MPPSC Answers With Explanations 2026 (26 April): Check Detailed Solution

The MPPSC Prelims Exam 2026, conducted on 26 April 2026 by the Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission, has generated strong interest among aspirants eager to evaluate their performance. With a paper that tests conceptual clarity and current affairs awareness, candidates are now looking for accurate solutions to cross-check their responses.

In this article, we provide a comprehensive set of MPPSC answers with detailed explanations, helping aspirants verify answers, estimate scores, and prepare effectively for the Mains stage.

Download: MPPSC Prelims Question Paper 2026

MPPSC GS Paper Answers With Explanations 2026 (26 April)

Q1. Which is the highest peak in the Kumaon Himalaya?

[A] Kamet

[B] Nanda Devi

[C] Trishul

[D] Badrinath

Answer: [B]

Explanation:

Nanda Devi is the highest peak in the Kumaon Himalayas, standing at an elevation of 7,816 metres (25,643 feet). It is also the highest mountain peak located entirely within India.

Q2. Which of the following rivers had the ancient name Askini?

[A] Beas

[B] Chenab

[C] Jhelum

[D] Ravi

Answer: [B]

Explanation:

In the Rigveda, the Chenab river was referred to as Askini, a name signifying its dark-colored waters.

Also Check Here: MPPSC Answer Key 2026 (Unofficial)

Q3. According to the India State of Forest Report 2023, which were the top three States in the country in terms of area under forests?

[A] Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh

[B] Madhya Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur

[C] Madhya Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim

[D] Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha

Answer: [C*]

Explanation:

According to the ISFR 2023, the top three states by forest cover area are:

First: Madhya Pradesh (77,073 sq km)

Second: Arunachal Pradesh (65,882 sq km)

Third: Chhattisgarh (55,812 sq km)

Q4. Based on the following statements, select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) Western disturbances are driven by westerly winds.

(b) Western disturbances bring moisture from the Mediterranean Sea.

Code:

[A] Only (c) is correct

[B] Only (a) and (c) are correct

[C] Only (b) and (c) are correct

[D] (a), (b) and (c) are correct

Answer: [D]

Explanation:

Western disturbances are driven by westerly winds: Western Disturbances are non-monsoonal precipitation patterns driven by the Subtropical Westerly Jet Stream. These high-altitude winds carry the disturbances from the west toward the east into India.

Western disturbances bring moisture from the Mediterranean Sea: These low-pressure systems originate over the Mediterranean region. As they travel across Iraq, Iran, Afghanistan, and Pakistan, they gather additional moisture from the Caspian Sea and the Persian Gulf before reaching India.

They cause rainfall in the northwestern parts of India during the winter season: They are the primary source of winter precipitation in North and Northwest India. This rainfall is crucial for Rabi crops, particularly wheat, and they also cause significant snowfall in the Himalayan region.

Q5. Which is the longest lake in India?

[A] Chilika

[B] Kolleru

[C] Vembanad

[D] Pookode

Answer: [C]

Explanation:

Vembanad Lake, located in the state of Kerala, is recognized as the longest lake in India, stretching approximately 96.5 kilometres (60 miles). It is a major part of the Kerala backwater system and is also the largest lake in the state

Q6. According to the Indian Minerals Yearbook 2022, which State was in second rank in the country in terms of Manganese production?

[A] Odisha

[B] Karnataka

[C] Maharashtra

[D] Madhya Pradesh

Answer: [C]

Explanation:

According to the Indian Minerals Yearbook (IMYB) 2022, which reports data for the financial year 2021-22, Maharashtra ranked second in the country for manganese ore production.

Manganese Production Rankings (IMYB 2022)

Rank 1: Madhya Pradesh – Remained the leading producer, contributing approximately 31.50% of the total national production.
Rank 2: Maharashtra – Held the second position with a share of approximately 27%.
Rank 3: Odisha – Ranked third with a contribution of 19.01%.
Rank 4: Karnataka – Accounted for approximately 14.10% of total production

Q7. In the year 2023-24, what was the correct ascending order of the top four States in the country based on rice production?

[A] Punjab, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal

[B] Punjab, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Telangana

[C] Odisha, Telangana, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh

[D] West Bengal, Telangana, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh

Answer: [B]

Explanation:

Based on 2023-24 production data, the correct ascending order of the top four rice-producing states—from lowest to highest production—is Punjab, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, and Telangana.

Q8. In October 2025, which severe cyclonic storm affected the eastern coastal parts of India?

[A] Fengal

[B] Shakti

[C] Montha

[D] Asna

Answer: [C]

Explanation:

Severe Cyclonic Storm Montha affected the eastern coastal parts of India in October 2025. It made landfall near Narsapur in Andhra Pradesh around midnight on 28-29 October

Q9. According to the 2011 Census, which State had the lowest density of population in the country?

[A] Meghalaya

[B] Mizoram

[C] Arunachal Pradesh

[D] Manipur

Answer: [C]

Explanation:

According to the 2011 Census, Arunachal Pradesh had the lowest population density in India, with only 17 persons per square kilometre.

Key Facts:

Highest Density State: Bihar (1,106 persons per sq km).
Highest Density UT: Delhi (11,320 persons per sq km).
India’s Average Density: 382 persons per sq km.

Q10. Which of the following was the correct ascending order of the States in the installed capacity of renewable energy up to December 2025?

[A] Gujarat, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra

[B] Karnataka, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Gujarat

[C] Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Gujarat

[D] Karnataka, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Rajasthan

Answer: [C]

Explanation:

As of December 2025, the data for total installed renewable energy capacity (including solar, wind, and bio-power) shows that Gujarat and Rajasthan have continued to lead the country, primarily due to massive solar and hybrid park expansion
Tamil Nadu (Lowest of the four)
Maharashtra
Rajasthan
Gujarat (Highest in India)

Q11. How were the members of the Indian Constituent Assembly elected?

[A] Directly by the people of India

[B] Indirectly by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies

[C] Nominated by the Governor-General

[D] Indirectly by the Provincial Committees of the Congress

Answer: [B]

Explanation:

The members of the Indian Constituent Assembly were chosen in 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan. The process was designed as a “partly elected and partly nominated” system

Q12. The service conditions of the judges of the Supreme Court are decided by which Article of the Constitution?

[A] 129(3)

[B] 127(4)

[C] 122(1)

[D] 124(2)

Answer: [D]

Explanation:

Article 124: Deals with the establishment, constitution, and appointment of the Supreme Court.
Article 125: Specifically states that Parliament determines the salaries, allowances, and rights in respect of leave and pension.
Financial Protection: Under Article 125(2), a judge’s privileges, allowances, and rights cannot be varied to their disadvantage after their appointment

Q13. In the execution of which of the following functions, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have equal powers?

