Punjab PCS Answer Key 2025 (Out Soon): GS Paper 1 and CSAT Answer Key PDF

Table of Contents

The Punjab Public Service Commission (PPSC) successfully conducted the Punjab PCS Prelims Exam 2025 for 322 vacancies on 7th December 2025. While candidates eagerly await the official Punjab PCS Answer Key 2025, StudyIQ’s expert faculty has prepared a detailed, explained answer key to help aspirants analyse their performance.

This expert-based answer key enables candidates to evaluate their responses, calculate expected scores, and understand their chances of qualifying for the PCS Mains 2025, even before the official key is released.

Punjab PCS Answer Key 2025

The official Punjab PCS Answer Key 2025 for GS Paper 1 and CSAT Paper 2 will be released soon on the PPSC website – ppsc.gov.in. Till then, aspirants can refer to the StudyIQ Expert Answer Key with detailed explanations, prepared by subject specialists to give a clear understanding of each question.

Details	Information
Exam Conducting Body	Punjab Public Service Commission
Exam Name	Punjab PCS Prelims 2025
Exam Date	7 December 2025
Answer Key Release Date	Expected within 3–7 days of exam
Papers	GS Paper 1 & CSAT Paper 2
Total Marks	400
Negative Marking	No
Objection Window	Yes
Official Website	https://ppsc.gov.in/

Punjab PCS Answer Key 2025 with Explanations

In connection with the procedure for amendment to the Constitution, consider the following statements:
An amendment to the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament but not in the state legislatures.
The bill can be introduced only by a minister and does not require prior permission of the President.
Each House must pass the bill separately and in case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is a provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Only one

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: An amendment to the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) and not in the state legislatures.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While the bill does not require the prior permission of the President, it can be introduced by either a minister or a private member. The statement claims it can only be introduced by a minister, which is wrong.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Each House must pass the bill separately by a special majority, and there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses in case of a disagreement (deadlock) over a constitutional amendment bill.

Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List-I (Acts) List-II (Provisions)

Government of India Act, 1858 1. Introduction of bi-cameral legislature for the first time
Indian Councils Act, 1861 2. Complete imperial control by Secretary of State for India
Indian Councils Act, 1909 3. Inclusion of non-official members in the Executive Council of Governor General for the first time
Government of India Act, 1919 4. Separate representation of the Muslim community

Choose the correct option :

A B C D

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 3 2 1 4

(d) 3 4 1 2

Answer: (a) 2 3 4 1

Explanation

A – 2 → Government of India Act, 1858 → Complete imperial control by Secretary of State
B – 3 → Indian Councils Act, 1861 → Inclusion of non-official members in Executive Council
C – 4 → Indian Councils Act, 1909 → Separate electorates for Muslims
D – 1 → Government of India Act, 1919 → First introduction of bicameral legislature

Consider the following statements in connection with the Vice-President of India :
The electoral college of the Vice-President consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament, but not of the state legislative assemblies.
He can only be removed from office through impeachment on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution for his removal.
Before entering upon his office, he makes an oath as mentioned in Schedule III of the Constitution.
He appoints the Deputy Chairperson of the Upper House to act in his absence.
He has a casting vote in case of a tie.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

(a) 1, 3 and 5 only

(b) 1 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 5 only

Explanation:
Statement 1 (Correct): The electoral college consists of all members (elected and nominated) of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha). State Legislative Assemblies are excluded.

Statement 2 (Incorrect): The Vice-President is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Rajya Sabha (effective majority) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha (simple majority). The Constitution does not use the term “impeachment” for the VP and does not list specific grounds for removal, unlike the President.

Statement 3 (Incorrect): The Vice-President’s oath is prescribed in Article 69 of the Constitution. The Third Schedule does not contain the forms of oath for the President, Vice-President, or Governor.

Statement 4 (Incorrect): The Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha is elected by the members of the Rajya Sabha from amongst themselves. The Vice-President (who is the ex-officio Chairman) does not appoint them.

Statement 5 (Correct): As the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the Vice-President has a casting vote (a tie-breaker) in the case of an equality of votes.

In reference to Fundamental Right under Article 20, consider the following statements :
Protection under this right is available only to the citizens of India.
While criminal laws can be imposed retrospectively, civil laws cannot.
The protection against self-incrimination extends to both civil and criminal proceedings.

How many of the above statements are/are incorrect ?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) All three

Statement	Status	Explanation
1. Protection under this right is available only to the citizens of India.	Incorrect	Protection under Article 20 is available to all persons (citizens, foreigners, and legal persons/companies).
2. While criminal laws can be imposed retrospectively, civil laws cannot.	Incorrect	This is the opposite of the constitutional position. Criminal laws cannot be imposed retrospectively (Ex post facto law is prohibited by Article 20(1)), but civil laws (like tax laws) can be imposed retrospectively.
3. The protection against self-incrimination extends to both civil and criminal proceedings.	Incorrect	The protection under Article 20(3) (“No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself”) extends only to criminal proceedings. It does not cover civil or departmental/administrative inquiries.

5.In connection with the Preamble to the Indian Constitution, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Preamble is justiciable.
(b) The Preamble has been amended only twice so far.
(c) The Preamble is not a part of the Constitution, as held by the Supreme Court.
(d) The Preamble embodies the objective of economic justice but not of economic liberty.

Answer: (d) The Preamble embodies the objective of economic justice but not of economic liberty.

Explanation:

(a) The Preamble is justiciable.Incorrect. The Preamble is non-justiciable; it is not directly enforceable in a court of law.
(b) The Preamble has been amended only twice so far.Incorrect. It has been amended only once (42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976).
(c) The Preamble is not a part of the Constitution, as held by the Supreme Court.Incorrect. In KesavanandaBharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
(d) The Preamble embodies the objective of economic justice but not of economic liberty.Correct. The Preamble mentions “Justice, social, economic and political” and “Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.” Economic justice is explicitly named, but economic liberty is not included in the list of liberties.

