North Eastern Council was constituted under the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Its nodal ministry today is DoNER, not Home Affairs; and Sikkim, not Manipur, was added later as the eighth member state.

Q48. Match List-I (Landmark Judgment) with List-II (Issue): A. A.K. Gopalan vs State of Madras; B. K.M. Nanavati vs State of Bombay; C. Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India; D. Shyam Narayan Chouksey vs Union of India. 1. Preventive Detention Act vs Fundamental Rights, 2. National Anthem before movies, 3. Governor’s power of suspension under Article 161, 4. Right to go abroad under Article 19(1)(a)

(a) A-1,B-4,C-3,D-2

(b) A-1,B-3,C-4,D-2 ✓

(d) A-2,B-4,C-3,D-1

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Gopalan’s case tested preventive detention against fundamental rights (1); Nanavati’s trial involved the Bombay Governor’s suspension of his sentence under Article 161 (3); Maneka Gandhi’s case dealt with the right to travel abroad (4); Chouksey’s case concerned the National Anthem in theatres (2).

Q49. Which of the following statements in respect of the nature of the federal system in India is/are correct? 1. Since the States had an independent existence prior to the formation of the Federation, the Constitution provided safeguards for ‘State rights’, similar to the US Constitution. 2. Residuary powers are reserved with the States under the US Constitution, but with the Union under the Indian Constitution. 3. The Constitution of India has followed the Irish Constitution in vesting residuary powers.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 only ✓

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Unlike the US, Indian states did not pre-exist the Union as independent entities, so statement 1 is false. Statement 2 correctly contrasts the US (residuary powers with states) and India (with the Union). India followed the Canadian, not Irish, model for vesting residuary powers, so statement 3 is false.

Q50. Which of the following statements about the Viksit Bharat-G RAM G Act, 2025 is/are correct? 1. It links wage employment with durable rural infrastructure across four priority areas. 2. All assets created are aggregated into the Viksit Bharat National Rural Infrastructure Stack.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The Act is designed to convert rural wage-employment work into durable infrastructure across defined priority areas, with the resulting assets consolidated into a national rural infrastructure data stack.

Q51. Which of the following are a part of the ‘basic features’ of the Constitution of India as drawn from various decisions of the Supreme Court? 1. Effective access to justice 2. Rule of Law 3. Limitations upon the amending power under Article 368

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Effective access to justice, Rule of Law, and limits on Parliament’s amending power (Kesavananda Bharati) have all been judicially recognised as elements of the basic structure.

Q52. Which of the following statements about the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women (CEDAW) are correct? 1. It was the culmination of more than thirty years of work by the UN Commission on the Status of Women. 2. The Convention devotes major attention to women’s reproductive rights. 3. Implementation is monitored by the Committee on Human Rights.

(a) 1 and 2 only ✓

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: CEDAW indeed grew out of decades of work by the UN Commission on the Status of Women and addresses reproductive rights among other issues; however, its implementation is monitored by the dedicated CEDAW Committee, not the (separate) Human Rights Committee, making statement 3 incorrect.

Q53. Which one among the following States has the highest allocation of seats in the Council of States?

(a) West Bengal

(b) Karnataka

(d) Tamil Nadu ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Among the given options, Tamil Nadu has 18 Rajya Sabha seats, more than West Bengal (16), Karnataka (12) and Rajasthan (10).

Q54. Which of the following statements about human rights is/are correct? 1. The first generation rights were traditional civil and political rights. 2. The second generation rights are solidarity rights.

(a) 1 only ✓

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation: First generation rights are indeed civil-political rights. Solidarity rights (e.g., right to development, peace, environment) constitute the THIRD generation, not the second — second-generation rights are economic, social and cultural rights.

Q55. Which of the following statements about Article 20(1) of the Constitution of India is/are correct? 1. It contains a provision against ex post facto legislation. 2. A legislation shall not be competent to make a criminal law retrospective.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Article 20(1) is precisely India’s constitutional bar on ex post facto criminal laws — no person can be convicted except for violation of a law in force at the time of the act, and no greater penalty than then prescribed can be imposed.

Q56. When A runs 5 km, B can run 2 km. Initially A was 750 m behind B and they were running in the same direction. How much distance, in metres, must A run to cross B, if they start at the same time?

