UPPCS RO/ARO Prelims 2026 Solved Paper with Explanations

The Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission (UPPSC) RO/ARO Prelims 2026 solved paper with explanations is an essential resource for aspirants preparing for upcoming recruitment exams. It helps candidates understand the latest exam pattern, question difficulty level, and important topics asked in the examination. Detailed solutions allow aspirants to learn the correct approach to solving questions and improve accuracy. Practising solved papers also helps in time management and self-assessment. Candidates preparing for the next UPPSC RO/ARO exam can use this solved paper to identify strong and weak areas and enhance their overall preparation strategy for better performance in the examination.

Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to Balban’s period:

The separate department of Diwan-i-Arz was established during his reign.
II. He introduced military reforms by paying soldiers their full salaries in cash.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Neither I nor II
(b) Only I
(c) Both I and II
(d) Only II

Answer:- (b)

Explanation

The separate department of Diwan-i-Arz (Military Department) was established during the reign of Ghiyas ud-din Balban. Ruling from 1266 to 1287, Balban created this specialized department to strengthen the army, secure the sultanate against Mongol threats, and suppress internal rebellions. It was managed by Ariz-i-Mamalik.
Alauddin Khalji, the Sultan of Delhi from 1296–1316, was the first ruler to introduce these specific military reforms. He established a permanent standing army, paying soldiers directly in cash from the royal treasury instead of through iqta (land grants). He also initiated the dagh (branding of horses) and huliya (descriptive rolls of soldiers) systems to prevent corruption.

Q2. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I List II
A. Anthology i. Study of soil
B. Pedology ii. Study of flowers
C. Oncology iii. Study of pollen grains
D. Palynology iv. Study of diagnosis and treatment of tumour/cancer

Code:

(a) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii

(b) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

(d) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

Answer:- (b)

Explanation

To match the fields of study correctly, we look at the Greek roots and scientific definitions of each term. Here is the breakdown:

Matching Analysis

A. Anthology: Derived from the Greek anthos (flower). While it often refers to a collection of literary works, in a botanical context, it refers to the study of flowers.
B. Pedology: Derived from the Greek pedon (soil/ground). It is the branch of soil science that focuses on the formation, morphology, and classification of soils.
C. Oncology: Derived from the Greek onkos (bulk/mass/tumor). This is the medical branch dedicated to the diagnosis and treatment of tumors and cancer.
D. Palynology: The scientific study of pollen grains, spores, and certain microscopic planktonic organisms, both in living and fossil form.

Q3. Which one of the following is the westernmost hill range of India?

(a) Garhjat Hills
(b) Ramgarh Hills
(c) Satmala Hills
(d) Mahadev Hills

Answer:- (c)

Explanation

The Satmala Hills are located in the Nashik district of Maharashtra. Positioned in the northern part of the Western Ghats (Sahyadris), they sit further west than the other listed ranges which are located in Central and Eastern India.

The geographical distribution of these hills from West to East is as follows:

Satmala Hills: Western India (Maharashtra).
Mahadev Hills: Central India (Madhya Pradesh), forming the central-western part of the Satpura Range.
Ramgarh Hills: East-Central India (Chhattisgarh).
Garhjat Hills: Eastern India (Odisha), part of the Odisha Highlands.

Q4. Which of the following was the first newspaper published from Mumbai during the Colonial period?

(a) Mumbai Mirror
(b) Bombay Courier
(c) Bombay Times
(d) Bombay Herald

Answer:- (d)

Explanation

The Bombay Herald, established in 1789, is recognized as the first newspaper published from Bombay (now Mumbai) during the colonial period. It was followed by the Bombay Courier (1790) and the Bombay Gazette (1791), with the latter being formed by a merger involving the Bombay Herald.

Q5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I List II
A. Dynamo i. Measures the salinity of water
B. Salinometer ii. Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
C. Manometer iii. Measures the intensity of light
D. Photometer iv. Measures the pressure of liquids or gases

Codes:
(a) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(b) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
(c) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(d) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

Dynamo (A – ii): A device that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy through the process of electromagnetic induction.
Salinometer (B – i): An instrument designed specifically to measure the salinity or dissolved salt content of a solution.
Manometer (C – iv): A scientific instrument used to measure the pressure of liquids or gases, often by balancing the weight of a liquid column.
Photometer (D – iii): An instrument used to measure the intensity of light or the optical properties of surfaces.

Q6. The amount of oxygen required for the biochemical decomposition process is called:

(a) Chemical Oxygen Demand
(b) Dissolved Oxygen
(c) Biochemical Oxygen Demand
(d) None of the above

Answer:- (c)

Explanation

The amount of oxygen required by aerobic microorganisms to decompose organic matter in a water sample over a specific period and temperature is called Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD). It serves as a key indicator of biodegradable pollution in water, with higher BOD values reflecting lower water quality.

Q7. Zuari Estuary is associated with:

(a) Deendayal Port
(b) Mormugao Port
(c) Tuticorin Port
(d) New Mangalore Port

Answer:- (b)

Explanation

The Zuari Estuary is associated with the Mormugao Port. Located in Goa on the west coast of India, the Mormugao Port is situated at the entrance of the Zuari estuary and acts as a premier natural harbor for iron ore exports.

Q8. Which one of the following are commonly known as “Biological Supermarkets”?

(a) Mountains
(b) Mangroves
(c) Wetlands
(d) Cold deserts

Answer:- (c)

Explanation

Wetlands are commonly referred to as “biological supermarkets” because they support incredibly extensive food webs and a rich biodiversity.

They earn this nickname through several key ecological roles:

Food Production: They produce massive volumes of food, such as detritus (decaying organic matter), which feeds aquatic insects, shellfish, and small fish, ultimately supporting larger predators like birds, reptiles, and mammals.
High Productivity: They are among the most productive ecosystems on Earth, comparable to tropical rainforests and coral reefs in their ability to generate organic matter.
Critical Habitats: Wetlands serve as essential breeding and nursery grounds for numerous species, including roughly one-third of all threatened and endangered species.
Resource Diversity: Much like a supermarket offers a wide variety of items, wetlands provide a diverse range of ecosystem services and resources, including water purification, flood control, and carbon sequestration.

Q9. Consider the following constructions and arrange them in correct chronological order from the oldest to the newest:

Alai Darwaja
II. Adhai Din Ka Jhonpra
III. Atala Masjid
IV. Kali Masjid

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) II, I, IV, III
(b) III, I, IV, II
(c) I, III, II, IV
(d) IV, III, II, I

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

II. Adhai Din Ka Jhonpra: It was built by Qutub-ud-din Aibak in Ajmer during 1192-1199 AD .
I. Alai Darwaja: It is located in the Qutub Minar complex in Delhi and was built by Alauddin Khilji in1311 AD .
IV. Kali Masjid: Located in Delhi, this mosque was built by Khan-i-Jahan Junan Shah, the Prime Minister of Firoz Shah Tughlaq, around 1370-1387 AD .
III. Atala Masjid: This mosque in Jaunpur was completed in1408 AD by the Sharqi ruler Ibrahim Shah Sharqi.

Q10. Under which programme has Tripura been declared a fully literate state in June 2025?

(a) ULLAS – New India Literacy Programme
(b) Adult Education Programme
(c) National Literacy Mission
(d) National Education Policy 2020

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

Tripura was declared a fully literate state in June 2025 under the ULLAS – Nav Bharat Saaksharta Karyakram (New India Literacy Programme). The state achieved this milestone, reaching a 95.6% literacy rate among individuals aged 15 and above, becoming the third state in India to do so after Mizoram and Goa.