6.In connection with the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992, consider the following statements:

The Act provides for a three-tier Panchayati Raj system, but states with a population not exceeding 20 lakh may choose not to constitute panchayats at the intermediate level.
All members of panchayats, including chairpersons at intermediate and district levels, are elected directly by the people.
A panchayat constituted after premature dissolution continues for a full five-year term.

Which of the statements given above is or are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 (Correct): The Act mandates a three-tier system, but Article 243B(2) allows states with a population not exceeding 20 lakh to opt out of constituting Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Statement 2 (Incorrect): While all members at all levels are directly elected, the Chairpersons at the intermediate and district levels are elected indirectly by and from amongst the elected members.
Statement 3 (Incorrect): A Panchayat constituted after a premature dissolution shall continue only for the remainder of the period for which the dissolved Panchayat would have continued. It does not continue for a full five-year term (unless the remaining period is six months or less, in which case election is not mandatory).

7.Consider the following statements regarding the G20:

The G20 was founded in 2008 after the global financial crisis.
The G20 does not have a permanent secretariat or staff.
India has hosted the G20 summit twice.

Which of the above statements is or are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 (Incorrect): The G20 was founded in 1999 (as a forum for Finance Ministers/Central Bank Governors) in response to the Asian financial crisis. It was upgraded to the Leaders’ Summit level in 2008 following the global financial crisis.
Statement 2 (Correct): The G20 operates without a permanent secretariat or staff. Continuity is ensured by the Troika (the current, previous, and next presiding countries).
Statement 3 (Incorrect): India hosted the G20 Leaders’ Summit for the first time in 2023.

Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List-I List-II

102nd Amendment Act, 2019 1. A maximum of 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)
103rd Amendment Act, 2019 2. Restored the power of the State Governments to identify Other Backward Classes (OBCs) that are socially and educationally backward
104th Amendment Act, 2020 3. Constitutional status to National Commission for backward classes
105th Amendment Act, 2021 4. Extended the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies for another 10 years up to 2030

Choose the correct code :

A B C D

(a) 3 1 2 4

(b) 3 1 4 2

(d) 1 3 2 4

Answer: (b) 3 1 4 2

Explanation

102nd Amendment Act, 2018 corresponds to 3. Constitutional status to National Commission for backward classes. This amendment inserted Articles 338B and 342A into the Constitution, granting constitutional status to the NCBC.
103rd Amendment Act, 2019 corresponds to 1. A maximum of 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). This amendment inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6) to provide for EWS reservation in educational institutions and government jobs.
104th Amendment Act, 2020 corresponds to 4. Extended the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies for another 10 years up to 2030. This amendment also ceased the reservation of seats for the Anglo-Indian community.
105th Amendment Act, 2021 corresponds to 2. Restore the power of the State Governments to identify Other Backward Classes (OBCs) that are socially and educationally backward. This amendment was enacted to clarify that state governments can maintain their own state lists of socially and educationally backward classes (SEBCs).

Consider the following statements regarding the writ jurisdiction of the Courts :

Statement I : The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is narrower than that of the High Court.

Statement II : The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement Il are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.

(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement Il are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

Explanation:
Statement I: The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is narrower than that of the High Court.

Correct. High Courts (under Article 226) can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rightsand for “any other purpose” (i.e., for the enforcement of an ordinary legal right). The Supreme Court’s power (under Article 32) is limited only to the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. This broader scope makes the High Court’s jurisdiction wider.

Statement II: The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights.

Correct. The power conferred on the Supreme Court by Article 32 is a fundamental right itself, but the scope of the remedy is strictly confined to cases involving the violation of Fundamental Rights.

10.Consider the following statements with reference to the constitutional/statutory provisions on the citizenship of India:

Part II of the Indian Constitution deals with citizenship.
The Constitution provides for only a single citizenship with exceptions to certain bordering states.
The latest amendment to the Citizenship Act, 1955 has relaxed the qualifications for naturalisation for persons belonging to the religious minorities of all the countries bordering India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Articles 5–11 in Part II deal with citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India follows single citizenship for the entire country, with no exceptions for any state.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 relaxes naturalisation requirements only for specific religious minorities from three neighbouring countries—Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan—not all bordering countries (excluding Sri Lanka, Myanmar, China, Nepal, Bhutan).

11.Consider the following statements:

The Constitution does not specify the strength of a High Court.
The Constitution leaves it to the discretion of the respective state legislatures to specify the strength of a High Court.
The judges of a High Court are appointed by the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The Constitution does not prescribe any fixed strength for High Courts.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The strength of a High Court is determined by the President of India, not by state legislatures.
Statement 3 is correct. High Court judges are appointed by the President, after consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the state concerned.

12.”The Naked Triangle” is an autobiography of:
(a) BalrajSahni
(b) BalwantGargi
(c) Jaswant Singh Kanwal
(d) Kartar Singh Duggal

Answer: (b) BalwantGargi

Explanation:
“The Naked Triangle” is the autobiography (or semi-autobiographical novel) of BalwantGargi, a noted Punjabi dramatist and writer. Originally written in Punjabi as NangiDhup, it recounts his personal life, including his experiences in the United States and his relationship with his American wife Jeanne Henry.