[A] Passage of money bill

[B] Creation of new All India Service

[C] Passage of no-confidence motion against the Government

[D] Passage of a Constitution Amendment Bill

Answer: [D]

Explanation:

In the case of a Constitution Amendment Bill under Article 368, both Houses of Parliament have equal powers. Such a bill must be passed by each House separately by a special majority, and there is no provision for a joint sitting if there is a deadlock between the two Houses.

Q14. Which of the following is not an essential function of Gram Panchayat in Madhya Pradesh?

[A] To protect the assets of Gram Panchayat

[B] To promote cooperatives

[C] To catch unowned animals and mad dogs

[D] To operate police stations

Answer: [D]

Explanation:

Under the Madhya Pradesh Panchayat Raj Avam Gram Swaraj Adhiniyam, 1993, police administration is a function of the State Government, not the local Gram Panchayat.

Q15. Nagar Panchayat is constituted for which of the following areas in Madhya Pradesh?

[A] Transitional urban area

[B] Small-scale area

[C] Industrial area

[D] Large urban area

Answer: a

Explanation:

In Madhya Pradesh, a Nagar Panchayat (also known as a City Council) is constituted for a transitional area, which is an area in transition from a rural to an urban character.

Constitutional and Legal Basis:

Article 243Q: The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act mandates a three-tier structure for urban local bodies, where a Nagar Panchayat is specifically for transitional areas.

MP Municipalities Act, 1961: This state law governs the formation of Nagar Panchayats in Madhya Pradesh based on population, density, and revenue generated from non-agricultural activities.

Q16. Which of the following is not correct about the Governor of Madhya Pradesh?

[A] The Governor is appointed by the President.

[B] The Governor has the power to appoint the Judges of the High Court.

[C] The Governor is the head of the State Executive.

[D] During emergency, he acts as the representative of the President.

Answer: [B]

Explanation:

In India, including Madhya Pradesh, the power to appoint Judges of the High Court lies with the President of India, as mandated by Article 217 of the Constitution

Q17. In Part-IV, relating to Directive Principles of State Policy, which of the following Articles was not added by the Forty-second Constitution Amendment Act?

[A] Article 39A

[B] Article 43A

[C] Article 43B

[D] Article 48A

Answer: [C]

Explanation:

Article 43B, which relates to the promotion of co-operative societies, was added by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011, not the 42nd Amendment.

42nd Amendment (1976): Focused on socialist principles and environmental protection (39A, 43A, 48A).
97th Amendment (2011): Specifically introduced Article 43B to encourage the voluntary formation and democratic control of co-operatives.

Q18. The Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution received first challenge through which of the following cases?

[A] The Kesavananda Bharati Case

[B] The Golaknath Case

[C] The Champakam Dorairajan Case

[D] The Shankari Prasad Case

Answer: [D]

Explanation:

The Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India (1951) case was the first time the Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution (specifically the Fundamental Rights) was challenged in the Supreme Court.

Q19. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the sessions of Madhya Pradesh Legislative Assembly?

[A] There must be minimum two sittings of the Legislative Assembly in a calendar year.

[B] There must not be a gap of more than six months between two sittings.

[C] The Governor summons the sitting of the Legislative Assembly.

[D] The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly prorogues its sitting.

Answer: [D]

Explanation:

The Governor’s Role: Under Article 174 of the Constitution, the Governor has the power to summon (call to meet) and prorogue (terminate a session) the House. The Governor also has the power to dissolve the Legislative Assembly.

The Speaker’s Role: The Speaker has the power to adjourn a sitting (suspend work for a few hours or days) or adjourn the House sine die (terminate a sitting indefinitely). However, the formal ending of the entire session (prorogation) is always done by the Governor through an official notification.

Q20. Which of the following Commissions has been given the special responsibility of safeguarding the rights and interests of the Anglo-Indian Community?

[A] The National Commission for Scheduled Castes

[B] The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

[C] The National Backward Classes Commission

[D] The National Human Rights Commission

Answer: [A]

Explanation:

Under Article 338(10) of the Indian Constitution, the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) is specifically tasked with investigating and monitoring all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the Anglo-Indian community. It reports on the working of those safeguards to the President.

Q21. As per the sample registration system, what was the Under-5 mortality rate in 2020 in India?

[A] 26

[B] 32

[C] 41

[D] 54

Answer: [B] 32

Explanation: According to the Sample Registration System (SRS) Statistical Report, India’s Under-5 Mortality Rate (U5MR) showed a significant decline from 35 per 1,000 live births in 2019 to 32 in 2020. This progress is attributed to improved healthcare interventions and maternal nutrition programs.

Q22. How many targets have been set according to the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development?

[A] 116

[B] 132

[C] 154

[D] 169

Answer: [D] 169

Explanation: The UN 2030 Agenda consists of 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). To measure progress toward these broad goals, a specific set of 169 targets was established to be achieved by the year 2030.

Q23. If one parent has sickle cell disease and the other is a sickle cell disease carrier, what percentage of their children may be sickle cell disease carriers?

[A] 25%

[B] 50%

[C] 75%

[D] 100%

Answer: [B] 50%

Explanation: This is a classic Mendelian genetics problem involving an autosomal recessive trait.

Let S be the sickle cell allele and A be the normal hemoglobin allele.
The parent with the disease has the genotype SS.
The parent who is a carrier (sickle cell trait) has the genotype AS.
When you cross them (SS x AS), the possible outcomes for the children are:
1. AS (Carrier)
2. AS (Carrier)
3. SS (Disease)
4. SS (Disease)
Therefore, there is a 50% chance the child will be a carrier and a 50% chance they will have the disease.

Q24. When was the International Heat Wave Workshop 2026 held?

[A] 7-8 January, 2026

[B] 30-31 January, 2026

[C] 11-12 February, 2026

[D] 20-21 February, 2026

Answer: [C] 11-12 February, 2026

Explanation: The workshop was organized in early 2026 to address the increasing frequency and intensity of heatwaves globally. It focused on improving early warning systems and urban cooling strategies to mitigate health risks.

Q25. The CSIR-National Geophysical Research Institute (CSIR-NGRI) is located in which city?

[A] Hyderabad

[B] Bengaluru

[C] New Delhi

[D] Kolkata

Answer: [A] Hyderabad

Explanation: Established in 1961, the CSIR-NGRI is a premier research institute located in Hyderabad, Telangana. It conducts research in various multi-disciplinary areas of Earth Sciences, including seismology, groundwater monitoring, and mineral exploration.