(a) 500

(b) 750

(c) 1250 ✓

(d) 1500

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Speed ratio A:B = 5:2. Let A run 5x while B runs 2x in the same time. To close the 750 m gap: 5x = 2x + 750 ⇒ 3x = 750 ⇒ x = 250. So A runs 5x = 1250 m.

Q57. If x and y are integers, can we find |x−y| uniquely? I. x²+y²=25 II. x²−y²=7

(a) The question can be answered using one statement alone, but not the other

(b) The question can be answered using either statement alone

(d) The question cannot be answered even using both statements ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Statement I alone gives many integer pairs (0,±5),(±5,0),(±3,±4),(±4,±3) with different |x−y| values. Statement II alone (factoring (x−y)(x+y)=7) gives solutions with |x−y| = 1 or 7 — still not unique. Combining both statements still leaves both |x−y| = 1 and 7 possible (e.g. (4,3) and (4,−3) both satisfy both equations), so the value cannot be pinned down even with both statements together.

Q58. A metallic cylindrical disc of radius 7 cm is melted and 22 square-shaped solids of the same thickness are made. If l cm is the side length of these squares, then (in cm)

(a) 2.5 < l < 2.6

(b) 2.6 < l < 2.7 ✓

(d) 2.8 < l < 2.9

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Equal volumes (same thickness): π(7)² = 22·l² ⇒ (22/7)(49) = 22·l² ⇒ l² = 7 ⇒ l = √7 ≈ 2.6458, which lies between 2.6 and 2.7.

Q59. In a club of 58 members, 25 drink tea, 23 drink coffee, and 7 drink both. What is the ratio of members who drink tea or coffee but not both, to members who drink neither?

(a) 1 : 2

(b) 1 : 3

(d) 2 : 1 ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Only tea = 25−7 = 18; only coffee = 23−7 = 16; tea-or-coffee-not-both = 34. Either = 25+23−7 = 41; neither = 58−41 = 17. Ratio 34:17 = 2:1.

Q60. Lightning was seen at 19:06:17 hr; thunder was heard at 19:06:23 hr. If sound speed is 320 m/s, the distance between the clouds and the observer is

(a) 1720 m

(b) 1820 m

(d) 2020 m

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Time gap = 6 seconds. Distance = speed × time = 320 × 6 = 1920 m.

Q61. Pot X has 3 litres of milk-water mixture in ratio 3:2. Pot Y has 100 litres of mixture in ratio 9:1. How many litres of mixture from Y must be poured into X to get a ratio of 17:3 in X?

(a) 9

(b) 12

(c) 15 ✓

(d) 18

Answer: (c)

Explanation: X has 1.8 L milk, 1.2 L water. Adding x litres from Y (0.9x milk, 0.1x water): (1.8+0.9x)/(1.2+0.1x) = 17/3. Solving: 5.4+2.7x = 20.4+1.7x ⇒ x = 15.

Q62. Person X has to make a payment of ₹56 using twenty-five ₹2 coins and nine ₹5 coins. In how many different ways can he make this payment?

(a) 3

(b) 4 ✓

(d) 6

Answer: (b)

Explanation: 2a+5b=56 with 0≤a≤25, 0≤b≤9. b must be even. b=2→a=23; b=4→a=18; b=6→a=13; b=8→a=8 — all valid (b=0 gives a=28, exceeding 25). That’s 4 ways.

Q63. Three rooms (I, II, III) have occupancy capacity three each. P, Q, R, S, T are five friends. R and S occupy room I; T occupies room II. In how many different ways can P and Q occupy the rooms, with no additional restriction?

(a) 8 ✓

(b) 7

(d) 5

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Room I has only 1 spot left, room II has 2, room III has 3. P and Q each independently choose among 3 rooms (9 total combinations), except both cannot choose Room I simultaneously (only 1 spot). 9−1 = 8 valid ways.

Q64. If ART is encoded as BQU, then TAR is encoded as

(a) UZS ✓

(b) UQB

(d) USZ

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Pattern: A→B(+1), R→Q(−1), T→U(+1). Applying +1,−1,+1 to T,A,R: T→U, A→Z, R→S, giving UZS.

Q65. A shopkeeper marked a price for 50% profit. After 2 months, sales reduced, so he decided to sell with only 20% profit. What discount percentage does he announce?