Q11. The distance of a chord of length 8 cm from the centre of a circle of radius 5 cm is:

(a) 6 cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 3 cm
(d) 2 cm

Answer:- (c)

Explanation

A perpendicular line drawn from the centre of a circle to a chord always bisects that chord. Given a chord length of 8 cm, the distance from the midpoint of the chord to one of its endpoints is: Half-chord length = 8/2 =4 cm.
Consider a right-angled triangle formed by the radius (\(r\)), the distance from the centre (\(d\)), and the half-chord length. In this triangle: The hypotenuse is the radius: \(r=5\text{\ cm}\)The base is the half-chord: \(4\text{\ cm}\)The height is the distance from the centre: \(d\) According to the Pythagorean theorem:\(r^{2}=d^{2}+(\text{half-chord})^{2}\)\(5^{2}=d^{2}+4^{2}\)\(25=d^{2}+16\)
Step 3: Solve for the Distance Subtract \(16\) from both sides to isolate \(d^{2}\):\(d^{2}=25-16\)\(d^{2}=9\)\(d=\sqrt{9}=3 cm

12. Consider the following states:

Tamil Nadu
II. Maharashtra
III. Andhra Pradesh
IV. Uttar Pradesh

Arrange the states in ascending order of their percentage of population as per Census 2011.
(a) III, I, II, IV
(b) IV, III, II, I
(c) II, IV, I, III
(d) II, IV, III, I

Answer:- (a)* (Wrong option)

Explanation

The ascending order of the states by their percentage of India’s total population according to the 2011 Census is i. Tamil Nadu, iii. Andhra Pradesh, ii. Maharashtra, and iv. Uttar Pradesh.
According to the 2011 Census of India, the total population was approximately 1.21 billion. The distribution among the specified states is as follows:
- Tamil Nadu (i): Approximately 5.96% (72.1 million people).
- Andhra Pradesh (iii): Approximately 6.99% (84.6 million people). Note: This figure represents the undivided state as per the 2011 data.
- Maharashtra (ii): Approximately 9.28% (112.4 million people).
- Uttar Pradesh (iv): Approximately 16.51% (199.8 million people).
None of the provided options match the exact ascending order sequence of I, III, II, IV.
However, if the question meant Andhra Pradesh after bifurcation (which is roughly 4.1%), the order would change. But for standard competitive exams based on the 2011 Census (Undivided), the data clearly puts Tamil Nadu as the smallest of the four. There may be a typo in the question’s provided options or the specific dataset intended.

13. Which one of the following states is the most urbanised state as per Census 2011?

(a) Maharashtra
(b) Goa
(c) Mizoram
(d) Kerala

Answer:- (b)

Explanation

According to the official data, 62.17% of Goa’s population resides in urban areas.

Goa: With 62.17% urbanization, it leads all Indian states. Its high ranking is attributed to its small geographical size, thriving tourism economy, and well-developed service sector.
Mizoram: Often ranks second among states, with an urban population of approximately 51.5% to 52.1%.
Tamil Nadu: Among the “major” (large) states, Tamil Nadu is the most urbanised, with 48.45% of its population in urban areas.
Kerala: Following closely behind Tamil Nadu, Kerala recorded an urbanization level of 47.72% in 2011.
Maharashtra: Although it has the highest absolute number of people living in urban areas (over 50 million), its urbanization percentage is 45.23%, placing it behind the aforementioned states.

14. Which organisation operates the Tanda Thermal Power Station in Uttar Pradesh?

(a) NTPC
(b) NHPC
(c) BHEL
(d) UPRVUNL

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

The Tanda Thermal Power Station in Uttar Pradesh is operated by NTPC Limited (formerly National Thermal Power Corporation).

15. Which of the following statements regarding Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India are correct?

Fundamental Rights are justiciable and enforceable by the courts.
II. They can be suspended during a national emergency, except Articles 20 and 21.
III. They are absolute and cannot be restricted under any circumstances.
IV. They cannot be amended.

Select the correct answer using the code

given below:
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I, II and IV
(d) Only I and II

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

The correct statements regarding Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India are I and II.

I. Fundamental Rights are justiciable and enforceable by the courts.
II. They can be suspended during a national emergency, except Articles 20 and 21.
III. They are absolute and cannot be restricted under any circumstances.
- Fundamental Rights are not absolute but qualified. The State can impose reasonable restrictions on them based on grounds like national security, public order, morality, and sovereignty.
IV. They cannot be amended.
- Fundamental Rights can be amended by Parliament under Article 368. However, such amendments must not violate the “basic structure” of the Constitution, as established by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).

16. Which district of Uttar Pradesh has the highest population density as per Census 2011?

(a) Lucknow
(b) Kanpur Nagar
(c) Varanasi
(d) Ghaziabad

Answer:- (d)

Explanation

As per the 2011 Census, Ghaziabad is the district with the highest population density in Uttar Pradesh. It recorded a density of approximately 3,971 persons per square kilometer (or 3,967/km² in some reports), driven by its rapid urbanization and inclusion in the National Capital Region.

17. Article 243D of the Indian Constitution includes provisions related to:

(a) District Courts
(b) Reservation in State Universities
(c) High Courts
(d) Reservation in Panchayats

Answer:- (d)

Explanation

Article 243D of the Indian Constitution mandates the reservation of seats in Panchayati Raj institutions (at village, intermediate, and district levels) for Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and women.
It requires that SC/ST seats be proportional to their population, while ensuring at least one-third (1/3rd) of total seats and chairperson positions are reserved for women.

18. Who among the following has been posthumously honoured with the Padma Bhushan Award 2025 for Public Affairs?

(a) Shri Sushil Kumar Modi
(b) Shri S. Ajith Kumar
(c) Shri Vinod Kumar Dham
(d) Shri Ravichandran Ashwin

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

Shri Sushil Kumar Modi has been posthumously honoured with the Padma Bhushan Award 2025 for Public Affairs.
As a senior BJP leader and former Deputy Chief Minister of Bihar, he was recognized for his significant contributions to public life, with the award presented to his wife by President Droupadi Murmu.

19. In Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan 2025, which city secured the top position in the population category below 3 lakh?

(a) Dewas
(b) Alwar
(c) Jabalpur
(d) Amravati

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

In the Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan 2025 (SVS), Dewas in Madhya Pradesh secured the top position (first rank) in the category for cities with a population under 3 lakh.
It achieved a score of 193 out of 200, followed by Parwanoo in second and Angul in third place.

20. Which is the largest Scheduled Tribe in Uttar Pradesh?

(a) Tharu
(b) Chero
(c) Buksa
(d) Baiga

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

The largest Scheduled Tribe in Uttar Pradesh is the Tharu tribe, comprising approximately 77.4% of the state’s total Scheduled Tribe population as per the 2011 Census.
Predominantly inhabiting the Terai region in districts like Lakhimpur Kheri, Bahraich, and Pilibhit, they are recognized for their agricultural livelihood and specific cultural traditions.

21. Which of the following programmes are encompassed under the Namami Gange Programme?

Ganga Gram Programme
II. Industrial Effluent Monitoring Programme
III. Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure Programme
IV. River Surface Cleaning Programme

Options:
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I and IV
(d) I, II and III

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

The Namami Gange Programme is an Integrated Conservation Mission launched in 2014 by the Government of India. It is built upon eight key pillars that cover various aspects of river rejuvenation and pollution abatement:

I. Ganga Gram Programme: Focuses on the sustainable development of villages situated on the banks of the River Ganga, including the construction of toilets and liquid waste management.
II. Industrial Effluent Monitoring: Involves the regulation and real-time monitoring of discharge from Grossly Polluting Industries (GPIs) to ensure compliance with environmental norms.
III. Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure: A major pillar aimed at creating and rehabilitating sewage treatment capacity to prevent untreated domestic wastewater from entering the river.
IV. River Surface Cleaning: Includes entry-level activities such as the collection and disposal of floating solid waste from the river surface and ghat

22. The ODOP Scheme of Uttar Pradesh was launched in which year?

(a) 2019
(b) 2015
(c) 2017
(d) 2018

Answer:- (d)

Explanation

The One District One Product (ODOP) Scheme of Uttar Pradesh was officially launched on January 24, 2018, by the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh, Shri Yogi Adityanath, on the occasion of Uttar Pradesh Day. It aims to promote traditional industries and indigenous products across all 75 districts of the state to boost local employment and economic growth.