Q26. Which branch of science deals with the observation, understanding and prediction of weather and atmospheric conditions?

[A] Climatology

[B] Oceanography

[C] Meteorology

[D] Seismology

Answer: [C] Meteorology

Explanation: Meteorology focuses on short-term atmospheric conditions and weather forecasting.

o Climatology (A) is the study of long-term climate patterns.

o Oceanography (B) is the study of the physical and biological aspects of the ocean.

o Seismology (D) is the study of earthquakes and planetary structures.

Q27. Which Indian Communication satellite, launched in the early 1980s, became the first fully operational satellite of the INSAT series and significantly strengthened India’s telecommunication and broadcasting services?

[A] INSAT-1A – 10th April, 1982

[B] INSAT-1B – 30th August, 1983

[C] IRS-1A – 17th March, 1988

[D] APPLE – 19th June, 1981

Answer: [B] INSAT-1B – 30th August, 1983

Explanation: While INSAT-1A (1982) was the first launched in the series, it encountered technical failures and was abandoned. INSAT-1B, launched via the Space Shuttle Challenger, became the first fully operational multipurpose satellite. It revolutionized India’s telecommunications, radio, and television broadcasting, and provided crucial weather data for the Indian Meteorological Department.

Q28. In June 2025, Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla created history by reaching a major milestone in India’s space journey. What was his historic achievement?

[A] He became the first Indian to lead a manned mission to moon.

[B] He successfully completed the first Indian space walk in open space.

[C] He became the first Indian ever to set foot on the International Space Station (ISS) and served as mission pilot.

[D] He became the first Indian to pilot a spacecraft to Mars.

Answer: [C] He became the first Indian ever to set foot on the International Space Station (ISS) and served as mission pilot.

Explanation: In mid-2025, Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla was selected for the Axiom-4 mission to the ISS. This mission was a collaboration between ISRO, NASA, and Axiom Space, making him the first Indian to fly to the International Space Station and serve in a pilot capacity.

Q29. From where was Chandrayaan-3 launched and what was unique about its landing site?

[A] Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SHAR), Sriharikota; Near the moon’s south polar region

[B] Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre, Thiruvananthapuram; Equatorial region of the moon

[C] Sriharikota; Near the moon’s north pole

[D] SDSC, Sriharikota; On the far side of the moon

Answer: [A] Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SHAR), Sriharikota; Near the moon’s south polar region

Explanation: Chandrayaan-3 was launched from the SDSC SHAR in Sriharikota. Its historic significance lies in its landing; India became the first country to soft-land a spacecraft near the Lunar South Pole, an area of interest due to potential water ice.

Q30. Which part of the human brain is responsible for thermoregulation?

[A] Medulla oblongata

[B] Cerebrum

[C] Hypothalamus

[D] Cerebellum

Answer: [C] Hypothalamus

Explanation: The Hypothalamus is often called the body’s thermostat. It monitors blood temperature and receives signals from the skin to regulate heat production and loss (via sweating or shivering).

Q31. In computer, EPROM stands for:

[A] Electrically Programmable Read-Only Memory

[B] Electronically Programmable Read-Only Memory

[C] Extended Programmable Read-Only Memory

[D] Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory

Answer: [D] Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory

Explanation: EPROM is a type of non-volatile memory chip that retains its data even when the power is turned off. It is unique because it can be erased by exposing the chip to strong ultraviolet (UV) light through a clear quartz window on top of the package. Once erased, it can be reprogrammed.

Q32. Which of the following is not an AI language?

[A] LISP

[B] OOP

[C] PROLOG

[D] VBI

Answer: [D] VBI

Explanation: This is the correct choice because VBI (Vertical Blanking Interval) is a term from television/display signaling, referring to the gap between video frames.

LISP and PROLOG are actual programming languages designed for AI.
OOP (Object-Oriented Programming) is the structural paradigm used to build modern AI software.
VBI is the only term completely unrelated to programming or software logic.

Q33. LED is a digital display used in calculators, watches etc. LED stands for:

[A] Light Emitting Display

[B] Liquid Electronic Display

[C] Light Emitting Diode

[D] Liquid Electronic Diode

Answer: [C] Light Emitting Diode

Explanation: An LED is a semiconductor device that glows when an electric current passes through it. It is the standard technology for digital displays in calculators and watches due to its low power consumption.

Q34. MARG is an e-Governance solution for:

[A] Maintenance of rural roads.

[B] Maintenance of State highways.

[C] Maintenance of national highways.

[D] None of the above

Answer: [A] Maintenance of rural roads.

Explanation: MARG (Managing Assets, Roadworks and Geoinformatics) is an IT solution specifically developed for the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY). It is used to track the maintenance, quality, and physical progress of rural road networks across India to ensure transparency and longevity of the infrastructure.

Q35. Web page of a website can be designed using HTML. HTML stands for:

[A] High Text Machine Language

[B] Hyper Text Machine Language

[C] High Text Markup Language

[D] Hyper Text Markup Language

Answer: [D] Hyper Text Markup Language

Explanation: HTML is the standard language used to create web pages. It uses tags to define elements like headings, paragraphs, and links. The “Hypertext” refers to the hyperlinks that connect web pages, and “Markup” refers to the way tags are used to layout the document.

Q36. In computer, BIOS stands for:

[A] Binary Input/Output System

[B] Basic Input/Output System

[C] Bit Input/Output System

[D] Byte Input/Output System

Answer: [B] Basic Input/Output System

Explanation: BIOS is firmware stored on a small memory chip on the motherboard. It is the first software that runs when you turn on your computer; its primary role is to perform a POST (Power-On Self-Test) and initialize the hardware so the operating system can load.

Q37. The terminology ‘Artificial Intelligence’ was first coined by:

[A] John Winston

[B] Richard Evans

[C] Henry Samuel

[D] John McCarthy

Answer: [D] John McCarthy

Explanation: The term “Artificial Intelligence” was first coined by the American computer scientist John McCarthy in 1955. He used the term in a proposal for the famous Dartmouth Conference (1956), which is widely considered the founding event of AI as a field of study. Because of his immense contributions, McCarthy is often referred to as one of the “Founding Fathers” of AI.

Q38. Optical fibre cables are used for high-speed and long-distance data transmission. Splicing of optical fibres means:

[A] Bending of optical fibres

[B] Drawing of optical fibres

[C] Joining of optical fibres

[D] Cutting of optical fibres

Answer: [C] Joining of optical fibres

Explanation: Splicing is the process used to permanently join two optical fiber cables together. Since fiber optics transmit data using light through glass cores, a simple physical tie won’t work.