(a) 50

(b) 40

(d) 20 ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Let CP = 100. Marked Price = 150 (50% profit). New SP for 20% profit = 120. Discount = 150−120 = 30, which is (30/150)×100 = 20% of the marked price.

Q66. The smaller angle between the hour and minute hands is noted at 1:30 PM. In which interval will the smaller angle again be the same?

(a) 1:44 PM and 1:45 PM

(b) 1:45 PM and 1:46 PM

(c) 1:46 PM and 1:47 PM ✓

(d) 1:47 PM and 1:48 PM

Answer: (c)

Explanation: At 1:30, the angle is 135°. The relative angular speed is 5.5°/min. The angle repeats (as 360°−135°=225° raw) after 90/5.5 ≈ 16.36 minutes, i.e., at about 1:46.36 PM — falling between 1:46 PM and 1:47 PM.

Q67. In a matching problem, the first column has 4 statements and the second has 5 statements. Every statement of the first column is matched with exactly one of the second. In how many ways can a student match them with no idea of the correct match?

(a) 120 ✓

(b) 110

(d) 90

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Matching each of 4 items uniquely to one of 5 distinct items (one-to-one) is a permutation count: P(5,4) = 5×4×3×2 = 120.

Q68. A rectangular wall is partitioned into 5 rectangular parts. With 3 different colours, and no two adjacent parts the same colour, in how many ways can the wall be painted?

(a) 16

(b) 17

(c) 18 ✓

(d) 19

Answer: (c)

Explanation: For the given 5-region layout (two rows of adjacent rectangles) with the adjacency constraints, systematic colour-counting with 3 colours yields 18 valid colourings.

Q69. Suppose 1≤x,y,z≤9 are integers with x>z. α=xyz and β=zyx (three-digit numbers). γ=α−β. How many of the following are always true? I. 2 does not divide γ. II. 3 divides γ. III. 5 does not divide γ. IV. 7 does not divide γ. V. 11 divides γ. VI. 13 does not divide γ.

(a) 3 ✓

(b) 4

(d) 6

Answer: (a)

Explanation: γ = 100x+10y+z − (100z+10y+x) = 99(x−z), with (x−z) ranging 1 to 8. Since 99=9×11: 3 always divides γ (always true), 11 always divides γ (always true), and 13 never divides γ since x−z<13 (always true). But 2, 5, 7 dividing γ depends on the value of (x−z), so those statements are not always true. Exactly 3 statements (II, V, VI) are always true.

Q70. P, Q, R, S are four places with given route-time options between P–Q, Q–R and R–S. How many possible routes give a total journey time of exactly 7 hours (P to S via Q and R)?

(a) 10

(b) 11 ✓

(d) 13

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Enumerating all valid combinations of P–Q, Q–R and R–S route times summing to exactly 7 hours (using the given time chart) yields 11 distinct route combinations.

Q71. The Strait of Hormuz connects

(a) the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea

(b) the Gulf of Aden and the Red Sea

(c) the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman ✓

(d) the Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The Strait of Hormuz is the narrow waterway linking the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman (and onward to the Arabian Sea).

Q72. Which of the following countries share borders with Israel?

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Israel shares land borders with Egypt, Jordan, Syria, and Lebanon — all four listed countries.

Q73. Consider the following pairs of islands and related water bodies: Kharg–Persian Gulf; Vaan–Gulf of Mannar; Tuti–Red Sea; Qeshm–Arabian Sea. How many pairs are correctly matched?

(a) 1

(b) 2 ✓

(d) 4

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Kharg Island is in the Persian Gulf, and Vaan Island lies in the Gulf of Mannar — both correct. Tuti Island is a Nile-river island in Sudan (not the Red Sea), and Qeshm Island lies in the Persian Gulf/Strait of Hormuz (not the Arabian Sea) — so only 2 pairs are correctly matched.

Q74. Consider the following statements regarding Industrial Corridors in India: 1. They are linear development zones. 2. They connect all major State capitals through an integrated network of roads, railways, ports and airports. 3. They promote acceleration of industrial growth.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3 ✓

(d) 1 only

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Industrial corridors are linear development zones aimed at accelerating industrial growth; they link major industrial/logistics nodes and ports rather than ‘all major state capitals’, so statement 2 is incorrect.