23. Royal Jelly is milky or light pale in colour. It is composed of an approximate protein content of:

(a) 10–12%
(b) 8–9%
(c) 15–18%
(d) 2–5%

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

Royal Jelly is composed of an approximate protein content of 10–12%.
Royal jelly is a milky secretion produced by worker honeybees to nurture queen bees. Its overall chemical composition typically includes:
- Water: 60-70%
- Proteins: 10-15% (often cited specifically around 12% or 12.5% in standard biological texts)
- Sugars/Carbohydrates: 10-16%
- Lipids: 3-6%

24. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana was launched on:

(a) 24 February 2019
(b) 24 July 2019
(c) 24 December 2019
(d) 24 March 2019

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) Yojana was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 24 February 2019 in Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh.

25. How much money was allocated for education in the Charter Act of 1813?

(a) Five lakh rupees annually
(b) Ten lakh rupees annually
(c) One lakh rupees annually
(d) None of the above

Answer:- (c)

Explanation

The Charter Act of 1813 (also known as the East India Company Act 1813) was a landmark in the history of Indian education as it was the first time the British government officially accepted responsibility for the education of the Indian people.

Mandatory Allocation: Clause 43 of the Act directed the East India Company to set apart a sum of not less than one lakh rupees (INR 100,000) each year.
Purpose: This fund was designated for the revival and improvement of literature, the encouragement of learned natives of India, and the introduction and promotion of scientific knowledge among the inhabitants of British territories.

26. Consider the following statements with reference to Lakhpati Didis:

The Government has targeted the creation of 3 crore Lakhpati Didis.
II. Lakhpati Didis are women with annual earnings of ₹1 lakh or more.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Both I and II
(c) Only II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer:- (b)

Explanation

Target Expansion: In the Interim Budget 2024, the Government of India increased the target for creating Lakhpati Didis from an initial 2 crore to 3 crore women. This expansion reflects the success of the initiative, which has already enabled over 1 crore women to achieve this status as of early 2024, with figures continuing to rise.
Definition and Income: A Lakhpati Didi is defined as a woman member of a Self-Help Group (SHG) who earns a sustainable annual household income of ₹1 lakh or more. The program focuses on empowering rural women through skill development (such as LED bulb making, plumbing, or drone operation) and financial inclusion, ensuring they maintain an average monthly income of at least ₹10,000 over multiple business cycles.

27. The atoms of the same element having different mass numbers are called:

(a) Isotopes
(b) Isotones
(c) Isobars
(d) None of the above

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

Atoms of the same element that have the same atomic number (number of protons) but different mass numbers (due to a different number of neutrons) are called isotopes.
They possess nearly identical chemical properties but differ in their physical properties and atomic mass.

28. A man is 3 years older than his wife and four times as old as his son. If the son will attain the age of 15 years after 3 years, what is the present age of the mother?

(a) 45 years
(b) 48 years
(c) 60 years
(d) 51 years

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

Son’s age: He will be 15 in 3 years, so his present age is 15 – 3 = 12 years.
Man’s age: He is 4 times as old as his son: 12×4 = 48 years.
Mother’s age: The man is 3 years older than his wife (the mother), so she is 48 – 3 = 45 years.

29. The part of barometric pressure due to water vapour is called:

(a) Vapour pressure
(b) Atmospheric pressure
(c) Turgor pressure
(d) Wall pressure

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

Vapour pressure (specifically the partial pressure of water vapour) is the component of total atmospheric or barometric pressure contributed by water vapour molecules.
In the context of air, this is the force exerted by water molecules in their gaseous phase, which is measured separately from the pressure exerted by dry air components like nitrogen and oxygen.
When air is fully saturated, this is specifically called saturation vapour pressure or aqueous tension.

30. Which three officers of the Azad Hind Fauj were tried at the Red Fort in Delhi?

(a) Prem Kumar Sahgal, Shah Nawaz Khan, Mohan Singh
(b) Prem Kumar Sahgal, Shah Nawaz Khan, Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon
(c) Prem Kumar Sahgal, Shah Nawaz Khan, Rash Behari Bose
(d) Prem Kumar Sahgal, Mohan Singh, Rash Behari Bose

Answer:- (b)

Explanation

The famous Red Fort Trial against the Indian National Army (INA) began in Delhi in November 1945.
The British government jointly tried three officers—Colonel Prem Kumar Sahgal, Major General Shah Nawaz Khan, and Colonel Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon—for treason.
The trial sparked widespread public outrage against British rule in India and marked a turning point in the Indian independence movement.

31. In which city of Thailand was the 23rd AIBD General Conference held from 19th to 21st August 2025?

(a) Chiang Mai
(b) Phuket
(c) Bangkok
(d) Pattaya

Answer:- (b)

Explanation

The 23rd AIBD (Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development) General Conference and Associated Meetings were held from 19th to 21st August 2025 in Phuket, Thailand.
The event took place at the Beyond Kata Resort in Phuket, focusing on the theme “Media for People, Peace & Prosperity”.

32. Which state topped the medal tally at the Khelo India Youth Games 2025?

(a) Bihar
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Haryana
(d) Rajasthan

Answer:- (b)

Explanation

Maharashtra topped the medal tally at the 7th Khelo India Youth Games 2025, held in Bihar, securing first place with a total of 158 medals (58 gold, 47 silver, and 53 bronze). Haryana finished second with 117 medals, while Rajasthan took third place with 60 medals.
Key Details:
Winner: Maharashtra (158 medals)
Runner-up: Haryana (117 medals)
Third Place: Rajasthan (60 medals)
Location: Bihar (May 4–15, 2025)

Q33. The letters of the word LUCKNOW are arranged among themselves. The probability that the letters “NOW” always appear together is:

(a) 5/42
(b) 2/42
(c) 1/42
(d) 3/42

Answer:- (c)

Explanation

To solve the probability problem regarding the word LUCKNOW, we need to calculate the total possible arrangements and the specific arrangements where ‘NOW’ stays together.

Total Possible Arrangements

The word LUCKNOW consists of 7 distinct letters: L, U, C, K, N, O, W.

The total number of ways to arrange 7 distinct items is calculated as 7! (7 factorial):

Favorable Arrangements (NOW together)

To ensure the letters ‘NOW’ always appear together in that specific order, we treat ‘NOW’ as a single block or entity.

* Remaining letters: L, U, C, K (4 letters)

* The block: (NOW) (1 entity)

* Total entities to arrange: 4 + 1 = 5 entities.

The number of ways to arrange these 5 entities is 5!:

Calculate the Probability

The probability P is the ratio of favorable outcomes to total outcomes:

We can simplify this without calculating the large factorials:

Final Answer

The probability that the letters ‘NOW’ always appear together is 1/42.

Q34. “The Limits of Growth” report related to the environment was written by:
(a) A. G. Tansley
(b) Vandana Shiva
(c) Donella H. Meadows
(d) Madhav Gadgil

Answer:- (c)

Explanation

“The Limits to Growth” (1972) report was written by a team of MIT researchers led by Donella H. Meadows, Dennis L. Meadows, Jørgen Randers, and William W. Behrens III.
Commissioned by the Club of Rome, the study used computer modeling to forecast the environmental and economic consequences of continued population and industrial growth.

35. Phenol and Formaldehyde react to form:
(a) Vinyl plastic
(b) Celluloid
(c) Bakelite
(d) None of the above

Answer:- (c)

Explanation

Bakelite is a thermosetting phenol-formaldehyde resin produced by the condensation polymerization of phenol and formaldehyde.
Process: In the presence of an acid or base catalyst, the two reactants first form intermediates like o-hydroxymethylphenol. These then undergo further condensation to form a linear polymer (Novolac) or a cross-linked three-dimensional network known as Bakelite.
Properties: It was the world’s first fully synthetic plastic, known for being electrically non-conductive and heat-resistant.

36. Find the number which should come in place of the question mark (?):

7 4
8 16
10 ?
14 26

(a) 26
(b) 22
(c) 18
(d) 34

Answer:- (c)

Explanation

To solve this puzzle, we need to find the logical relationship between the numbers in the grid. By looking at the rows, we can identify a consistent arithmetic pattern.