There are two main types: Fusion Splicing (using an electric arc to melt/weld the glass together) and Mechanical Splicing (using an alignment device to hold fibers together).
It is essential for extending long-distance cables or repairing broken fiber lines.

Q39. e-ANUGYA is an e-Governance system to provide No Objection Certificate for:

[A] Crop movement outside Madhya Pradesh.

[B] Vehicle movement outside Madhya Pradesh.

[C] Mineral movement outside Madhya Pradesh.

[D] Liquor movement outside Madhya Pradesh.

Answer: [A] Crop movement outside Madhya Pradesh.

Explanation: e-ANUGYA is an e-governance initiative by the Madhya Pradesh State Agricultural Marketing Board (Mandi Board).

It is an online system designed to provide No Objection Certificates (NOCs) or transit permits for the inter-state movement of crops.
It helps farmers and traders bypass manual paperwork, ensuring transparency and ease of transport for agricultural produce leaving the state.

Q40. In web browsing, URL stands for:

[A] Uniform Resource Location

[B] Universal Resource Location

[C] Uniform Resource Locator

[D] Universal Resource Locator

Answer: [C] Uniform Resource Locator

Explanation: URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator. It serves as the unique global address used to locate resources on the World Wide Web.

A standard URL consists of several parts: the protocol (e.g., https), the domain name (e.g., www.google.com), and the path to a specific page or file.
It is essentially the “digital address” that tells your browser exactly where to find the data you requested.

Q41. The award given by Madhya Pradesh Government in Mallakhamb sports is:

[A] Prabhash Joshi Sports Award

[B] Ved Pratap Vaidik Sports Award

[C] Alok Mehta Sports Award

[D] Kailash Chandra Pant Sports Award

Answer: [A] Prabhash Joshi Sports Award

Explanation: Mallakhamb was declared the State Sport of Madhya Pradesh in 2013. The Prabhash Joshi Award was specifically instituted to honor excellence in this traditional discipline. It is named after the late Prabhash Joshi, a veteran journalist who was a passionate advocate for the sport.

Q42. On 14th January 2026, Sergio Gor assumed charge as the Ambassador of which country to India?

[A] Italy

[B] United States of America

[C] France

[D] Germany

Answer: [B] United States of America

Explanation: Sergio Gor officially took charge as the U.S. Ambassador to India in early 2026. This appointment is pivotal for overseeing the strategic partnership and diplomatic relations between the two nations during this period.

Q43. In which field was Mohan Nagar awarded the Padma Shri in 2026 for his outstanding contribution?

[A] Sports

[B] Politics

[C] Industry

[D] Environmental Conservation

Answer: [D] Environmental Conservation

Explanation: Mohan Nagar received the Padma Shri in 2026 for his dedicated work in the field of Environmental Conservation. He is recognized for leading massive community-driven initiatives in afforestation and the rejuvenation of local water bodies.

Q44. By which countries will the 2026 Women’s T20 World Cup be hosted?

[A] India and Sri Lanka

[B] Australia and South Africa

[C] England and Wales

[D] New Zealand and West Indies

Answer: [C] England and Wales

Explanation: The ICC designated England and Wales as the hosts for the 2026 edition of the Women’s T20 World Cup. This follows the tournament’s rotation cycle, aiming to build on the growing popularity of women’s cricket in the UK.

Q45. From where was the ‘Swasth Nari, Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan’ launched by the Prime Minister?

[A] Bhopal

[B] Indore

[C] Dhar

[D] Ujjain

Answer: [C] Dhar

Explanation: The Prime Minister launched the ‘Swasth Nari, Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan’ from Dhar, Madhya Pradesh. This campaign focuses on empowering families by prioritizing the health, nutrition, and well-being of women in rural and tribal regions.

Q46. Who was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2026 for contribution to the financial sector (industry and trade)?

[A] Ajay Piramal

[B] Uday Kotak

[C] Deepak Parekh

[D] Raghuram Rajan

Answer: [B] Uday Kotak

Explanation: Uday Kotak was honored with the Padma Bhushan in 2026 for his distinguished service to the Indian banking and financial sector. His leadership has been instrumental in the modernization and expansion of private-sector banking in India.

Q47. ‘Suman Sakhi Chatbot’ is an example of digital initiative in which sector?

[A] Education

[B] Health

[C] Transport

[D] Defence

Answer: [B] Health

Explanation: The Suman Sakhi Chatbot is a specialized digital assistant in the Health sector. It provides information and support related to the SUMAN (Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan) scheme, focusing on safe motherhood and infant healthcare.

Q48. What was the theme of the Sahityotsav 2026 organised by the Sahitya Akademi under the Department of Culture, Government of India, from March 30 to April 4, 2026?

[A] Festival of poetry

[B] Festival of letters

[C] Festival of story

[D] Festival of folklore

Answer: [B] Festival of letters

Explanation: Sahityotsav, also known as the Festival of Letters, is organized annually by the Sahitya Akademi. The 2026 theme continued this tradition, celebrating the literary heritage and linguistic diversity of India through seminars, readings, and cultural performances.

Q49. What is the new base year of the Consumer Price Index (CPI)?

[A] 2011

[B] 2012

[C] 2023

[D] 2024

Answer: [D] 2024

Explanation: As of early 2026, the Government of India has officially transitioned from the old base year of 2012 to the new base year of 2024. This change was made to reflect modern consumption patterns captured in the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) 2023–24. The new series (Base 2024=100) includes more diverse items like e-commerce prices and OTT subscriptions, providing a more accurate picture of current retail inflation.

Q50. The United Nations has declared the year 2025 as the international year of what?

[A] International Year of Forests

[B] International Year of Millets

[C] International Year of Sustainable Energy

[D] International Year of Cooperatives

Answer: [D] International Year of Cooperatives

Explanation: The United Nations General Assembly officially declared 2025 as the International Year of Cooperatives. This initiative recognizes the contribution of cooperatives to socio-economic development, particularly their impact on poverty reduction and social integration.

Q51. In the Vedic Literature, Sabha and Samiti are called two daughters of which deity?

[A] Agni

[B] Prajapati

[C] Varun

[D] Rudra

Answer: [B] Prajapati

Explanation: In the Atharvaveda, the Sabha (a selective body of elders/nobles) and the Samiti (a larger popular assembly) are described as the two daughters of Prajapati. This metaphor highlights the importance of these democratic institutions in Vedic governance.

Q52. When did the Tebhaga Movement begin in Bengal?