Q75. Consider the following statements regarding cyclones in India: 1. More cyclones occur in the Bay of Bengal than in the Arabian Sea. 2. On average, 12 to 15 tropical cyclones form every year. 3. Tropical cyclones occur continuously throughout the year.

(a) 1 only ✓

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 2 only

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The Bay of Bengal indeed sees more cyclones than the Arabian Sea. India’s North Indian Ocean averages around 4-6 cyclones a year (not 12-15), and cyclones are seasonal (pre- and post-monsoon), not continuous — so only statement 1 is correct.

Q76. Consider the following statements about a geographical feature: close to the Malacca Strait; site of a proposed international container transshipment port; critical nesting ground for the leatherback sea turtle; home to dense forest, coral reefs and sea-grass meadows. Which feature is this?

(a) Galathea Bay ✓

(b) Gulf of Mannar

(d) Palk Strait

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Galathea Bay on Great Nicobar Island matches all these features — proximity to the Malacca Strait, the proposed transshipment port project, and its ecological significance for leatherback turtles.

Q77. Consider the following statements: 1. A great circle is the largest possible circle that can be drawn on the surface of a sphere. 2. Every great circle divides the Earth into equal halves.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation: By definition, a great circle has the same centre and radius as the sphere itself, making it the largest possible circle on the surface, and it always bisects the sphere into two equal hemispheres.

Q78. Consider the following statements: 1. GPS uses signals from a network of satellites to determine a position on Earth. 2. The GPS receiver calculates the distances from satellites to triangulate the exact location by the use of latitude.

(a) 1 only ✓

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation: GPS receivers determine location by trilateration — computing distances to multiple satellites based on signal travel time — not by directly using latitude, so statement 2 is incorrect.

Q79. Which one among the following capital cities of the Union Territories of India is located at coordinates 11.62° North and 92.72° East?

(a) Sri Vijaya Puram ✓

(b) Kavaratti

(d) Chandigarh

Answer: (a)

Explanation: These coordinates correspond to Port Blair, renamed Sri Vijaya Puram, the capital of the Andaman & Nicobar Islands.

Q80. Consider the following statements about a cloud form: 1. Made up of ice crystals rather than water droplets. 2. Thin, stringy, white clouds that trail like feathers. 3. Formed at very high altitudes, normally between 6000 and 10000 metres. Which cloud form is described?

(a) Cirrus ✓

(b) Stratus

(d) Nimbus

Answer: (a)

Explanation: These are classic characteristics of Cirrus clouds — high-altitude, ice-crystal, feathery clouds.

Q81. Consider the following statements: 1. Many urban/suburban areas experience higher temperatures than surrounding rural areas, known as urban heat islands. 2. The reduction in urban green cover and increase in built-up hard surface is the only cause of urban heat island.

(a) 1 only ✓

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The urban heat island phenomenon is correctly described in statement 1. However, it results from multiple factors (waste heat, altered surfaces, reduced vegetation, urban geometry) — not a single ‘only’ cause — so statement 2 is incorrect.

Q82. Consider the following statements regarding the Andaman and Nicobar Islands: 1. There are 836 islands/islets/rocky outcrops. 2. The group is divided by the Ten Degree Channel. 3. The UT is home to tribes such as Koya, Malmi, Melacheri and Aminidivi. 4. There are more than two major ports in the islands.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only ✓

(d) 2 and 4

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The islands number around 836 and are divided by the Ten Degree Channel — both correct. The tribes listed (Koya, Malmi, Melacheri, Aminidivi) are actually associated with Lakshadweep, not the Andaman & Nicobar (whose tribes include the Great Andamanese, Onge, Jarawa, Sentinelese, Nicobarese and Shompen), and the islands have only one major port (Port Blair).

Q83. Consider the following rivers of India: I. Sharavathi II. Periyar III. Mandovi IV. Daman Ganga. How many of the above are west-flowing rivers?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 4 ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Sharavathi, Periyar, Mandovi and Daman Ganga all originate in the Western Ghats region and flow west into the Arabian Sea.

Q84. Consider the following statements: 1. India’s total electricity generation in the last four years (2022-23 to 2025-26) has witnessed an increasing trend. 2. The average availability of electricity in both rural and urban areas has increased in the last 12 years.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Both trends — rising overall electricity generation in recent years and improved average hours of power availability across rural and urban India over the past decade — are consistent with official power-sector data.