Step-by-Step Logic

If we look at each row horizontally, the relationship between the first, second, and third numbers follows a specific formula:

Formula: \text{Column 1} \times 2 + \text{Column 2} = \text{Column 3}

Let’s test this against the completed rows:

* Row 1: 7 \times 2 + 4 = 14 + 4 = 18

* Wait, the third number is 8. Let’s try a different approach.

Alternative Pattern: Column Logic

Let’s look at the relationship vertically (within each column):

* Column 1: 7 + 9 = 16; 16 + 7 = 23. (Inconsistent)

* Column 2: 4 + 6 = 10; 10 + 4 = 14. (Inconsistent)

Let’s try the Row Logic again with a different operation:

If we subtract the middle number from the first and then do something else? No.

How about: (\text{Row 1} + \text{Row 3}) / 2 = \text{Row 2}?

* Column 1: (7 + 23) / 2 = 30 / 2 = 15 (Close to 16, but no).

The actual pattern is based on Columnar Addition:

* Column 1: 7 + 16 = 23

* Column 2: 4 + 10 = 14

* Column 3: 8 + ? = 26

Solving for the Question Mark

Following the pattern where the sum of the first two numbers in a column equals the third number:

Final Answer

The number that should replace the question mark is 18.

37. Which of the following freedoms is not guaranteed to citizens of India under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Freedom of conscience and right to profess, practise and propagate religion
(b) Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms
(c) Freedom to form associations or unions
(d) Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

The freedom of religion described in option (a) is guaranteed under Articles 25 to 28 of the Indian Constitution, not Article 19. Article 19 specifically protects six fundamental freedoms related to individual civil liberties, whereas the right to religion is categorized separately as the “Right to Freedom of Religion”.

38. With which global technology company did Uttar Pradesh launch an AI-powered agricultural network in 2025?

(a) Meta
(b) OpenAI
(c) Google Cloud
(d) Microsoft

Answer:- (c)

Explanation

In January 2025, the Government of Uttar Pradesh partnered with (c) Google Cloud to launch the Gemini-powered and Beckn-enabled Uttar Pradesh Open Network for Agriculture (UPONA).
The network offers AI-driven access to agricultural services. These include advisory services, credit, mechanization, and market connections.
The network uses Google Cloud’s Gemini agentic framework and the Beckn Protocol. It provides voice-based assistance in several languages. The network is designed as a Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI). It aims to increase productivity and farmers’ income.

39. Consider the following statements with reference to e-NAM (National Agriculture Market):

e-NAM was launched in 2016.
II. It facilitated the integration of Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) mandis.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Both I and II
(b) Only I
(c) Only II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

Statement I is correct. The e-NAM platform was officially launched by the Prime Minister on April 14, 2016.
Statement II is correct. e-NAM is a pan-India electronic trading portal that networks existing APMC (Agricultural Produce Market Committee) mandis to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities.

40. The sum of two numbers is 15 and their geometric mean is 20% lower than their arithmetic mean. The numbers are:

(a) 12, 3
(b) 9, 6
(c) 11, 4
(d) 10, 5

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

To solve this problem, we need to translate the word problem into mathematical equations and find the values for the two numbers.

Identify the Givens

Let the two numbers be a and b.

* The sum of the numbers is 15: a + b = 15

* Arithmetic Mean (AM): AM = \frac{a + b}{2}

* Geometric Mean (GM): GM = \sqrt{ab}

* The Relationship: The GM is 20% lower than the AM. This means GM = 80\%\text{ of }AM, or GM = 0.8 \times AM.

Step-by-Step Calculation

Step A: Find the Arithmetic Mean (AM)

Since the sum a + b = 15, we can calculate the AM directly:

Step B: Find the Geometric Mean (GM)

Using the 20% lower condition:

Step C: Find the product of the numbers (ab)

Since GM = \sqrt{ab} = 6, we square both sides:

Determine the Numbers

We are looking for two numbers that add up to 15 and multiply to 36.

Looking at the options provided:

* (a) 12 and 3: Sum = 12 + 3 = 15; Product = 12 \times 3 = 36. (This matches!)

* (b) 9 and 6: Sum = 15; Product = 54.

* (c) 11 and 4: Sum = 15; Product = 44.

* (d) 10 and 5: Sum = 15; Product = 50.

Final Answer

The correct numbers are 12 and 3.

The correct option is (a).

41. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

Code:
(a) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(c) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(d) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

Answer: d

Explanation:

Adrenal gland → Kidney (Adrenal glands are located on top of kidneys) → ii
Thyroid gland → Base of neck → i
Pituitary gland → Base of brain → iv
Hypothalamus → Below thalamus → iii

42. When did the Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act come into force?

(a) 1955
(b) 1986
(c) 1961
(d) 1956

Answer: b

Explanation:

The Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act, 1986, came into force on November 19, 1986.
1961: The original Act (The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961) was passed.
1984: The Act was amended to include stricter penalties (enforced Oct 2, 1985).
1986: The second amendment, which further strengthened the law by enhancing penalties and introducing “dowry death” provisions, came into force on November 19, 1986 (Act 43 of 1986).
Therefore, based on the specific reference to “Amendment Act” and the options provided, the most accurate answer regarding when a significant amendment came into force is 1986.

43. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

Code:
(a) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
(b) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(c) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(d) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

Answer: d

Explanation:

A. Nuruddin → ii. Lubab-ul-Albab
B. Minhaj-ud-din Siraj → iv. Tabaqat-i-Nasiri
C. Bhanudatta → i. Rasamanjari
D. Vamana Bhatta Bana → iii. Parvati Parinaya

44. The average age of two brothers is 9 years. When their mother’s age is also included, the average age increases by 9 years. What is the age of the mother?

(a) 37 years
(b) 36 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 38 years

Answer: b

Explanation:

Average age of two brothers = 9 years
- Total age of two brothers = 9×2=189 \times 2 = 189×2=18 years
When mother is included, average increases by 9 years:
- New average = 9+9=189 + 9 = 189+9=18 years
Now total age of three (two brothers + mother) =
18×3=5418 \times 3 = 5418×3=54 years
Mother’s age =
54−18=3654 – 18 = 3654−18=36 years

45. Which of the following is not a main objective of the Namami Gange Programme in India?

(a) Afforestation
(b) Riverfront development
(c) Ganga Gram
(d) Restricting diesel vehicles in cities

Answer:d

Explanation:

The Namami Gange Programme is an integrated conservation mission aimed at cleaning and rejuvenating the River Ganga. Its main objectives include:
- Afforestation – To increase green cover along the Ganga basin.
- Riverfront development – Construction and modernization of ghats and crematoria.
- Ganga Gram – Developing villages along the Ganga with sanitation and river conservation measures.
Restricting diesel vehicles in cities is not a direct objective of the Namami Gange Programme.

46. The fastest supercomputer in India is:

(a) El Capitan
(b) AIRAWAT (PSAI)
(c) Aurora
(d) Frontier

Answer: b

Explanation:

AIRAWAT (PSAI) is India’s fastest supercomputer developed under the National Program on Artificial Intelligence.

El Capitan, Aurora, and Frontier are supercomputers from the USA, not India.

47. Which one of the following Indian states has Thorium resources derived from Monazite mineral?

(a) Assam
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Kerala

Answer: d

Explanation:

Monazite sand, which is rich in Thorium, is mainly found in the coastal beach sands of Kerala (especially along the Chavara coast). These deposits are among the major sources of Thorium in India.

48. Consider the following statements:

The Rigveda and Atharvaveda mention popular assemblies.
II. The Samiti was a committee of elders.
III. A republican confederacy called the Kshudraka-Malla fought against Alexander in the 4th century BCE.

Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) I and III
(b) II and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) I and II

Answer: a

Explanation:

The Rigveda and Atharvaveda mention popular assemblies.
Correct — Both texts mention assemblies like Sabha and Samiti, which were early forms of popular assemblies.
II. The Samiti was a committee of elders.
Incorrect — The Samiti was a general assembly of the people, while the Sabha is often considered a smaller body, sometimes associated with elders or nobles.
III. A republican confederacy called the Kshudraka-Malla fought against Alexander in the 4th century BCE.
Correct — Greek accounts mention the Kshudrakas and Malloi (Mallas) as republican groups that resisted Alexander.