[A] September 1946

[B] August 1945

[C] January 1938

[D] March 1935

Answer: [A] September 1946

Explanation:

The Tebhaga Movement was a significant peasant agitation initiated in September 1946 by the Bengal Provincial Kisan Sabha. The sharecroppers (bargadars) demanded that they keep two-thirds (tebhaga) of the harvest for themselves, instead of giving half to the landlords.

Q53. In which text the four Ashramas have been mentioned for the first time?

[A] Rigveda

[B] Jabalopanisada

[C] Manusmriti

[D] Mahabharata

Answer: [B] Jabalopanisada

Explanation: The Jabala Upanishad is the first ancient text to explicitly mention all four stages of life, or Ashramas: Brahmacharya (student), Grihastha (householder), Vanaprastha (forest dweller/retired), and Sannyasa (renunciant).

Q54. Who also founded the United Provinces Kisan Sabha in 1918 A.D.?

[A] Mahamana Malviya

[B] Baba Ram Chandra

[C] Indra Narayan Dwivedi

[D] Jhinguri Singh

Answer: [C] Indra Narayan Dwivedi

Explanation: The United Provinces (UP) Kisan Sabha was set up in February 1918 by Indra Narayan Dwivedi, Gauri Shankar Misra, and Madan Mohan Malaviya. While Malaviya supported it, Dwivedi was a primary founder and organizer of this effort to mobilize peasants against landlord oppression.

Q55. The depiction of Krishna and Balarama is found on the coins of which Indo-Greek ruler?

[A] Menandar

[B] Demetrius

[C] Agathokleis

[D] Eucratides

Answer: [C] Agathokleis

Explanation: Coins issued by the Indo-Greek King Agathokleis (who ruled around 190–180 BCE) are famous for featuring the earliest known anthropomorphic depictions of Hindu deities, specifically Balarama (holding a plough) and Krishna (holding a chakra).

Q56. Who among the following was a female Alwar Saint?

[A] Madhura Kavi

[B] Perumal

[C] Tirupan

[D] Andal

Answer: [D] Andal

Explanation: Andal is the only female saint among the twelve Alwars, the South Indian poet-saints who were devoted to Lord Vishnu. She is celebrated for her works, particularly the Tiruppavai, and is often considered an incarnation of Lakshmi.

Q57. As per ancient Sanskrit literature, which of the following spices was called Yavanapriya?

[A] Ginger

[B] Nutmeg

[C] Black pepper

[D] Cardamom

Answer: [C] Black pepper

Explanation: In ancient Sanskrit, Black pepper was referred to as Yavanapriya (literally “dear to the Yavanas”). “Yavana” was the term used for Greeks and other foreigners who highly valued Indian black pepper, making it one of the most sought-after commodities in the ancient Indo-Roman trade.

Q58. In which inscription is the mention of Bharatvarsha found?

[A] Ayodhya Inscription of Dhandeva

[B] Iron Pillar Inscription of Mehrauli

[C] Garudadhwaja Inscription of Besnagar

[D] Hathigumpha Inscription of Kharavela

Answer: [D] Hathigumpha Inscription of Kharavela

Explanation: The first epigraphic evidence of the name Bharatvarsha is found in the Hathigumpha Inscription of King Kharavela of Kalinga (dated around the 1st or 2nd century BCE). The inscription is carved in Brahmi script in the Udayagiri hills near Bhubaneswar.

Q59. The draft The Philosophy of the Bomb was written by Bhagwati Charan Vohra at whose request and after a full discussion with him?

[A] Ram Prasad Bismil

[B] Sukhdev

[C] Rajguru

[D] Chandrashekhar Azad

Answer: [D] Chandrashekhar Azad

Explanation: Bhagwati Charan Vohra wrote The Philosophy of the Bomb at the request of Chandrashekhar Azad. It was a seminal revolutionary document written as a rebuttal to Mahatma Gandhi’s article “The Cult of the Bomb,” defending the use of revolutionary violence in the Indian independence movement.

Q60. Who was the author of The Secret Doctrine?

[A] Raja Ram Mohan Roy

[B] H. P. Blavatsky

[C] Keshab Chandra Sen

[D] D. K. Karve

Answer: [B] H. P. Blavatsky

Explanation: Helena Petrovna Blavatsky (H. P. Blavatsky), one of the founders of the Theosophical Society, authored The Secret Doctrine (published in 1888). The book is a foundational text of modern Theosophy, exploring the synthesis of science, religion, and philosophy.

Q61. What is the population of Kamar Tribe in Madhya Pradesh according to the 2011 Census?

[A] 266

[B] 466

[C] 666

[D] 866

Answer: [C] 666.

Explanation:According to the 2011 Census, the population of the Kamar Tribe in Madhya Pradesh was recorded as 666. According to the 2011 Census, the Kamar tribe is a very small community in Madhya Pradesh with a population of only 266. While they are more numerous in Chhattisgarh, in MP they are primarily concentrated in the Rewa and Satna districts.

Q62. According to the 2011 Census, how many tribes are there in Madhya Pradesh (except particularly vulnerable tribal groups)?

[A] 46

[B] 45

[C] 44

[D] 43

Answer: [D] 43

Explanation: Madhya Pradesh has 43 recognized Scheduled Tribes (excluding the 3 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups or PVTGs: Baiga, Bharia, and Sahariya). MP holds the distinction of having the largest tribal population in India by volume.

Q63. Indal puja is related to which tribe of Madhya Pradesh?

[A] Barela

[B] Gond

[C] Baiga

[D] Sahariya

Answer: [A] Barela

Explanation: Indal Puja is a significant religious festival celebrated by the Barela tribe (a sub-group of the Bhil tribe). It is primarily performed to seek the blessings of the rain god for a good harvest and the well-being of the family.

Q64. The traditional folk musical instrument ‘Gudum Baja’ of the tribals of Madhya Pradesh is related to which district from the following?

[A] Shahdol

[B] Chhindwara

[C] Mandla

[D] Jhabua

Answer: [C] Mandla

Explanation: The Gudum Baja is a traditional percussion instrument (a type of drum) deeply associated with the tribal culture of the Mandla district. It is famously used by the Dhulia and Gond communities during social and religious ceremonies.

Q65. What was the income limit set for Scheduled Tribe students to pursue education abroad, in the year 2024-25?

[A] ₹6 lakh

[B] 8 lakh

[C] ₹10 lakh

[D] 15 lakh

Answer: [A] ₹6 lakh

Explanation: For the academic year 2024-25, the annual family income limit for Scheduled Tribe students to qualify for state-sponsored scholarships for overseas studies remained at ₹6 lakh. This ensures that the financial aid is directed toward students from economically weaker backgrounds.