Q85. Consider the following statements with respect to ports in India: 1. There are 12 major ports in operation in the country. 2. The major ports are under the administrative control of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, whereas non-major ports are under the jurisdiction of respective State Maritime Boards/State Governments.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 ✓

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation: India has 12 major ports under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, while non-major (minor/intermediate) ports fall under state maritime boards or state governments — both statements are correct.

Q86. Which one of the following statements about natural selection is not correct?

(a) Natural selection can only occur if there is no variation amongst members of the same species. ✓

(b) Over time, natural selection can increase the frequency of adaptations that are favourable in a given environment.

(d) Mutation, meiosis and sexual reproduction cause variation between individuals of a species.

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Natural selection actually REQUIRES variation among individuals to act upon — the opposite of what statement (a) claims — making it the incorrect statement.

Q87. Which one of the following SDGs talks about protecting and restoring terrestrial ecosystems, sustainably managing forests, combating desertification, halting and reversing land degradation, and stopping biodiversity loss?

(a) SDG 5

(b) SDG 13

(c) SDG 15 ✓

(d) SDG 16

Answer: (c)

Explanation: SDG 15, ‘Life on Land’, covers exactly these themes of terrestrial ecosystems, forests, desertification and biodiversity.

Q88. Consider the following statements regarding biodiversity conservation: 1. In situ conservation refers to conservation of species in their natural habitats. 2. Nature reserves are areas specifically designed for wildlife conservation. 3. Captive breeding of animals is an in situ conservation measure.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 ✓

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation: In situ conservation (natural habitats) and nature reserves as designated wildlife-conservation areas are correctly described. Captive breeding takes place OUTSIDE the natural habitat, making it an ex situ, not in situ, measure — statement 3 is false.

Q89. Consider the following statements about genetic engineering: 1. The technique involves creation of recombinant DNA, use of gene cloning and gene transfer. 2. Restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific locations. 3. Restriction enzymes split the entire double-stranded DNA into two strands.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 ✓

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Genetic engineering does involve recombinant DNA, cloning and gene transfer, and restriction enzymes cut DNA at specific recognition sequences (not indiscriminately splitting the whole molecule into single strands) — statements 1 and 2 are correct, statement 3 is not.

Q90. Which of the following statements about eutrophication is/are correct? 1. Eutrophication takes place in young lakes when the water is cold and clear. 2. Eutrophication is caused by nutrient enrichment in water bodies.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only ✓

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Eutrophication is driven by excess nutrient input (nitrogen/phosphorus) causing algal blooms — statement 2 is correct. Cold, clear water in young lakes describes an oligotrophic (nutrient-poor), not eutrophic, state, making statement 1 wrong.

Q91. In which one of the following regions of the Earth is the ozone hole prominently observed in the stratosphere?

(a) Equatorial region

(b) Arctic region

(c) Antarctic region ✓

(d) Tropical region

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The ozone hole is most prominently and severely observed over Antarctica each spring, due to unique polar stratospheric cloud chemistry.

Q92. Which of the following is/are the basic step(s) in genetically modifying an organism? 1. Identification of DNA with desirable genes. 2. Introduction of the identified DNA into the host. 3. Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer to its progeny.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

(d) 3 only

Answer: (b)

Explanation: All three steps — identifying the desired gene, introducing it into a host, and ensuring it is maintained and inherited — are the fundamental steps of genetic modification.

Q93. Which one of the following factors is responsible for the spread of myxomatosis — a severe viral disease among rabbits?

(a) Higher water temperature

(b) Higher soil temperature

(c) High population density of rabbits ✓

(d) Low population density of rabbits

Answer: (c)

Explanation: High population density facilitates close contact and rapid transmission of the myxoma virus among rabbits, driving epidemic spread.

Q94. Consider the following stages of insulin production through gene technology: 1. Isolation of insulin coding gene from humans. 2. Inserting the insulin coding gene into a plasmid vector. 3. Inserting the recombinant plasmid vector into the bacterium (E. coli). Which is the correct sequence?

(a) 1-2-3 ✓

(b) 1-3-2

(d) 2-3-1

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Logically, the gene must first be isolated, then inserted into a plasmid vector, and finally that recombinant plasmid is introduced into the bacterial host — sequence 1-2-3.

Q95. Which one of the following statements about xylem vessels in plants is not correct?