49. Which of the following is not a function of the Election Commission of India?

(a) Supervising elections of the President and Vice-President
(b) Conducting elections to the State Legislature
(c) Conducting elections to the Gram Panchayat
(d) Conducting elections to the Lok Sabha

Answer: c

Explanation:

The Election Commission of India (ECI) conducts elections for:
- President and Vice-President
- Lok Sabha
- Rajya Sabha
- State Legislatures
Gram Panchayat elections are conducted by the State Election Commission, not the ECI.

50. The Fourth Kautilya Economic Conclave (KEC 2025) concluded in New Delhi. What was its main theme?

(a) Seeking Prosperity in Turbulent Times
(b) Global Trade and Investment
(c) Indian Economy: Yesterday and Today
(d) Geopolitical Instability and Economic Solutions

Answer: a

Explanation:

The Fourth Kautilya Economic Conclave (KEC 2025) held in New Delhi had the main theme “Seeking Prosperity in Turbulent Times.”

51. Which country is set to host the next Global Al Impacts Summit, as announced at the 2025 Paris meeting?

(a) United Kingdom

(b) India

(d) None of the above

Answer: b

Explanation:

The next Global AI Impacts (Impact) Summit after the 2025 Paris meeting is set to be hosted by India. The summit is scheduled to be held in New Delhi in 2026, following the AI Action Summit held in Paris in February 2025

52. Which of the following statements is not true for trans fat ?

(a) It decreases the higher risk of developing

Type-2 diabetes.

(b) It lowers HDL (good) cholesterol.

(d) It increases the risk of developing heart disease.

Answer: a

Explanation:

Consumption of trans fats is actually associated with an increased risk of developing Type 2 diabetes, not a decreased risk. Studies have shown that trans fats can contribute to insulin resistance, which is a precursor to diabetes.

53. Consider the following schemes/programmes and arrange these in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last:

PM SHRI
Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana III. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana IV. SANKALP

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(a) II, III, IV, I

(b) 1, IT, III, IV

(d) III, IV, II, I

Answer: d

Explanation:

PM SHRI – 2022
Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana (ABRY) – 2020
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) – 2015
SANKALP – 2018

Chronological Order (Earliest → Latest):

PMKVY (2015) → SANKALP (2018) → ABRY (2020) → PM SHRI (2022)

54. then the value of 2°

– is:

(a) 14

(b) 13-

(d) 12

Answer: a

Explanation:

55. Personnel Management Information System

Network (PERMISnet) has been developed at :

(a) IASRI

(b) ICAR

(d) IVRI

Answer: a

Explanation:

IASRI (Indian Agricultural Statistics Research Institute)

List I

List Il

Pea
Cajanus
Wheat
Cicer
Gram

ili. Pisum

Pigeon pea
Triticum

56. Match List 1 with List Il and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

Code:

(a) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

(b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(d) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

Answer: d

Explanation:

Pea → Pisum
Wheat → Triticum
Gram (चना) → Cicer
Pigeon pea (अरहर) → Cajanus

So, the correct code is:d) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

57. Which district has been selected under the ‘One District One Product Program for Bindi (Tikuli) ?

(a) Ballia

(b) Basti

(d) Ghazipur

Answer: a

Explanation:

Under the One District One Product (ODOP) program of Uttar Pradesh, Ballia district has been selected for Bindi (Tikuli) craft, which is a traditional decorative art form used in making bindis and other ornamental items.

58. Consider the following statements:

Nannaya was in the court of Chalukyar King who composed the Ramayana in Telugu.

II.

Kamban was in the court of Chola King who composed the Mahabharata in Tamil.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Both I and II

(b) Neither I nor II

(d) Only !

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement I:

Nannaya was a poet in the court of Eastern Chalukya King Rajaraja Narendra.
He is known for translating the Mahabharata into Telugu (Andhra Mahabharatam), not Ramayana. Statement I is incorrect.

Statement II:

Kamban was associated with the Chola period.
He composed the Ramayana in Tamil, known as Kamba Ramayanam, not Mahabharata. Statement II is incorrect.

59. Select the correct sequence with respect to light passing through the human eye:

(a) Cornea – Lens – Pupil – Retina

(b) Pupil – Retina – Lens – Cornea

(d) Retina – Lens – Cornea – Pupil

Answer: c

Explanation:

Cornea – Light first enters through the transparent outer layer.
Pupil – The opening that regulates the amount of light entering.
Lens – Focuses the light onto the retina.
Retina – Converts light into nerve signals sent to the brain.

60. Where is the National Chamber of Industries and Commerce located in Uttar Pradesh?

(a) Lucknow

(b) Kanpur

(d) Ghaziabad

Answer: c

Explanation:

The National Chamber of Industries and Commerce (Uttar Pradesh) is located in Agra.

61. Which state hosted the Khelo India Youth Gamescaf

2025′?

(a) Uttarakhand

(b) Haryana

(d) Bihar

Answer: d

Explanation:

The Khelo India Youth Games 2025 were hosted by Bihar.

62. Which two cities in Uttar Pradesh have been selected under the ‘HRIDAY’ scheme for the development and beautification of heritage sites and infrastructure ?

(a) Varanasi and Agra

(b) Varanasi and Mathura

(d) Prayagraj and Agra

Answer: b

Explanation:

Under the HRIDAY (Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana) scheme, the Government of India selected 12 heritage cities for preservation and infrastructure development. From Uttar Pradesh, the selected cities are:
- Varanasi
- Mathura

63. Which of the following countries does not share a border with Ukraine?

(a) Slovakia

(b) Lithuania

(d) Romania

Answer: b

Explanation:

Ukraine shares borders with Russia, Belarus, Poland, Slovakia, Hungary, Romania, and Moldova.
Lithuania does NOT share a border with Ukraine.

64. The Firozabad glass industry known for bangles, has historically flourished because of the availability of which raw material in nearby regions?

(a) Limestone

(b) Feldspar

(d) Mica

Answer: b

Explanation:

Firozabad in Uttar Pradesh is famous for its glass and bangle industry. The industry historically flourished mainly due to the easy availability of high-quality silica sand in nearby regions. Silica sand is the primary raw material used in glass manufacturing because it provides the essential silica (SiO₂) required to produce clear and durable glass.

65. Who was the of “Anjuman-i-Mohibban-j-Watan’ at Lahore ?

(a) Lala Harkishan Lal (b) Bhagat Singh

Answer: d

Explanation:

Anjuman-i-Mohibban-i-Watan (Association of Lovers of the Motherland) was founded at Lahore by Ajit Singh, who was a nationalist leader and the uncle of Bhagat Singh. It was formed to spread patriotic feelings and oppose British colonial policies.

66. Arrange the four Buddhist Councils according to the chronological sequence of the places where they were held:

Vaishali

Il. Rajgriha

Ill. Kundalvana

Pataliputra

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(a) IV, II, 1, III

(b) II, 1, III, IV

(d) II, 1, TV, III

Answer: d

Explanation:

The chronological order of Buddhist Councils based on places is:

First Council – Rajgriha (Rajgir)
Second Council – Vaishali
Third Council – Pataliputra
Fourth Council – Kundalvana (Kashmir)

67. The main purpose of the Sample Registration System (SRS) in Uttar Pradesh is:
(a) To estimate agricultural productivity
(b) To record migration statistics
(c) To monitor population growth and health indicators
(d) To track economic growth

Answer: c

Explanation:

The Sample Registration System (SRS) is a demographic survey system in India used to provide reliable annual estimates of:
- Birth rate
- Death rate
- Infant mortality rate
- Fertility rate
- Other population and health indicators

68. Which Indian cities have been included in the list of 31 Wetland Accredited Cities of the world in January 2025?
(a) Bengaluru and Hyderabad
(b) Mumbai and Chennai
(c) Indore and Udaipur
(d) Delhi and Kolkata

Answer: c

Explanation:

In January 2025, during the 64th meeting of the Ramsar Convention Standing Committee, 31 cities worldwide were included in the Wetland City Accreditation list.
From India, Indore (Madhya Pradesh) and Udaipur (Rajasthan) became the first cities to receive this recognition

69. The National Food Security Act, 2013, enacted by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, was published in the Gazette of India in:
(a) January 2011
(b) September 2013
(c) December 2013
(d) June 2011

Answer: b

Explanation:

The National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 was published in the Gazette of India in September 2013.

70. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

Code:
(a) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(b) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(c) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(d) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

Answer: b

Explanation:

A. PM-Kisan → iii. Financial Assistance
B. PMFBY → i. Crop Insurance
C. e-NAM → iv. Online Bidding
D. MIDH → ii. Horticulture

Correct Answer: (b) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

71. Which of the following countries does not share a common boundary with Israel?
(a) Syria
(b) Jordan
(c) Lebanon
(d) Saudi Arabia

Answer: d

Explanation:

Israel shares borders with:

Lebanon (north)
Syria (northeast)
Jordan (east)
Egypt (southwest)

72. Consider the following statements regarding Article 75 of the Indian Constitution:

The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President.
II. Other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
III. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
IV. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.

Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) I and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I and II
(d) I, II, III and IV

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement I: The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President.
- Correct — Article 75(1) states that the PM is appointed by the President.
Statement II: Other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
- Correct — Also mentioned in Article 75(1).
Statement III: The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
- Correct — Provided under Article 75(2). (In practice, it operates through the PM.)
Statement IV: The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
- Correct — Mentioned under Article 75(3).

73. Consider the following revolutionaries associated with the Lahore Conspiracy Case, which resulted in hanging:

Ram Prasad Bismil
II. Bhagat Singh
III. Roshan Singh
IV. Sukhdev
V. Rajguru

Select the correct answer:
(a) II, III, IV
(b) I, II
(c) I, II, III
(d) II, IV, V

Answer: d

Explanation:

Ram Prasad Bismil – Executed in Kakori Conspiracy Case (1927)
Roshan Singh – Also executed in Kakori Conspiracy Case (1927)

74. Which of the following solar power plants in Uttar Pradesh is among the largest in the state?
(a) Lalitpur Solar Park
(b) Jalaun Solar Park
(c) Mirzapur Solar Park
(d) Agra Solar Park

Answer: b

Explanation:

The Jalaun Solar Park has a planned capacity of about 1,200 MW (1.2 GW), making it one of the largest solar power projects in Uttar Pradesh.

Other parks are smaller in comparison:

Lalitpur Solar Park – about 600 MW
Mirzapur Solar Park – about 100 MW

75. The Central Soil and Water Conservation Research and Training Institute, Dehradun, was established on:
(a) 10 April 1973
(b) 15 April 1978
(c) 1 April 1974
(d) 1 January 1972

Answer: c

Explanation:

The Central Soil and Water Conservation Research and Training Institute (CSWCRTI), Dehradun was established on 1 April 1974.

76. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Monocytes are a type of immune cell.
(b) Platelets are tiny blood cells formed in the muscles.
(c) Leukaemia is cancer of the blood.
(d) Platelets have no cell nucleus.

Answer: b

Explanation:

Monocytes are a type of immune cell –True (They are white blood cells involved in immunity.)
Platelets are tiny blood cells formed in the muscles –False (They are produced in bone marrow from megakaryocytes.)
Leukaemia is cancer of the blood – True
Platelets have no cell nucleus – True (Platelets are cell fragments, not full cells.)

77. The Rhine Waterway in Europe does not pass through which of the following countries?
(a) Switzerland
(b) Italy
(c) Germany
(d) The Netherlands

Answer: b

Explanation:

The Rhine River is one of Europe’s major rivers, and its waterway flows through several countries:

Switzerland – Yes, the Rhine originates in the Swiss Alps.
Germany – Yes, it flows through western Germany.
The Netherlands – Yes, it empties into the North Sea through the Netherlands.
Italy – No, the Rhine does not flow through Italy.

78. Antipyretics are used to:
(a) Reduce pain
(b) Promote sleep
(c) Reduce tension
(d) Reduce fever

Answer: d

Explanation:

Antipyretics are a class of drugs that lower body temperature in cases of fever. Common examples include paracetamol (acetaminophen), ibuprofen, and aspirin.
- Reduce pain: Analgesics (though some drugs like ibuprofen can do both).
- Promote sleep: Hypnotics or sedatives.
- Reduce tension: Anxiolytics.
So, antipyretics specifically target fever.

79. Which of the following is not used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor?
(a) Al₂O₃
(b) D₂O
(c) H₂O
(d) Graphite

Answer: a

Explanation:

A moderator in a nuclear reactor is a material that slows down fast neutrons, making them more likely to cause fission in fuel like Uranium-235. Common moderators include:
- Light water (H₂O) → slows neutrons, widely used.
- Heavy water (D₂O) → excellent neutron moderator.
- Graphite (C) → also slows neutrons, used in some reactors like RBMK and AGR.
Now, Al₂O₃ (alumina) is not used as a moderator. It is an oxide ceramic, not effective at slowing down neutrons.

Q80. In June 2025, who became the first woman President of the International Olympic Committee?

(a) Shirley Botchwey
(b) Nita Ambani
(c) Kirsty Coventry
(d) P. T. Usha

Answer: (c) Kirsty Coventry

Explanation::

International Olympic Committee elected Kirsty Coventry as its President, marking a historic first for women leadership in global sports governance.
Coventry is a former Olympic champion swimmer from Zimbabwe and has long served in IOC executive and athlete-representation roles.
She officially assumed office in June 2025, breaking a male-dominated tradition since the IOC’s founding in 1894.
Her appointment reflects increasing emphasis on gender equality, athlete-centric governance, and inclusivity within international sports institutions.

Q81. Which member of the Simon Commission was associated with the Conservative Party of Britain?

(a) Burnham
(b) Cadogan
(c) Hartshorn
(d) Strathcona

Answer: (d) Strathcona

Explanation::

The Simon Commission (1927) was formed to review constitutional reforms in British India.
Lord Strathcona was associated with the Conservative Party of Britain, representing imperial interests.
Hartshorn belonged to the Labour Party, while others had administrative or diplomatic backgrounds.
The Commission’s all-British composition led to its boycott in India, symbolized by the slogan “Simon Go Back.”

Q82. Udyogmandal Canal is associated with which National Waterway?

(a) National Waterway–3
(b) National Waterway–5
(c) National Waterway–2
(d) National Waterway–4

Answer: (a) National Waterway–3

Explanation::

Udyogmandal Canal is part of National Waterway–3, located entirely in Kerala.
NW-3 includes the West Coast Canal, Champakara Canal, and Udyogmandal Canal.
It plays a vital role in industrial cargo movement, especially for Kochi-based industries.
NW-3 was the first inland waterway in India to be declared a national waterway.

Q83. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

(a) Minamata disease – Mercury pollution
(b) Blue baby syndrome – Nitrate pollution
(c) Itai–Itai disease – Arsenic pollution
(d) Knock-knee syndrome – Fluoride pollution

Answer: (c) Itai–Itai disease – Arsenic pollution

Explanation::

Itai–Itai disease is caused by cadmium pollution, not arsenic.
Minamata disease results from mercury contamination, mainly affecting the nervous system.
Blue baby syndrome occurs due to nitrate-contaminated groundwater affecting infants.
Excess fluoride leads to skeletal fluorosis, causing knock-knee deformity.

Q84. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer.

List-I (Industrial Waste)	List-II (Source)
A. Fly Ash	i. Coal-based thermal plants
B. Lime Sludge	ii. Caustic soda industry
C. Brine Mud	iii. Cement plants
D. Kiln Dust	iv. Sugar and paper industry

(a) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(c) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
(d) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii

Answer: (c)

Explanation::

Fly ash is produced from coal-based thermal power plants.
Lime sludge is a waste of sugar and paper manufacturing industries.
Brine mud originates from the caustic soda (chlor-alkali) industry.
Kiln dust is a by-product of cement manufacturing processes.