Q66. In which year was TRIFED established?

[A] 1986

[B] 1987

[C] 1988

[D] 1989

Answer: [B] 1987

Explanation: The Tribal Co-operative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED) was established in 1987. It functions under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs to ensure fair prices for Minor Forest Produce (MFP) and tribal handicrafts, protecting tribals from exploitation by middlemen.

Q67. According to the provisions of which Schedule of the Constitution, the Tribal Advisory Committee was constituted in the States?

[A] Third

[B] Fourth

[C] Fifth

[D] Sixth

Answer: [C] Fifth

Explanation: Under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, a Tribal Advisory Council (TAC) must be established in states having Scheduled Areas. Its role is to advise the Governor on matters pertaining to the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes in that state.

Q68. According to the Census of 2011, what percentage of the total Scheduled Tribe population of the country is in Madhya Pradesh?

[A] 31.84

[B] 29.25

[C] 28.16

[D] 14.69

Answer: [D] 14.69

Explanation: According to the 2011 Census, Madhya Pradesh accounts for 14.69% of the total Scheduled Tribe population of India. Roughly one out of every seven tribal individuals in India resides in Madhya Pradesh.

Q69. Among the Gond Tribe, the word ‘Baree’ is related to:

[A] Sports

[B] Agriculture

[C] Marriage

[D] Religious ritual

Answer: [B] Agriculture

Explanation: Among the Gond tribe, ‘Baree’ refers to a specific type of backyard cultivation or kitchen garden. It is a piece of land attached to the house where the family grows vegetables, maize, or tobacco for personal consumption.

Q70. The word ‘Netam’ is related to:

[A] Taboo

[B] Totem

[C] Marriage custom

[D] Tribe name

Answer: [B] Totem

Explanation: ‘Netam’ is a common Totem (Clan name) among the Gond and other central Indian tribes. In tribal sociology, a totem usually represents an animal, plant, or natural object that the clan believes has a mystical relationship with their ancestors.

Q71. Match List-I (Rivers) with List-II (Tributaries) and choose the correct answer with the help of code given below:

(a) Chambal -> (ii) Parvati

(b) Tons (Tamsa) -> (i) Belan

(d) Kshipra -> (iii) Gambhir

Code:

[A] (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)

[B] (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

[C] (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)

[D] (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

Answer: [D] (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

Matching:

Chambal: Its key tributary is the Parvati (originating in Sehore).
Tons (Tamsa): Its main tributary is the Belan, famous for prehistoric archaeological sites.
Kshipra: The Gambhir is a significant tributary that joins the Kshipra near Ujjain.
Narmada: The Tawa is the longest tributary of the Narmada, joining it in the Hoshangabad (Narmadapuram) district.

Q72. The reason for the high variability of rainfall in the northwestern part of Madhya Pradesh is:

[A] Low rainfall

[B] High rainfall

[C] High temperature

[D] Continuous rainfall

Answer: [A] Low rainfall

Explanation: The northwestern part of MP (districts like Bhind, Morena, and Gwalior) receives the lowest average rainfall in the state. In meteorology, regions with lower average rainfall typically exhibit higher coefficient of variation, meaning the rainfall is highly unpredictable and inconsistent from year to year.

Q73. Baihar plateau of Balaghat is known for which mineral deposits?

[A] Zinc

[B] Iron ore

[C] Dolomite

[D] Bauxite

Answer: [D] Bauxite

Explanation: The Baihar plateau in the Balaghat district is a major hub for Bauxite (the ore of Aluminum). While Balaghat is world-famous for Manganese (Bharveli mine) and Copper (Malanjkhand), the Baihar region specifically hosts significant bauxite deposits.

Q74. Match List-I (Irrigation Projects) with List-II (Rivers) and choose the correct answer with the help of the code given below:

(a) The Samrat Ashok Sagar Project -> (iv) Halali

(b) The Bansagar Project -> (i) Son

(d) The Omkareshwar Project -> (iii) Narmada

Code:

[A] (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)

[B] (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)

[C] (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

[D] (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

Answer: [C] (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

Correct Associations:

Samrat Ashok Sagar Project: Located on the Halali river (Vidisha).
Bansagar Project: A joint venture on the Son river (Shahdol).
Harsi Project: Constructed on the Parvati river (Gwalior).
Omkareshwar Project: A major gravity dam on the Narmada river (Khandwa).

Q75. Where was the first sugar factory established in Madhya Pradesh?

[A] Kailaras

[B] Sehore

[C] Dabra

[D] Jaora

Answer: [D] Jaora

Explanation: The first sugar mill in Madhya Pradesh was established in 1934 at Jaora in the Ratlam district.

Q76. Astronomers Indian are researching towards establishing a new mean time ‘Dongla Mean Time (DMT)’. Village Dongla is situated in which district of Madhya Pradesh?

[A] Dewas

[B] Ujjain

[C] Dhar

[D] Barwani

Answer: [B] Ujjain

Explanation: Village Dongla is located in the Ujjain district of Madhya Pradesh. It is gaining significant scientific and historical importance for the following reasons:

Geographical Significance: Dongla is situated exactly at the intersection of the Tropic of Cancer (23.5 degree N) and the Ancient Indian Prime Meridian (which historically passed through Ujjain).
Dongla Mean Time (DMT): Because of its unique position, astronomers and researchers are proposing “Dongla Mean Time” as a more scientifically accurate local mean time for India. Historically, Ujjain was considered the “Greenwich of India” by ancient Indian astronomers like Varahamihira and Brahmagupta.
Infrastructure: To support this research, the Varaahmihir Observatory has been established in Dongla. It features advanced astronomical equipment, including a high-tech telescope and a digital planetarium, making it a hub for Vedic and modern astronomical research.

Q77. What was the position of Madhya Pradesh in the production of pulses in the year 2021-22 in India?

[A] First

[B] Second

[C] Third

[D] Fourth

Answer: [A] First

Explanation: Madhya Pradesh consistently maintains the First position in the production of pulses in India. It contributes significantly to the national basket, especially in Gram (chickpeas) and Soyabean (though technically an oilseed, often grouped in agricultural discussions).

Q78. Which of the following soils is found in the Chambal basin?

[A] Red and yellow soil

[B] Laterite soil

[C] Alluvial soil

[D] Red loamy soil

Answer: [C] Alluvial soil

Explanation: The Chambal Basin (North MP) is characterized by Alluvial soil brought down by the river systems. However, this region is also infamous for Gully erosion, which has created the “Badlands” or Ravines of Bhind and Morena.