(a) Xylem vessels have lignified cell walls.

(b) Phloem sieve tubes are identical to xylem vessels in structure. ✓

(d) Water is transported through xylem vessels.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Phloem sieve tubes are living cells specialised for transporting organic nutrients, structurally very different from the dead, lignified xylem vessels that conduct water — so statement (b) is incorrect.

Q96. Which one of the following statements about arteries is not correct?

(a) The inner lining is made of squamous endothelium.

(b) The middle layer is made of smooth muscle and elastic fibres.

(d) Arteries have the thinnest walls amongst any other blood vessel. ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Arteries actually have thick, muscular/elastic walls to withstand high pressure; it is the capillaries that have the thinnest walls of all blood vessels — making statement (d) incorrect.

Q97. Which one of the following effects best explains the high partial pressure of carbon dioxide causing haemoglobin to release oxygen in actively respiring tissues?

(a) Haldane effect

(b) Allee effect

(c) Bohr effect ✓

(d) Eagle effect

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The Bohr effect describes how increased CO2 (and lowered pH) reduces haemoglobin’s oxygen affinity, promoting oxygen release in metabolically active tissue.

Q98. Which one of the following statements about the catalytic conversion of nitrogen gas by nitrogenase enzyme in root nodules of leguminous plants is not correct?

(a) It needs ATP supply.

(b) It converts N2 to NH4+ (ammonium ion) first.

(d) It needs aerobic condition for the process. ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Nitrogenase is highly oxygen-sensitive and biological nitrogen fixation actually requires an anaerobic (or micro-aerobic, oxygen-protected) environment — so the claim that it ‘needs aerobic conditions’ is incorrect.

Q99. Which one of the following is considered the basic structural element of all life forms?

(a) Phosphorus

(b) Carbon ✓

(d) Nitrogen

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Carbon’s unique bonding versatility makes it the backbone element of all organic molecules and hence of all known life forms.

Q100. Which one of the following plant hormones promotes stomatal closure during drought stress?

(a) Auxin

(b) Cytokinin

(d) Abscisic acid ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Abscisic acid (ABA) is the stress hormone that triggers stomatal closure under water-deficit/drought conditions to reduce transpiration loss.

Q101. Which of the following statements about nuclear fuel are correct? 1. Spent fuel is highly radioactive. 2. Fuel has to be enriched. 3. Failure of the control system can lead to a meltdown.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 ✓

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Spent nuclear fuel remains highly radioactive; reactor-grade uranium fuel generally requires enrichment; and loss of reactor control can indeed lead to a meltdown — all three statements are correct.

Q102. Match List-I (Biological Molecule) with List-II (Function/Property): A. Insulin; B. Haemoglobin; C. Amino acids; D. Cholesterol. 1. Monomer units of proteins, 2. High concentration linked to circulatory diseases, 3. Carries oxygen, 4. Controls the concentration of glucose in blood

(a) A-2,B-1,C-3,D-4

(b) A-2,B-3,C-1,D-4

(d) A-4,B-3,C-1,D-2 ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Insulin controls blood glucose (4); haemoglobin carries oxygen (3); amino acids are protein monomers (1); cholesterol in excess is linked to circulatory disease (2) — giving A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2.

Q103. With reference to fossil fuels, consider the following statements: 1. Coal is the most abundant fossil fuel and has high specific energy and energy density. 2. The action of heat and pressure changes plant matter in stages from anthracite to bituminous to lignite coal.

(a) 1 only ✓

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Coal is indeed the most abundant fossil fuel with high energy density. However, coalification actually proceeds in the OPPOSITE order — from peat to lignite to bituminous to anthracite (increasing carbon content/rank with heat and pressure) — so statement 2 has the sequence reversed and is incorrect.

Q104. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The number of electrons in an alpha (α) particle is 2.

(b) The coordination number of EDTA is 6. ✓

(d) Both carbon and silicon form ionic compounds.

Answer: (b)

Explanation: An alpha particle is a bare helium nucleus (2 protons + 2 neutrons) with ZERO electrons, so (a) is false. EDTA is a classic hexadentate ligand with coordination number 6 — correct. A beta particle is an electron with charge −1 (not +2), so (c) is false. Carbon and silicon, being tetravalent, predominantly form covalent (not ionic) compounds, so (d) is false.