Match the following :

List-I List-II

Sunehade1. Bulleh Shah
DilTarang2. Shiv Kumar Batalvi
Loona3. Bhai Vir Singh
Kafian4. Amrita Pritam

Choose the correct code :

A B C D

(a) 4 1 2 3

(b) 2 3 4 1

(d) 2 4 1 3

Answer: (c) 4 3 2 1

Explanation

Sunehade was written by 4. Amrita Pritam. She was the first woman to win the SahityaAkademi Award in 1956 for this long poem.
DilTarang (Oil Tarang in the question text) was written by 3. Bhai Vir Singh.
Loona is an epic verse play by 2. Shiv Kumar Batalvi. He became the youngest recipient of the SahityaAkademi Award for it in 1967.
Kafian refers to the poetic style and collection of poems by the renowned Sufi poet 1. Bulleh Shah

In which magazine did the Nobel Peace Prize awardee Rabindranath Tagore writ several stories and poems on the lives of Sikh Gurus ?

(a) Gitanjali

(b) Jibansmriti

(d) Sadhana

Answer: (c) Balak

Explanation

Rabindranath Tagore wrote several stories and poems on the lives of the Sikh Gurus in the Bengali children’s magazine Balak.
The first of these stories, “KajerLokke” (Who is the Man of Action), about the life of Guru Nanak, was published in Balak in 1885. Other poems and essays, such as “Bandi Veer” (The Prisoner Warrior) about Banda Singh Bahadur, also appeared in this magazine or in other collections like Kathā.

Consider the following statements :
U.N. Mukherji and Lal Chand founded Punjab Hindu Sabha in 1909.
Mangu Ram started the Ad-Dharm Movement in Punjab.
PanditaRamabai started Arya MahilaSamaj in 1882 with the help of the leaders M.G. Ranade and R.G. Bhandarkar.

Which of the above statements are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

U.N. Mukherji and Lal Chand founded Punjab Hindu Sabha in 1909. This statement is correct. The Punjab Hindu Sabha was indeed founded in 1909 by U.N. Mukerji and Lal Chand to safeguard the interests of the Hindu community in the Punjab region amidst rising communal consciousness and the introduction of separate electorates for Muslims.
Mangu Ram started the Ad-Dharmi movement in Punjab. This statement is correct. BabuMangu Ram Mugowalia was the primary founder of the Ad-Dharmi movement (also referred to as the Ad Dharm movement) in Punjab in the 1920s to establish a distinct religious identity for Dalits (untouchables), separate from Hinduism, and to fight for their rights and equality.
PanditaRamabai started Arya MahilaSamaj in 1882 with the help of the leaders M.G. Ranade and R.G. Bhandarkar. This statement is correct. PanditaRamabai founded the Arya MahilaSamaj (Women’s Arya Society) in Pune in 1882, with the objective of improving the condition of women and promoting female education. She had the support of prominent social reformers and leaders of the time, including M.G. Ranade and R.G. Bhandarkar.
Which committee was named the Disorders Inquiry Committee ?

(a) Moti Lal Nehru Committee

(b) Hunter Committee

(d) Sargent Committee

Answer: (b) Hunter Committee

Explanation

The committee officially known as the “Disorders Inquiry Committee” was the Hunter Committee.
The committee was formed by the British Indian government in October 1919 to investigate the 1919 Amritsar massacre (JallianwalaBagh massacre) and the martial law excesses committed in Punjab. It was chaired by Lord William Hunter.

The SahityaAkademi Award, 2024 in Punjabi was given to Pal Kaur for which of the following books?

(a) Mann Di Chip

(b) Bhukh Eon SahLaindi Hai

(d) Sun Gunvanta Sun Budhivanta : Itihaasnama Punjab

Answer: (d) Sun Gunvanta Sun Budhivanta : Itihaasnama Punjab

Explanation

The SahityaAkademi Award 2024 in Punjabi was given to Pal Kaur for her book “Sun Gunvanta Sun Budhivanta (Ithihaasnarna Punjab)”.
The correct option is (d) Sun Gunvanta Sun Budhivanta (Ithihaasnarna Punjab).
This award-winning book is a work of poetry that offers a poetic exploration of Punjab’s history, intertwining its spiritual, Sufi, and Gurmat traditions.

Who was the first President of All India Trade Union Congress?

(a) N.M. Joshi

(b) Ajit Singh

(d) LalaLajpat Rai

Answer: (d) LalaLajpat Rai

Explanation

The first President of the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was LalaLajpat Rai.
The AITUC was founded on October 31, 1920, in Bombay, and LalaLajpat Rai presided over its inaugural session. N.M. Joshi was its first general secretary.

Which of the following Sultanate/Mughal rulers were the contemporaries of Guru Nanak Dev ji ?
Ala-ud-Din Alam Shah
Ibrahim Lodi
Sikandar Lodi
Bahlol Lodi
Humayun
Babur
Akbar

Choose the correct option :

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 only

(b) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only

(d) 3, 5, 6 and 7 only

Answer: (b) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only

Explanation

Guru Nanak Dev Ji lived from 1469 to 1539.

During his lifetime, the following rulers were in power in the Delhi Sultanate and the emerging Mughal Empire:

Ala-ud-Din Alam Shah: Ruled the Sayyid dynasty from 1445 to 1451. He was a contemporary of Guru Nanak’s early years.
Ibrahim Lodi: Ruled the Lodi dynasty from 1517 to 1526. He was defeated by Babur at the First Battle of Panipat in 1526. Guru Nanak was a contemporary of his and the invasion period.
Sikandar Lodi: Ruled the Lodi dynasty from 1489 to 1517. He was a contemporary of Guru Nanak for a significant period.
Bahlol Lodi: Ruled the Lodi dynasty from 1451 to 1489. He was the ruler when Guru Nanak was born (1469) and during his early life.
Humayun: Ruled the Mughal Empire from 1530 to 1540 (first reign) and again from 1555 to 1556. He became emperor before Guru Nanak’s death in 1539.
Babur: Founded the Mughal Empire and ruled from 1526 to 1530. He was a direct contemporary and had an encounter with Guru Nanak.
Akbar: Ruled from 1556 to 1605. He was born in 1542, after Guru Nanak passed away in 1539, so he was not a contemporary of Guru Nanak, but of later Gurus like Guru Amar Das and Guru Arjan Dev.