Q79. The Asirgarh hills are situated:

[A] In the western Satpura

[B] In the eastern Satpura

[C] In the Maikal range

[D] In the Baghelkhand plateau

Answer: [A] In the western Satpura

Explanation: The Asirgarh hills are part of the Satpura Range, specifically in the western section (Burhanpur Gap). The Asirgarh Fort located here was historically known as the “Babus-Saadat” or the “Gateway to South India.”

Q80. According to Census 2011, the correct descending order of districts in population growth during 2001-11 decade is:

[A] Bhopal, Jhabua, Indore

[B] Bhopal, Indore, Gwalior

[C] Indore, Bhopal, Gwalior

[D] Indore, Jhabua, Bhopal

Answer: [D] Indore, Jhabua, Bhopal

Explanation: According to the 2011 Census, the districts with the highest decadal growth rates were:

Indore: ~32.9%
Jhabua: ~30.7%
Bhopal: ~28.6% This order reflects the rapid urbanization of Indore and the high birth rates in tribal-dominated Jhabua.

Q81. Under the National Viral Hepatitis Control Programme, by which year the objective is to eliminate viral hepatitis-C?

[A] 2033

[B] 2032

[C] 2031

[D] 2030

Answer: [D] 2030

Explanation: The National Viral Hepatitis Control Programme (NVHCP) was launched with the goal of eliminating Hepatitis C by 2030. This target is in sync with the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which aim to end the epidemics of major communicable diseases globally by the end of the decade.

Q82. According to the Economic Survey 2024-25 of Madhya Pradesh, the solar energy capacity of Madhya Pradesh up to October, 2024 was:

[A] 60166 Megawatt

[B] 66610 Megawatt

[C] 66160 Megawatt

[D] 61660 Megawatt

Answer:[D] 61660 Megawatt.

Explanation:According to the Madhya Pradesh Economic Survey 2024-25, the solar energy potential of the state is estimated at 61,660 MW. This figure represents approximately 8.2% of India’s total solar energy potential.

Key Data:

While the potential is 61,660 MW, the actual installed capacity has seen rapid growth:

As of December 2024, the total installed solar capacity in the state was approximately 4,096.98 MW.
The state’s total renewable energy capacity reached 7,300 MW by December 2024, a 14-fold increase over the last decade.
Madhya Pradesh aims to source 50% of its total power consumption from renewable energy by 2030.

Q83. According to the Economic Survey of Madhya Pradesh 2024-25, under ‘One District One Product (ODOP)’, which district is not included in case of six major agricultural produces?

[A] Anuppur

[B] Narsinghpur

[C] Balaghat

[D] Gwalior

Answer: [D] Gwalior

Explanation: Under the ‘One District One Product’ (ODOP) scheme, specific districts are mapped to key agricultural products:

Anuppur: Kodo-Kutki (millets).
Narsinghpur: Tur Dal.
Balaghat: Chinnor Rice. Gwalior is primarily recognized for Sandstone and decorative tiles under the ODOP initiative, not as a primary district for the six major agricultural clusters.

Q84. The Financial Inclusion Index of Reserve Bank of India in March, 2024 was:

[A] 64.2

[B] 62.4

[C] 53.9

[D] 59.3

Answer: [A] 64.2

Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India’s FI-Index (Financial Inclusion Index) stood at 64.2 in March 2024. The index measures the extent of financial inclusion across three broad parameters—Access (35%), Usage (45%), and Quality (20%)—showing a consistent upward trend in banking and digital financial services.

Q85. India’s foreign exchange reserve at the end of December, 2024 was:

[A] USD 604.3 billion

[B] USD 640.3 billion

[C] USD 603.4 billion

[D] USD 630.4 billion

Answer: [B] USD 640.3 billion

Explanation: By the end of December 2024, India’s forex reserves reached approximately USD 640.3 billion. These reserves are essential for maintaining the stability of the Indian Rupee and providing an adequate buffer against external global economic shocks.

Q86. Madhya Pradesh Industrial Promotion Policy 2025, launched in February 2025 includes how many sector specific strategies?

[A] 9

[B] 10

[C] 11

[D] 12

Answer: [B] 10

The Madhya Pradesh Industrial Promotion Policy 2025, approved by the state cabinet in February 2025, includes 10 sector-specific policies (strategies) aimed at boosting industrial growth and investment.

The 10 sector-specific policies/strategies approved are:

Agriculture, Dairy and Food Processing Policy
Textile Policy
Apparel, Footwear, Toys, and Accessories Policy
Aerospace and Defence Production Promotion Policy
Pharmaceuticals Policy
Biotechnology Policy
Medical Device Policy
EV Manufacturing Policy
Renewable Energy Equipment Manufacturing Policy
High Value-Add Manufacturer Policy

Q87. According to Economic Survey 2024-25, the score of Sustainable Development Goal 9 of Madhya Pradesh in the year 2023-24 was:

[A] 43

[B] 37

[C] 39

[D] 90

Answer: [C] 39

Explanation: According to the Madhya Pradesh Economic Survey (and related NITI Aayog SDG Index 2023-24 data) for the year 2023-24, the score of Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 9 (Industry, Innovation, and Infrastructure) for Madhya Pradesh was 39

Q88. According to the report published by the Confederation of Indian Industry in February 2025, the share of pharmaceutical sector of Madhya Pradesh in terms of gross fixed capital formation in India is:

[A] 2.9%

[B] 1.0%

[C] 1.9%

[D] 2.2%

Answer: [C] 1.9%

Explanation: Per the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) report (Feb 2025), Madhya Pradesh contributes 1.9% to India’s total Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) in the pharmaceutical sector. This underlines the state’s growing role as a manufacturing hub, particularly in the Indore-Pithampur industrial belt.

Q89. In recent years, the agriculture sector in India has shown growth annually from Financial Year 2017 to Financial Year 2023, demonstrating resilience despite challenges, which was approximately:

[A] 4.2 percent

[B] 4.8 percent

[C] 5.0 percent

[D] 5.2 percent

Answer: [A] 4.2 percent

Explanation: India’s agriculture and allied sectors have demonstrated remarkable resilience, recording an average annual growth rate of 4.2% from Financial Year 2017 to 2023. This stability has been crucial for national food security and supporting the rural economy during the pandemic years.

Q90. How much growth was recorded in patent filing in Madhya Pradesh during the period from 2018-19 to 2022-23?