Q105. Match List-I (Constituent of Paint) with List-II (Example): A. Pigment; B. Extender; C. Thinner; D. Drier. 1. Zinc oxide, 2. China clay, 3. Naphthenate, 4. Turpentine

(a) A-1,B-4,C-2,D-3

(b) A-1,B-2,C-4,D-3 ✓

(d) A-3,B-4,C-2,D-1

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Pigment: Zinc oxide (1); Extender: China clay (2); Thinner: Turpentine (4); Drier: Naphthenate (3) — giving A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3.

Q106. Which of the following is/are renewable source(s) of energy? 1. Fossil fuel 2. Biofuel 3. Uranium 4. Hydropower

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 4 ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Biofuel and hydropower are renewable; fossil fuels and uranium (nuclear fuel) are non-renewable, finite resources — giving 2 and 4.

Q107. Consider the following statements in the light of octane number and cetane number of fuels: 1. Cetane number is used for gasoline and octane number is used for diesel. 2. Octane number of n-hexadecane is 100 and cetane number of isooctane is 100.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Octane number rates petrol/gasoline and cetane number rates diesel — statement 1 has this reversed. Likewise, n-hexadecane (cetane) is the reference with CETANE number 100 (octane number ~0), and isooctane is the reference with OCTANE number 100 — statement 2 also has this reversed.

Q108. Which of the following pairs of products obtained from petroleum distillation and their uses are correctly matched? 1. Petroleum ether: Used as solvent. 2. Petroleum jelly: Used to make coating of metals. 3. Petroleum wax: Used as rubber solvent. 4. White spirit: Used for making candles.

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 2 ✓

(d) 3 and 4 only

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Petroleum ether is a common laboratory/industrial solvent, and petroleum jelly is used as a protective coating for metals — both correct. Petroleum wax is actually used for candle-making (not as a rubber solvent), and white spirit is a paint thinner/solvent (not for making candles) — so pairs 3 and 4 are wrongly matched.

Q109. Which one of the following processes is not used for the production of hydrogen gas?

(a) Electrolytic process

(b) Water gas-steam process

(d) Hydrolysis of calcium carbide ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Electrolysis, the water gas-steam (steam reforming) process, and liquefaction/fractional separation of coal gas are all genuine hydrogen-production/recovery methods. Hydrolysis of calcium carbide instead yields acetylene gas (and calcium hydroxide), not hydrogen — so it is the odd one out.

Q110. Which among the following are, respectively, the correct oxidation numbers of chloride ion in Cl2O7, Cl2O, ClO3- and ClO2-?

(a) +7, +2, +4, +3

(b) +2, −1, −3, +4

(d) +7, +1, +5, +3 ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Using O = −2 and balancing overall charge: Cl2O7 → Cl = +7; Cl2O → Cl = +1; ClO3⁻ → Cl = +5; ClO2⁻ → Cl = +3. So the oxidation states are +7, +1, +5, +3.

Q111. Sound Navigation and Ranging (SONAR) is used to detect underwater objects. For this, its transmitter produces

(a) microwaves

(b) visible light

(c) ultrasonic waves ✓

(d) infrared radiation

Answer: (c)

Explanation: SONAR relies on ultrasonic sound waves, which travel efficiently through water, unlike electromagnetic waves such as microwaves or light.

Q112. Which combination of three resistors R1, R2 and R3 has minimum total resistance? (R1=1Ω, R2=2Ω, R3=3Ω)

(a) When all are connected in parallel ✓

(b) When all are connected in series

(d) When R1 and R3 are in parallel and R2 in series with them

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Connecting all resistors in parallel always yields the lowest possible total resistance: 1/R = 1/1+1/2+1/3 = 11/6, so R = 6/11 Ω ≈ 0.545 Ω, lower than any series/mixed combination.

Q113. If the relative density of gold is 19.3 and the density of water is 10^6 g/m³, what will be the density of gold in SI units?

(a) 1930 kg/m³

(b) 19300 kg/m³ ✓

(d) 1.93×10^6 kg/m³

Answer: (b)

Explanation: 10^6 g/m³ = 1000 kg/m³ (standard water density). Gold density = 19.3 × 1000 kg/m³ = 19300 kg/m³.