Match List-I with List-Il and choose the answer from the codes given below :

List-l List-II

Sir Henry Lawrence 1. British resident at Ludhiana before the First

Anglo-Sikh War

Sir John Lawrence 2. British resident at after First Anglo-Sikh War
Lord Hugh Gough 3.British Commander-in-Chief during the Second Anglo-Sikh War
Major Broadfoot 4. The first Chief Commissioner of Punjab

Choose the correct code :

A B C D

(a) 3 2 1 4

(b) 1 3 4 2

(d) 2 4 3 1

Answer: (d) 2 4 3 1

Explanation

Sir Henry Lawrence was the British Resident at Lahore after the First Anglo-Sikh War, appointed under the Treaty of Lahore in March 1846. This matches with option 2.
Sir John Lawrence became the first Chief Commissioner of Punjab in 1853, after the Board of Administration was abolished. This matches with option 4.
Lord Hugh Gough was the British Commander-in-Chief during both the First and Second Anglo-Sikh Wars. This matches with option 3.
Major Broadfoot was the British Political Agent or Agent to the Governor-General, North-West Frontier, based at Ludhiana, before the First Anglo-Sikh War. He was killed at the Battle of Ferozeshah in December 1845. This matches with option 1.

Consider the following statements on ancient history based on archaeological and literary sources :
It is quite likely that the Indus Valley people recognized the importance of the cow for its milk/dairy products and the horse for its agility in warfare.
The Vajapeya sacrifice was performed by the kings in the later Vedic period to bestow divinity on the king.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1 is incorrect: There is no conclusive evidence from archaeological or literary sources that the Indus Valley people recognized the importance of the cow or used horses in warfare. The horse is generally believed to have been introduced later by the Aryans during the Vedic period.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Vajapeya sacrifice was a ritual performed by kings in the later Vedic period, primarily as a ceremony for strength and power, but it did not bestow divinity on the king. The concept of divine kingship was not prevalent in the Vedic period.

Match the following texts with their authors :

Texts Author

Buddhacharita1.Nagasena
Sutralankara2. Ashvaghosha
MilindaPanho3. Nagarjuna
Madhyamika Karika 4. Asanga

Choose the correct code :

A B C D

(a) 2 3 1 4

(b) 1 4 3 2

(d) 2 4 1 3

Answer: (d) 2 4 1 3

Explanation:

The Buddhacharita is an epic poem written by Ashvaghosha about the life of Gautama Buddha.

The Sutralankara (or Mahayanasutralankara) is attributed to Asanga.

The MilindaPanho (Questions of Milinda) is a Buddhist text that records a dialogue between the Indo-Greek King Menander I (Milinda) and the Buddhist monk Nagasena.

The Madhyamika Karika is the fundamental text of the Madhyamaka school of Mahayana Buddhism, written by Nagarjuna.

The correct matching is A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3, which corresponds to option (d).

The decline of the Nanda dynasty at the hands of Chandragupta Maurya and Kautilya has been vividly portrayed in which of the following Sanskrit plays ?

(a) Devichandraguptam

(b) Malavikagnimitram

(d) Mudrarakshasa

Answer: (d) Mudrarakshasa

The play Mudrarakshasa, written by Vishakhadatta, vividly portrays the political intrigues and events that led to the overthrow of the Nanda dynasty by Chandragupta Maurya and his mentor Chanakya (Kautilya). The other options are different Sanskrit plays by other authors focusing on different stories and historical periods.

Which foreign traveller stated that Harshavardhana could not subdue BadamiChalukya’sPulakeshin II ?

(a) Fa-Hien

(b) Hiuen Tsang

(d) Al-Biruni

Answer: (b) Hiuen Tsang

Hiuen Tsang (Xuanzang), a Chinese Buddhist monk and traveller who visited India during Harshavardhana’s reign, mentioned in his accounts that Harsha was defeated by Pulakeshin II when he attempted to invade the Deccan region.

Consider the following statements in the context of medieval historians :
‘Raziya was endowed with all qualities befitting a king, but she was not born of the right sex … ‘ was written by ZiauddinBarani.
“The king was freed from his people and they from their king” was written by Badauni to describe the death of Balban.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

ZiauddinBarani did not write the statement about Raziya Sultan’s qualities. The quote, “Raziya was endowed with all qualities befitting a king, but she was not born of the right sex…”, was written by the chronicler Minhaj-i-Siraj in his work, the Tabaqat-i-Nasiri. Barani’s works primarily covered later periods of the Delhi Sultanate, such as the reigns of Balban through Firuz Shah Tughlaq. The statement, “The king was freed from his people and they from their king”, was written by Badauni (Abdul QadirBadayuni) to describe the death of the eccentric Sultan Muhammad bin Tughlaq, not Balban

Which edict was issued by Akbar to assert his spiritual authority over ulemas ?

(a) Fatwa-i-Alamgiri

(b) Sulh-i-Kul

(d) Mahzar Nama

Answer: (d) Mahzar Nama

The Mahzar Nama (or Declaration of Infallibility) was issued by Akbar in 1579 to assert his supreme spiritual authority over the ulemas (Islamic scholars/clergy). This document established Akbar as the final interpreter of Islamic law in cases of dispute, effectively giving him religious authority alongside his political power. Sulh-i-Kul was a policy of universal peace or tolerance, not a specific edict establishing spiritual authority.

Consider the following statements about ChhatrapatiShivajiMaharaj :
He was coronated at Purandar Fort.
He introduced Sindhudurg naval base to safeguard Maratha coasts.
He employed Ganimi Kava strategy against the Mughals.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. ChhatrapatiShivajiMaharaj was coronated at Raigad Fort, not Purandar Fort.