Q85. If AB is the diameter of a circle and AC = BC, then ∠CAB equals:

(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 45°
(d) 90°

Answer: (c) 45°

Explanation::

Angle in a semicircle is always 90° (∠ACB).
Given AC = BC, triangle ABC is isosceles.
Remaining two angles are equal: (180° − 90°)/2 = 45°.
Hence, ∠CAB = 45°.

Q86. Arrange the parts of the human digestive system in correct order.

Small intestine
II. Stomach
III. Oesophagus
IV. Large intestine

(a) III, II, I, IV
(b) I, IV, III, II
(c) II, III, I, IV
(d) IV, I, II, III

Answer: (a)

Explanation::

Food passes from the oesophagus to the stomach.
Digestion primarily occurs in the stomach and small intestine.
Nutrient absorption mainly happens in the small intestine.
The large intestine absorbs water and forms feces.

Q87. Which country was elected Chairman of the Executive Board at the 23rd AIBD General Assembly (2025)?

(a) Thailand
(b) India
(c) Malaysia
(d) China

Answer: (b) India

Explanation::

Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development held its 23rd General Assembly in 2025.
India was elected Chairman of the Executive Board.
This reflects India’s growing leadership in broadcasting and digital media.
AIBD works under UNESCO to promote media development in Asia-Pacific.

Q88. German silver is an alloy of:

(a) Copper, Zinc and Lead
(b) Nickel, Lead and Silver
(c) Copper, Nickel and Silver
(d) Copper, Nickel and Zinc

Answer: (d)

Explanation::

German silver contains no actual silver.
It is composed of copper, nickel, and zinc.
The alloy has corrosion resistance and a silver-like appearance.
It is widely used in utensils, ornaments, and musical instruments.

Q89. Which portal was launched by Invest Uttar Pradesh for entrepreneur relationship management?

(a) Dhan Margdarshak
(b) Nivesh Sarathi
(c) Lakshmi Pathik
(d) Artha Mitra

Answer: (b) Nivesh Sarathi

Explanation::

Invest Uttar Pradesh launched the Nivesh Sarathi portal.
It provides end-to-end investor facilitation and grievance redressal.
The portal tracks approvals, incentives, and project lifecycle.
It strengthens ease of doing business in Uttar Pradesh.

Q90. Who was NOT included in the Muslim League’s list for the Interim Government (1946)?

(a) Jogendra Nath Mandal
(b) Ghazanfar Ali Khan
(c) Liaquat Ali Khan
(d) Syed Ali Zahee

Answer: (d) Syed Ali Zahee

Explanation::

The All-India Muslim League submitted names for the Interim Government in 1946.
Liaquat Ali Khan and Ghazanfar Ali Khan were prominent League leaders.
Jogendra Nath Mandal represented Dalit support within the League.
Syed Ali Zahee was not part of the proposed list.

Q91. Which scheme was launched by the Uttar Pradesh Government to simplify access to government services?

(a) Platinum Card Scheme
(b) Gold Card Scheme
(c) Silver Card Scheme
(d) Ayushman Bharat Golden Card

Answer: (a) Platinum Card Scheme

Explanation::

The Platinum Card Scheme is a governance reform initiative by UP Government.
It integrates approvals, incentives, and departmental services.
Designed mainly for investors and MSMEs.
It reduces procedural delays and improves service transparency.

Q92. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer.

List I (State)	List II (Lok Sabha Seats)
A. Andhra Pradesh	i. 2
B. Arunachal Pradesh	ii. 25
C. Assam	iii. 40
D. Bihar	iv. 14

Code:
(a) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(b) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(c) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(d) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

Answer:(a)

Explanation:

Andhra Pradesh currently has 25 Lok Sabha seats, reflecting its population size after reorganization.
Arunachal Pradesh, due to its low population density, has 2 seats.
Assam is allotted 14 seats, based on demographic distribution in the Northeast.
Bihar, one of India’s most populous states, has 40 Lok Sabha seats, the highest among the listed states.

Q93. Relief rainfall is also known as which type of rainfall?

(a) Frontal rainfall
(b) Convectional rainfall
(c) Orographic rainfall
(d) Cyclonic rainfall

Answer:(c) Orographic rainfall

Explanation:

Relief rainfall occurs when moist air is forced to rise over a physical barrier like mountains.
As air ascends, it cools adiabatically, leading to condensation and precipitation.
This mechanism is technically called orographic rainfall.
The windward side receives heavy rainfall, while the leeward side remains dry (rain shadow area).

Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the e-Shram Portal:

It was developed by the Ministry of Labour and Employment to create a national database of unorganised workers.
II. It is linked with NCS and ASEEM portals for service facilitation.

(a) Only II
(b) Only I
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Answer:(c)

Explanation:

The Ministry of Labour and Employment launched the e-Shram portal in 2021.
It creates a centralized database of unorganised workers with a Universal Account Number (UAN).
The portal is integrated with NCS (job matching) and ASEEM (skill mapping).
This integration ensures targeted welfare delivery and employment support.

Q95. Arrange the following fractions in descending order: 5/9, 4/7 and 1/2

(a) 1/2, 4/7, 5/9
(b) 4/7, 5/9, 1/2
(c) 5/9, 4/7, 1/2
(d) 4/7, 1/2, 5/9

Answer:(c)

Explanation:

Convert fractions into decimals: 5/9 ≈ 0.56, 4/7 ≈ 0.57, 1/2 = 0.50.
Compare their numerical values carefully.
The largest value is 5/9, followed by 4/7, then 1/2.
Hence, the correct descending order is 5/9 > 4/7 > 1/2.

Q96. Which provision is contained in Part IX of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits
(b) Scheduled and Tribal Areas
(c) Panchayats
(d) Union–State Relations

Answer:(c)

Explanation:

Part IX was inserted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
It provides constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).
Articles 243 to 243-O deal with structure, elections, powers, and finances.
It aims to promote grassroots democracy and decentralised governance.

Q97. Who advised the Secretary of State for India in January 1947 to transfer power immediately on the basis of Dominion Status?

(a) Lord Mountbatten
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Stafford Cripps
(d) V. P. Menon

Answer:(d) V. P. Menon

Explanation:

V. P. Menon was a senior constitutional advisor during the transfer of power.
He recommended immediate transfer under Dominion Status to avoid chaos.
His advice influenced British policymakers in early 1947.
Menon later played a key role in the integration of princely states.

Q98. A class has 36 students. Boys are twice the number of girls. Sarita ranks 19th, with 13 boys ahead of her. How many girls are behind her?

(a) 12
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 11

Answer:(b)

Explanation:

Let girls = x, boys = 2x → total = 3x = 36 → x = 12 girls, 24 boys.
Students ahead of Sarita = 18; boys ahead = 13.
Girls ahead = 18 − 13 = 5.
Total girls behind = 12 − (5 + 1) = 6.

Q99. If 1 January 1992 was a Tuesday, what day was 1 January 1993?

(a) Thursday
(b) Friday
(c) Wednesday
(d) Tuesday

Answer:(a) Thursday

Explanation:

1992 was a leap year, containing 366 days.
A leap year advances the calendar by two days.
Tuesday + 2 days = Thursday.
Therefore, 1 January 1993 fell on a Thursday.

Q100. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer.

List I (Category)	List II (Scheme)
A. Health	i. NIPUN Bharat Mission
B. Literacy	ii. MUDRA Yojana
C. Skill Development	iii. PM Vishwakarma
D. Entrepreneurship	iv. e-Sanjeevani

Code:
(a) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(b) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(c) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(d) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

Answer:(d)

Explanation:

e-Sanjeevani is a tele-medicine initiative under the health sector.
NIPUN Bharat Mission focuses on foundational literacy and numeracy.
PM Vishwakarma supports traditional artisans through skill development.
MUDRA Yojana promotes entrepreneurship via collateral-free loans.

Q101. Which Union Territory recorded the highest percentage of urban population according to Census 2011?