Q114. Velocity-time graphs are plotted for cars A and B over 10 s, starting from rest, with lines making angles 30° and 60° with the time-axis respectively. The difference in final velocities VB and VA is

(a) 20/√3 m/s ✓

(b) 2/√3 m/s

(d) 1 m/s

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Slope of v-t graph = acceleration. aA = tan30° = 1/√3; aB = tan60° = √3. At t=10s: VA=10/√3, VB=10√3. VB−VA = 10√3 − 10/√3 = 20/√3 m/s.

Q115. A uniform current-carrying narrow solenoid produces

(a) uniform magnetic field inside the solenoid ✓

(b) uniform magnetic field outside the solenoid

(d) magnetic field with oscillating nature

Answer: (a)

Explanation: A long, narrow, uniformly-wound solenoid produces a nearly uniform magnetic field parallel to its axis inside, while the field outside is weak and non-uniform.

Q116. For a particle in uniform circular motion (radius R, angular velocity ω), the magnitude and direction of acceleration respectively are

(a) ωR, along the radius outward

(b) ωR, towards the centre of the circle

(c) ω²R, towards the centre of the circle ✓

(d) ω³R, along the linear velocity

Answer: (c)

Explanation: In uniform circular motion, the centripetal acceleration has magnitude ω²R (equivalently v²/R) and is always directed towards the centre of the circle.

Q117. Which one among the following statements is correct?

(a) The total mechanical energy of a system is conserved if the forces doing work on it are conservative. ✓

(b) The total mechanical energy of a system is conserved if the forces doing work on it are non-conservative.

(d) Every force encountered in mechanics does have an associated well-defined potential energy.

Answer: (a)

Explanation: The law of conservation of mechanical energy applies specifically when only conservative forces do work on the system; non-conservative forces (like friction) dissipate mechanical energy.

Q118. Which one of the following does not generally obey Hooke’s law?

(a) Glass

(b) Quartz

(c) Clay ✓

(d) Copper

Answer: (c)

Explanation: Clay is a plastic, non-elastic material that deforms permanently rather than proportionally and reversibly with applied stress, so it does not obey Hooke’s law like the more elastic materials listed.

Q119. Which of the following statements regarding the Carnot engine is/are correct? 1. It is an irreversible engine operating between two temperatures T1 (source) and T2 (sink). 2. Its efficiency is given by η = 1 − T2/T1.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only ✓

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation: The Carnot engine is by definition an IDEALLY REVERSIBLE engine (not irreversible), so statement 1 is wrong. Its efficiency formula η = 1 − T2/T1 (with T1 the source and T2 the sink temperature) is correctly stated in statement 2.

Q120. In the ideal gas equation PV = μRT, relating pressure P, volume V and absolute temperature T, the quantity μ is

(a) number of moles ✓

(b) number of molecules

(d) coefficient of friction

Answer: (a)

Explanation: In the standard ideal gas equation, μ (or n) represents the number of moles of gas.

Q121. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Assembler translates an assembly language program into a machine language program.

(b) Compiler is a program that translates high-level language into machine language.

(c) Assembly level program is a sequence of machine language instructions. ✓

(d) The term ‘firmware’ is used for the software stored in read-only storage devices.

Answer: (c)

Explanation: An assembly-level program is written using mnemonic assembly-language instructions, not machine-language instructions directly — the assembler is what converts it into machine code, making statement (c) incorrect.

Q122. Which one among the following transmission media is best suited for transmission of information over large distance?

(a) Twisted pair

(b) Optical fibre ✓

(d) Thin Ethernet

Answer: (b)

Explanation: Optical fibre offers the lowest signal attenuation and highest bandwidth over long distances compared to copper-based media like twisted pair or coaxial Ethernet cabling.

Q123. Which one among the following devices is used for converting digital signals into analog signals and vice versa?

(a) Router

(b) Switch

(d) Modem ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: A modem (modulator-demodulator) converts digital data into analog signals for transmission and back into digital form at the receiving end.

Q124. The binary multiplication of the numbers 12 and 10 will be

(a) 1111000 ✓

(b) 1110001

(d) 1111010

Answer: (a)

Explanation: 12 × 10 = 120 in decimal. Converting 120 to binary: 120 = 64+32+16+8 = 1111000₂.

Q125. How many text alignments are there in Microsoft Word?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 4 ✓

Answer: (d)

Explanation: MS Word offers four standard paragraph alignment options: Left, Centre, Right, and Justify.