Statement 2 is correct. He introduced the Sindhudurg naval base to safeguard the Maratha coasts.

Statement 3 is correct. He employed the Ganimi Kava (guerrilla warfare) strategy effectively against the Mughals.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the appointment of Indians to public offices under British rule ?

(a) The Charter Act of 1833 completely eliminated the restrictions on Indians holding high public office.

(b) The system of open competitive examination for public office appointments was introduced in 1853 and reaffirmed in 1858.

(d) Indians could only hold high public offices if they were appointed by the Secretary of State after 1858, with no competitive examination required.

Answer: (a) The system of open competitive examination for public office appointments was introduced in 1853 and reaffirmed in 1858.

Explanation:

Statement (a) is incorrect; while the Charter Act of 1833 aimed for non-discrimination, restrictions remained in practice.

Statement (b) is correct; open competitive examinations were introduced in 1853 and reaffirmed in 1858.

Statement (c) is incorrect; the maximum age for admission to competitive exams fluctuated and was often lowered, creating barriers for Indian candidates.

Statement (d) is incorrect; appointments after 1858 were primarily through the competitive examination system, not solely by the Secretary of State.

Indigo cultivation in India declined by the beginning of the 20th century because of :

(a) Peasant resistance to the oppressive conduct of planters

(b) Its unprofitability in the world market because of new inventions and discoveries

(d) Government control over the planters

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Its unprofitability in the world market because of new inventions and discoveries.

The primary reason for the decline of indigo cultivation in India by the early 20th century was the invention of synthetic indigo dyes in Germany in the late 19th century. This made natural indigo unprofitable in the world market, leading to a significant decrease in demand and cultivation.

What was the significant political move made by Wavell on the instructions by Churchill in June 1945 in anticipation of the British elections ?

(a) He announced complete independence for India.

(b) He permitted Indian leaders to draft a new constitution.

(d) He dissolved the Congress Working Committee.

Answer: (c) He proposed talks for forming a new Executive Council with an Indian majority.

Explanation:

Lord Wavell, the Viceroy of India, proposed the Wavell Plan in June 1945, which included the idea of forming a new Executive Council with an Indian majority, excluding the Viceroy and the Commander-in-Chief. The plan was discussed at the Simla Conference.

What was the primary purpose of the Babington-Smith Committee, appointed in 1919 ?

(a) To investigate British excesses done under the Rowlatt Act

(b) To study the impact of the war on Indian exchange, currency system, and note issue practices

(d) To look into the causes of famine, formulate general principles and suggest measures of preventive and protective character

Answer: (b) To study the impact of the war on Indian exchange, currency system, and note issue practices

Explanation:

The Babington-Smith Committee was appointed to examine the Indian exchange and currency system in the aftermath of World War I and to make recommendations for its future stability

For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) given below, choose the correct alternative from the following :

Assertion (A) : The Quit India Movement of 1942 was the final call for independence by the Indian National Congress during the British rule.

Reason (R) : The movement failed to gain support from the masses, and the British quickly suppressed it with arrests and force, leading to its immediate collapse.

(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.

Answer: (c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.

Explanation

The Quit India Movement of 1942 was launched by the Indian National Congress and was indeed the final and most serious call for independence during the British rule. Thus, Assertion (A) is correct.

However, the Reason (R) is incorrect. The movement actually gained massive support from the Indian masses, involving widespread protests and civil disobedience across the country. While the British did suppress it with force and arrests, the movement did not immediately collapse due to a lack of support; rather, it created significant pressure on the British government and demonstrated the strong desire for independence. Therefore, R is an incorrect statement.

Match the following leaders with their journals :
Bipin Chandra Pal 1. BandeMataram
Aurobindo Ghosh 2. New India
Satish Chandra Mukherjee 3.Bharat Sramajibi
Sasipada Banerji 4. Dawn

Choose the correct code from the following :

A B C D

(a) 2 1 4 3

(b) 2 1 3 4

(d) 4 3 2 1

Answer: (a) 2 1 4 3

Explanation:

Bipin Chandra Pal was the editor of the journal New India.

Aurobindo Ghosh was associated with the publication BandeMataram.

Satish Chandra Mukherjee founded the Dawn Society and its associated journal, Dawn.

Sasipada Banerji started the journal Bharat Sramajibi (Indian Labourer) in 1874.

Consider the following pairs :

Diseases Causative agent

Diphtheria Bacteria
Measles Fungus
Cholera Virus
Kala-azar Protozoan

Which of the above pairs are correctly matohed ?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 1 and 4 only

Explanation:

Diphtheria is caused by bacteria, specifically Corynebacteriumdiphtheriae. This pair is correctly matched.

Measles is caused by a virus (paramyxovirus), not a fungus. This pair is incorrectly matched.

Cholera is caused by bacteria (Vibrio cholerae), not a virus. This pair is incorrectly matched.

Kala-azar (visceral leishmaniasis) is caused by a protozoan parasite (Leishmaniadonovani). This pair is correctly matched.

Consider the following statements regarding soaps :

A soap molecule has a hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic tail.
Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration will show the Tyndall effect.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. A soap molecule has a hydrophilic (water-loving) head, which is the ionic part, and a hydrophobic (water-repelling) tail, which is the long hydrocarbon chain. The statement reverses these properties.

Statement 2 is correct. Above the critical micelle concentration (CMC), soap molecules form micelles, which are large enough to scatter light and thus exhibit the Tyndall effect, a characteristic property of colloidal solutions.

For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) given below, choose the correct alternative from the following:

Assertion (A): Stainless steel is considered a highly corrosion-resistant material.