[A] 230%

[B] 320%

[C] 180%

[D] 280%

Answer: [D] 280%

Explanation: Between 2018-19 and 2022-23, Madhya Pradesh recorded an impressive 280% growth in patent filings. This surge indicates a strengthening innovation ecosystem, bolstered by technical education reforms and the state’s support for R&D and startups.

Q91. In which of the minor rock edicts of Emperor Ashoka, found in Madhya Pradesh, is his personal name mentioned?

[A] Rupnath

[B] Gurjara

[C] Saro-Maro

[D] Panguraria

Answer: [B] Gurjara

Explanation: While Ashoka usually referred to himself as Devanampiya Piyadasi (Beloved of the Gods), his personal name “Ashoka” is explicitly mentioned in the Gurjara minor rock edict (located in the Datia district of MP). Other famous edicts mentioning his name include Maski (Karnataka), Nittur, and Udegolam.

Q92. Match the following dialects with their corresponding tribal regions (District):

(a) Nimadi -> (iii) Barwani, Khandwa

(b) Korku -> (iv) Betul, Narmadapuram

(d) Gondi -> (i) Mandla, Dindori

Select the correct answer:

[A] (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

[B] (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

[C] (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

[D] (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

Answer: [A] (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

Explanation:

Nimadi: Spoken primarily in the Nimar region (Barwani, Khandwa).
Korku: Spoken by the Korku tribe in the Satpura region (Betul, Narmadapuram).
Bhili: The language of the Bhil tribe, predominant in Ratlam and Alirajpur.
Gondi: Spoken by the Gond people in the eastern tribal belt (Mandla, Dindori).

Q93. Which of the following sites in Madhya Pradesh is recognized as a ‘World Heritage Site’?

[A] The historical group of Orchha

[B] The Sanchi Stupa

[C] The Satpura Tiger Reserve

[D] The Bhojeshwar Temple Complex

Answer: [B] The Sanchi Stupa

Explanation: Madhya Pradesh currently has three UNESCO World Heritage Sites:

Khajuraho Group of Monuments (1986)
Buddhist Monuments at Sanchi (1989)
Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka (2003) While Orchha and Satpura Tiger Reserve are on the tentative list, Sanchi is a fully recognized site.

Q94. Which of the following statements about the main features of the ‘Jagadambi Temple’ in Khajuraho is false?

[A] This temple has both a half-mandapa and a verandah arranged within a single chamber.

[B] This temple lacks a circumambulation path.

[C] There is a colossal statue of Laxmi in the sanctorum.

[D] A statue of Vishnu is installed at the main entrance of the sanctorum.

Answer: [C] There is a colossal statue of Laxmi in the sanctorum.

Explanation: This statement is false. The Jagadambi Temple originally was dedicated to Vishnu (evidenced by his image over the entrance), but it currently houses a large image of the Goddess Parvati (Jagadamba), which is painted black. It is not a statue of Lakshmi.

Q95. Match the following tribes of Madhya Pradesh with their respective sub-tribes:

(a) Baiga -> (ii) Narotia

(b) Bharia -> (iv) Bhumiya (Bhumika)

(d) Sahariya -> (iii) Dandami

Select the correct answer:

[A] (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

[B] (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)

[C] (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)

[D] (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

Answer: [B] (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)

Correct Match:

Baiga: Sub-tribe includes Narotia (and others like Bharotia, Binjhwar).
Bharia: Sub-tribe includes Bhumiya (Bhumika).
Kol: Sub-tribe includes Rohia (and Rautia).
Sahariya: Often associated with the Dandami (though primarily a Gond sub-division, in some classification contexts it is used differently).

Q96. Which of the following facts about the Adamgarh archaeological site in Narmadapuram district of Madhya Pradesh is false?

[A] This archaeological site is located on the bank of the Narmada River.

[B] The oldest evidences of animal husbandry have been found here.

[C] Archaeological excavations were carried out at this site by V. S. Wakankar.

[D] A large number of palaeolithic tools and bone remains have been found here.

Answer: [C] Archaeological excavations were carried out at this site by V. S. Wakankar. Explanation: This is false. While V.S. Wakankar discovered Bhimbetka, the Adamgarh excavations were primarily led by R.V. Joshi and M.D. Khare in the 1960s. The site is indeed on the banks of the Narmada and is famous for the earliest evidence of animal domestication in India.

Q97. Match the following writers from Madhya Pradesh with their respective works:

(a) Keshav Das -> (iv) Kavipriya

(b) Bhawani Prasad Mishra -> (iii) Gandhi Panchsati

(d) Mulla Ramuji -> (ii) Gulabi Urdu

Select the correct answer:

[A] (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

[B] (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)

[C] (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

[D] (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)

Answer: [A] (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

Explanation:

Keshav Das: Author of the classic Kavipriya.
Bhawani Prasad Mishra: Wrote Gandhi Panchsati.
Padmakar: A famous Reeti-kal poet who wrote Gangalahari.
Mulla Ramuji: Known for his unique style of Gulabi Urdu.

Q98. Match the following folk songs with their characteristics:

(a) Railo Geet -> (iii) Songs for young men and women

(b) Singaji and Daluji -> (i) Nirguni philosophical song

(d) Alha-Udal -> (ii) Heroic song

Select the correct answer:

[A] (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

[B] (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

[C] (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)

[D] (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)

Answer: [C] (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)

Explanation:

Railo Geet: Traditional songs of the Bhil and Gond tribes for young men and women.
Singaji and Daluji: Famous for Nirguni philosophical bhajan style.
Bambuliya: Devotional/Religious songs sung in the Bundelkhand region during Shivratri/Basant Panchami.
Alha-Udal: Famous Heroic ballads detailing the 52 battles of the warrior brothers.

Q99. According to the novel Anandamath by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee, song Vande Mataram was sung by which character?

[A] Mahendra Singh

[B] Kalyani

[C] Sipahi Bhavananda

[D] Shanti

Answer: [C] Sipahi Bhavananda

Explanation: In Bankim Chandra Chatterjee’s novel Anandamath, the protagonist Mahendra is walking through the forest when he encounters Bhavananda, one of the “Santans” (monk-soldiers), who begins singing Vande Mataram to introduce Mahendra to their patriotic mission.

Q100. Who is credited with transforming the Maach folk theatre style of Malwa into the present day performing art?

[A] Siddheshwar Sen

[B] Kaushal Singh

[C] Kesari Singh

[D] Rewaram Kuliwala

Answer: [A] Siddheshwar Sen

Explanation: Siddheshwar Sen is widely credited with bringing the Maach (folk theatre of Malwa) into its modern, sophisticated performing art form. He is often called the “Father of modern Maach.”