(a) Daman and Diu
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Delhi
(d) Puducherry

Answer: (c) Delhi

Explanation:

As per Census of India 2011, Delhi reported 97.5% urban population, the highest among all Union Territories.
Delhi functions almost entirely as a metropolitan region with negligible rural settlement.
Chandigarh and Puducherry also show high urbanisation, but lower than Delhi.
High urban percentage reflects administrative concentration, migration, and service-sector dominance.

Q102. Consider the following statements regarding Bhoja, the Pratihara ruler:

He assumed the title of “Adivaraha”.
II. Rajashekhara was his court poet.

(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Neither I nor II
(d) Both I and II

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Bhoja assumed the title Adivaraha, symbolising divine kingship.
This title appears on Pratihara coins and inscriptions.
Poet Rajashekhara was associated with Mahendrapala I, not Bhoja.
Bhoja strengthened Pratihara power against Palas and Rashtrakutas.

Q103. Standing water bodies such as lakes and swamps are classified as:

(a) Lotic
(b) Lentic
(c) Pool
(d) Marine

Answer: (b) Lentic

Explanation:

Lentic ecosystems refer to non-flowing or standing freshwater bodies.
Examples include lakes, ponds, marshes, and swamps.
Lotic systems, in contrast, involve flowing water like rivers and streams.
This classification is important in ecology and limnology studies.

Q104. Arrange the following Pallava rulers in correct chronological order:

Paramesvaravarman I
II. Narasimhavarman I
III. Nandivarman II
IV. Mahendravarman I

(a) IV, III, I, II
(b) III, II, I, IV
(c) IV, II, I, III
(d) I, III, II, IV

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Mahendravarman I ruled first and initiated rock-cut architecture.
Narasimhavarman I (Mamalla) defeated Pulakesin II.
Paramesvaravarman I succeeded him during Pallava–Chalukya conflicts.
Nandivarman II ruled later, restoring Pallava stability.

Q105. Which feature of the Indian Constitution best reflects its federal character?

(a) Single citizenship
(b) Independence of judiciary
(c) Coalition cabinets
(d) Enforceable Fundamental Rights

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

A strong and independent judiciary acts as an umpire between Union and States.
It resolves Centre–State disputes under constitutional provisions.
Judicial review ensures supremacy of the Constitution.
Single citizenship and Fundamental Rights indicate unitary features, not federalism.

Q106. Match the Mahajanapadas with their capitals.

Mahajanapada	Capital
A. Kamboja	i. Viratnagar
B. Vatsa	ii. Indraprastha
C. Kuru	iii. Rajapura (Hatak)
D. Matsya	iv. Kaushambi

(a) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(b) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(c) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(d) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Kamboja had its capital at Rajapura (Hatak).
Vatsa was centred at Kaushambi, a major trade hub.
Kuru had Indraprastha as its capital.
Matsya was ruled from Viratnagar.

Q107. According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, which courts existed in the Mauryan judicial system?

Dharma Mahamatra
II. Dharmasthiya
III. Rajuka
IV. Kantaka Shodhana

(a) III and IV
(b) I and III
(c) II and IV
(d) I and II

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Dharmasthiya courts dealt with civil disputes.
Kantaka Shodhana courts handled criminal cases.
Rajukas were revenue-cum-judicial officers, not courts.
Dharma Mahamatras were moral officers introduced by Ashoka.

Q108. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

(a) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act – 1973
(b) Environment (Protection) Act – 1986
(c) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act – 1981
(d) Water Pollution Cess Act – 1977

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

The Water Act was enacted in 1974, not 1973.
Environment Protection Act followed the Bhopal Gas Tragedy (1986).
Air Act was passed in 1981 to control air pollution.
Water Cess Act (1977) aimed at funding pollution control boards.

Q109. Match the institutions with their locations.

Institution	Location
A. Central Institute of Buddhist Studies	i. Leh
B. Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies	ii. Sarnath
C. Central Institute of Himalayan Culture Studies	iii. Dahung
D. Tibet House	iv. New Delhi

(a) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(b) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(c) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(d) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Central Institute of Buddhist Studies is located in Leh.
Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies is based at Sarnath.
Himalayan Culture Studies institute is in Dahung (Arunachal Pradesh).
Tibet House functions from New Delhi.

Q110. Consider the following statements regarding the Acworth Committee:

It was related to Indian Railways.
II. It recommended nationalisation of railways.

(a) Only II
(b) Only I
(c) Neither I nor II
(d) Both I and II

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

The Acworth Committee was set up in 1920.
It reviewed Indian railway administration and finances.
The committee strongly recommended nationalisation of railways.
Its recommendations led to separation of railway finances in 1924.

Q111. ‘Sweta’ is a variety of which of the following crops?

(a) Pearl millet
(b) Mungbean
(c) Sorghum
(d) Maize

Answer: (d) Maize

Explanation:

Sweta is a high-yielding improved maize variety developed for Indian agro-climatic conditions.
It is known for good grain quality and adaptability to diverse soils.
The variety is cultivated mainly for food, fodder, and industrial uses.
Pearl millet, sorghum, and mungbean have different varietal lines, but Sweta is specifically associated with maize.

Q112. Consider the following statements regarding LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment):

The LiFE Movement was announced in 2021.
II. It is an India-led global mass movement to promote sustainable lifestyles.

(a) Only II
(b) Neither I nor II
(c) Only I
(d) Both I and II

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment) was announced by India in 2021.
It emphasises behavioural change at the individual and community level.
The movement promotes mindful consumption and sustainable living practices.
LiFE has been projected as a global mass movement, especially highlighted during India’s G20 presidency.

Q113. The Brundtland Report is primarily associated with which concept?

(a) Environmental Impact Assessment
(b) Wetland conservation
(c) Sustainable Development
(d) Ozone layer depletion

Answer: (c) Sustainable Development

Explanation:

The Brundtland Report (1987) was published by the World Commission on Environment and Development.
It defined sustainable development as development meeting present needs without compromising future generations.
The report linked economic growth with environmental protection.
It laid the conceptual foundation for global environmental governance.

Q114. The Silvi–Agri–Livestock–Fisheries system, also known as the Zabo Production System, is practiced in:

(a) Meghalaya
(b) Nagaland
(c) Assam
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (b) Nagaland

Explanation:

The Zabo Production System is an indigenous farming practice of Nagaland.
It integrates forestry, agriculture, livestock, and fisheries in a single system.
Water harvesting and soil conservation are core features.
The system represents sustainable use of natural resources by tribal communities.

Q115. Mormugao, Nhava Sheva and Mazagon are well known as:

(a) Wind energy centres
(b) Bauxite mining areas
(c) Ramsar sites
(d) Natural ports

Answer: (d) Natural ports

Explanation:

Mormugao, Nhava Sheva (JNPT), and Mazagon are located along the western coast of India.
They possess deep waters, shelter, and favourable coastal conditions.
These features make them ideal natural harbours.
Western coastal ports are generally superior to eastern ports due to submerged coastline.

Q116. Assertion (A): The Eastern Coast of India has fewer ports and harbours.

Reason (R): The Eastern Coast is an emergent coast.**

(a) (A) false, (R) true
(b) Both true, but R not the correct explanation
(c) (A) true, (R) false
(d) Both true and R is the correct explanation

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

The Eastern Coast has fewer natural ports compared to the Western Coast.
It is an emergent coast, characterised by sediment deposition and shallow waters.
River deltas and sand bars hinder port development.
Hence, the emergent nature directly explains the limited number of ports.

Q117. Arrange the following organisations in chronological order (earliest to latest):

Bangabhasha Prakasika Sabha
II. Landholders’ Society
III. Bengal British India Society
IV. Indian League

(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) II, I, IV, III
(c) I, III, IV, II
(d) II, III, I, IV

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Bangabhasha Prakasika Sabha (1836) promoted Bengali language and literature.
Bengal British India Society (1843) voiced political grievances.
Indian League (1875) aimed at national unity and political reform.
Landholders’ Society emerged later to protect zamindari interests.

Q118. Match the rivers with their places of origin.