Reason (R): It contains chromium, which reacts with oxygen in the air to form a protective oxide layer.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false, but R is true.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation:

Stainless steel is an alloy of iron that provides excellent corrosion resistance primarily due to the presence of chromium. When chromium is in contact with oxygen, it forms a natural, passive, and protective layer of chromium oxide on the metal surface. This layer resists further corrosion and keeps the underlying metal from reacting with the environment. Therefore, both the assertion and the reason are correct, and the reason correctly explains the assertion.

Consider the following statements about enzymes:

Enzymes increase the activation energy of a reaction.
Enzymes work at their optimum temperature and pH.
The activity of enzymes cannot be affected by other compounds.
Enzymes need to be used in excess compared to the reagent to catalyse the reaction.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: (a) Only one

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Enzymes are catalysts that increase the rate of reaction by lowering the activation energy.

Statement 2 is correct. Enzymes have specific structures that function optimally within a narrow range of temperature and pH.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The activity of enzymes can be affected by other compounds, such as inhibitors or activators.

Statement 4 is incorrect. As catalysts, enzymes are typically needed in very small or trace amounts because they are not consumed in the reaction.

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Cooking food takes more time in Shimla as compared to Delhi.

Statement II: As altitude increases and atmospheric pressure decreases, the boiling point of water decreases.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I.

(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct because Shimla is at a higher altitude than Delhi, where atmospheric pressure is lower. Lower pressure causes water to boil at a lower temperature, meaning food cooks slower and takes more time.

Statement II is correct; the boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which its vapor pressure equals the surrounding atmospheric pressure. As altitude increases, atmospheric pressure decreases, thus lowering the boiling point of water.

Statement II provides the scientific principle that explains why cooking takes longer at higher altitudes (Statement I).

Two types of devices—the beam balance and the spring balance—are commonly used in shops for measuring. If we take them to the Moon, which of the following will give the same reading for a given object as it does on the Earth?

(a) Only the beam balance

(b) Only the spring balance

(d) Neither of the two balances

Answer: (a) Only the beam balance

Explanation:

A beam balance compares the mass of an object to a known standard mass using a lever principle. The measurement is independent of the local gravitational field strength, as gravity acts on both sides equally. Therefore, its reading remains the same on the Moon as on Earth.

A spring balance, however, measures weight, which is the force of gravity acting on an object (W=m* g). Since the Moon’s gravity is approximately one-sixth of Earth’s gravity, a spring balance would show a much lower reading on the Moon for the same object.

Consider the following :

Torches
Vehicle headlights
Rear-view wing mirrors in vehicles
Shaving mirrors

In which of the above are concave mirrors used ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Concave mirrors are converging mirrors used to focus light or produce magnified images.

Torches and vehicle headlights use concave mirrors to focus light from a bulb into a strong, parallel beam.

Shaving mirrors are concave mirrors that produce a magnified, upright image when held close to the face.

Rear-view wing mirrors in vehicles use convex mirrors to provide a wider field of view, not concave mirrors.

Which of the following products are obtained by anaerobic respiration in plants ?

Lactic acid
Carbon dioxide
Water
Ethanol

Choose the correct option :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer:(b) 2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Anaerobic respiration in plants (also known as alcoholic fermentation) occurs in the absence of oxygen.
In this process, glucose is broken down to produce:
- Ethanol (alcohol)
- Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
- A small amount of energy (ATP)
Lactic acid is produced in animals and some bacteria, not in plants.
Water is produced during aerobic respiration, not anaerobic respiration in plants.

42. All the following vaccines are examples of attenuated or inactivated whole pathogen vaccines, except:

(a) Rabies vaccine
(b) Tetanus vaccine
(c) Oral polio vaccine (OPV)
(d) Hepatitis A vaccine

Answer: (b) Tetanus vaccine

Explanation:
Rabies vaccine, OPV, and Hepatitis A vaccine are all derived from entire pathogens that are either weakened (attenuated) or killed (inactivated).
Tetanus vaccine, however, does not use the whole bacterium. It uses the tetanus toxoid, which is an inactivated form of the toxin produced by the bacteria. Thus, it is a toxoid vaccine, not a whole-pathogen vaccine.

43. When a wave passes from one medium to another, which of the following change?

Velocity
Amplitude
Frequency
Wavelength

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 4 only

Explanation:
The frequency of a wave is determined by the wave source and remains unchanged when moving from one medium to another.
The speed of the wave changes because each medium has different physical properties. As a result of the change in speed, the wavelength must also change.
Amplitude may decrease due to partial reflection or absorption at the boundary, but this is not a guaranteed or universal change.
Hence, only velocity and wavelength definitely change.

44. How many of the above solids exhibit electrical conductivity, malleability and ductility?

Molecular solids
Ionic solids
Covalent network solids
Metallic solids

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: (a) Only one

Explanation:
For a solid to exhibit electrical conductivity, malleability, and ductility simultaneously, it must possess free-moving electrons and non-directional bonding.
Only metallic solids fulfil all three conditions. Their delocalized electrons allow conduction, while metallic bonding allows ions to slide over each other, giving malleability and ductility.
Ionic and molecular solids are non-conductors in solid state and brittle. Covalent network solids are hard and brittle, lacking malleability and ductility.

45. Consider the following statements:

A URL is a web address and its full form is Universal Resource Locator.
A cookie stores information about the user’s web activities such as login sessions, preferences and passwords.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:(d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Explanation:

Statement	Assessment	Explanation
1. A URL is a web address and its full form is Universal Resource Locator.	Incorrect	While a URL is correctly described as a web address, its full form is Uniform Resource Locator. (The term “Universal” was used in earlier drafts but officially changed to “Uniform”).
2. A cookie stores information about the user’s web activities such as login sessions, preferences and passwords.	Incorrect	A cookie stores information like login sessions and preferences (like language or theme). However, it does not typically store plain-text passwords due to major security risks. While it stores a session ID that keeps the user logged in, storing the actual password in a cookie is a severe security vulnerability that is avoided by all reputable websites.

46. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding lithium and alkaline batteries?

(a) Lithium and alkaline batteries are both generally rechargeable.
(b) Alkaline batteries exhibit a gradual decrease in voltage output over time.
(c) Lithium batteries have a lower energy density compared to alkaline batteries.
(d) Lithium batteries do not maintain a consistent voltage output over time.

Answer: (b)

Explanation:
Alkaline batteries typically show a steady and gradual reduction in voltage as they discharge.
Lithium batteries, on the other hand, usually offer higher energy density and maintain a relatively stable voltage for most of their discharge cycle.
Alkaline batteries are usually not rechargeable, but some lithium types are.
Thus, the statement regarding alkaline batteries showing gradual voltage decrease is correct.

47. In the Indian context, consider the following statements regarding ‘marriage’:

Under the Uniform Civil Code in Uttarakhand, the minimum age of marriage for girls has been raised from 18 to 21 years.
The subject of marriage is included in the State List of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:
The Uttarakhand UCC retains the existing national legal age: 18 for women and 21 for men. It does not raise the minimum age for women to 21.
Marriage as a subject falls under the Concurrent List, meaning both Parliament and state legislatures can enact laws on it.
Both statements are therefore incorrect.

48. Consider the following statements regarding the Chandrayaan-4 Mission:

The mission aims to demonstrate major technologies required for docking, landing on the Moon, safely returning to Earth, and collecting and analysing lunar samples.
It is a crucial step towards establishing India’s capabilities for a human mission to the Moon, targeted for the year 2045.
The total fund requirement for the technology demonstration under the mission is approximately ₹10,000 crore.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Only one

Explanation:
Chandrayan-4 is intended to be a sample-return mission demonstrating critical technologies such as lunar landing, ascent, docking in lunar orbit, and sample return to Earth. This makes statement 1 correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect because India’s long-term lunar human mission roadmap refers broadly to the 2040s, not specifically 2045. UPSC treats such specificity as incorrect.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the approved funding level is far below ₹10,000 crore.

Therefore, only one statement is correct.

49. Consider the following statements:

A city must demonstrate strong and sustained commitment to culture and creativity for sustainable urban development to be designated a ‘Creative City’.
The UNWTO Creative Cities Network supports the Sustainable Development Goal 11.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

This commitment to leveraging culture and creativity as strategic enablers for sustainable urban development is the core criterion for being designated a UNESCO Creative City.
It is true, but it is important to note that it is the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN), not UNWTO, that directly supports Sustainable Development Goal 11. The UNWTO (World Tourism Organization) supports all the SDGs, including Goal 11, through sustainable tourism initiatives, but the specific Creative Cities program belongs to UNESCO.

Consider the following statements :

According to the United Nations World Tourism Organisation (UNWTO), a city must demonstrate a strong and sustained commitment to leveraging culture and creativity for sustainable urban development to be designated a ‘Creative City’.
The UNWTO Creative Cities Network supports the Sustainable Development Goal 11.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Kozhikode’ (Calicut) :

It is the first city in India to be designated a City of Literature by UNESCO under its Creative Cities Network.
The UNESCO Creative Cities Network supports the Sustainable Development Goal 11.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (d) Neither 1 nor 2. (Both statements are actually correct, so neither is incorrect).

Explanation:

The statement itself is correct. Kozhikode (Calicut) was designated as a City of Literature by UNESCO under the UCCN on October 31, 2023, making it the first city in India to receive this specific designation.
- Note: Gwalior was also designated as a ‘City of Music’ at the same time.
The statement itself is correct. As confirmed in Q. 49, the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) supports Sustainable Development Goal 11.

Consider the following statements:

Nafithromycin is India’s first indigenously developed antibiotic aimed at tackling Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR).
It has been developed by Wockhardt with support from BIRAC and is marketed with the trade name “Miqnaf”.
It is intended for the treatment of Community-Acquired Bacterial Pneumonia (CABP).

How many of the above statements is/are correct ?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c) All three

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:Nafithromycin is reported as India’s first indigenously developed antibiotic molecule, aimed at combating Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR).

Statement 2 is correct: It has been developed by Wockhardt in collaboration with the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), which includes support from the Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC). It is marketed under the trade name Miqnaf.

Statement 3 is correct:Nafithromycin is intended for the treatment of Community-Acquired Bacterial Pneumonia (CABP).

Consider the following languages :

Assamese
Pali
Gujarati
Marathi
Odia

How many of the above languages have been declared as ‘Classical Languages’ by the Government of India ?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All five

Ans. (c) Only four.

Explanation:

The Government of India has conferred ‘Classical Language’ status to eleven languages as of late 2024 (Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, Odia, Assamese, Bengali, Marathi, Pali, and Prakrit).

Out of the languages listed:

Assamese: Declared a Classical Language (October 2024).
Pali: Declared a Classical Language (October 2024).
Gujarati:Not declared a Classical Language.
Marathi: Declared a Classical Language (October 2024).
Odia: Declared a Classical Language (2014).

Therefore, four of the above languages (Assamese, Pali, Marathi, and Odia) have been declared as Classical Languages.

Consider the following statements regarding the Union Budget Estimates for 2025-26 :

The total expenditure is estimated at ₹ 47,65,768 crore, with receipts (other than borrowing) estimated at ₹ 31,34,320 crore.
The Revised Estimates for 2024-25 placed the Fiscal Deficit at 5.8% of GDP.
The Net Tax Receipts for 2025-26 are estimated to be 11.4% higher than the Revised Estimates of 2024-25.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (c) 2 and 3.

Union Budget Estimates for 2025-26

Statement	Figure in Prompt	Official/Reported Figure (BE 2025-26)	Status	Explanation
1. Total Expenditure / Receipts	Total Expenditure: ₹ 47,65,768 crore Receipts (other than borrowing): ₹ 31,34,320 crore	Total Expenditure (BE 2025-26): ₹ 50,65,345 crore Receipts (other than borrowing) (BE 2025-26): ₹ 34,96,409 crore	Incorrect (The figures are approximations/simplified/from a different context—the official Budget Estimates are higher).	Total Expenditure is estimated at ₹ 50.65 lakh crore and Receipts (other than borrowing) at ₹ 34.96 lakh crore.
2. Revised Estimates Fiscal Deficit	The Revised Estimates for 2024-25 placed the Fiscal Deficit at 5.8% of GDP.	Revised Estimates (RE) for 2024-25 Fiscal Deficit: 4.8% of GDP	Incorrect (The RE for FY 2024-25 was 4.8% of GDP, not 5.8%).	The government successfully contained the Fiscal Deficit in the Revised Estimates (RE) for 2024-25 at 4.8% of GDP.
3. Net Tax Receipts Growth	The Net Tax Receipts for 2025-26 are estimated to be 11.4% higher than the Revised Estimates of 2024-25.	Net Tax Receipts Growth (BE 2025-26 vs RE 2024-25): 11.0% (approx. 11.4% using the figures in the search results).	Correct (This is the closest to the official estimates).	The estimated growth in Net Tax Receipts for 2025-26 over the 2024-25 Revised Estimates is officially reported as being around 11.0% to 11.4%.

Which of the following apps has been launched by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to enable retail investors to directly participate in the Government Securities (G-Sec) market?

(a) RBIDATA

(b) RBI DigiSec

(d) RBI Retail Direct

Ans. (d) RBI Retail Direct.

Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched the RBI Retail Direct Scheme and its corresponding app, RBI Retail Direct, to provide retail investors (individuals) a one-stop access to directly invest in the primary and secondary Government Securities (G-Sec) market.

Consider the following statements regarding the Hurun Global Unicom Index, 2024:

India ranked third in the global unicorn count.
India’s Zomato features among the top-20 most valuable unicorns in the world,
Indian founders have created more offshore unicorns than any other country.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (b) 1 and 3 only.

Statement 1 is correct: In the Hurun Global Unicorn Index 2024, India ranked third in the global unicorn count (with 67 unicorns), following the United States (703) and China (340).
Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the 2024 index, India’s most valuable unicorns were Swiggy and Dream11 (each valued at $8 billion). While Zomato is a prominent Indian company, it was not listed among the top-20 most valuable unicorns in the world in that report.
Statement 3 is correct: The report highlighted that Indian founders have created the highest number of unicorns outside of India (“offshore unicorns”) compared to founders from any other country, mostly in the USA.

For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) given below, choose the correct alternative from the following:

Assertion (A): The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology recently launched BharatGen as a pioneering initiative in generative Artificial Intelligence (Al).

Reason (R): By developing Al technologies within India, BharatGen aims not only to reduce reliance on foreign technologies but also to create efficient and inclusive Al solutions in various Indian languages.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false, but R is true.

Ans. (d) A is false, but R is true.

Explanation:

Assertion (A): The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology recently launched BharatGen as a pioneering initiative in generative Artificial Intelligence (AI).
- Assessment: False. The Government of India’s major initiative for developing Generative AI (along with other AI solutions) is IndiaAI Mission. While there may be related initiatives, BharatGen has not been officially launched or widely recognized as the primary flagship generative AI initiative by MeitY.
Reason (R): By developing AI technologies within India, BharatGen aims not only to reduce reliance on foreign technologies but also to create efficient and inclusive AI solutions in various Indian languages.

Consider the following statements about Zorawar’:

It is an advanced 25-tonne light tank.

It is jointly developed by DRDO and Larsen & Toubro.

It is designed to operate in high-altitude regions such as Ladakh and the Northeast.

It can be transported by road, rail, ship and aircraft.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1. 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (b) 1, 3 and 4 only.

Explanation:

Statement	Assessment	Explanation
1. It is an advanced 25-tonne light tank.	Correct	The Zorawar is indeed a 25-tonne Light Tank. Its lightweight design is crucial for high-altitude mobility and transportability.
2. It is jointly developed by DRDO and Larsen & Toubro.	Incorrect	The Zorawar is being developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) in partnership with Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL), not Larsen & Toubro.
3. It is designed to operate in high-altitude regions such as Ladakh and the Northeast.	Correct	Its primary operational requirement is to counter threats along the border, particularly in the mountainous high-altitude regions of Ladakh and the challenging terrain of the Northeast.
4. It can be transported by road, rail, ship and aircraft.	Correct	Its lightweight nature (25 tonnes) makes it easily transportable by various means, including the C-17 Globemaster and other large transport aircraft, which is a major advantage for rapid deployment.

GambusiaAffinis and PoeciliaReticulata recently seen in the news, are species of which of the following?

(a) Birds

(b) Insects

(d) Fish

Ans. (d) Fish.

Explanation:

Gambusiaaffinis is commonly known as the Mosquitofish.
Poeciliareticulata is commonly known as the Guppy.

These fish are often used in biological control programs to combat mosquito-borne diseases like Dengue, Chikungunya, and Malaria, as they feed voraciously on mosquito larvae.

Consider the following statements regarding the Similipal Tiger Reserve:

It was recently notified as Odisha’s third national park, after Bhitarkanika and

Satkosia.

It is a part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves.

It is the world’s only known habitat of wild melanistic tigers.

It is the first reserve in India where the TrailGuard Al system has shown success as an anti-poaching tool.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Ans. (c) 2, 3 and 4 only.

Explanation:

Statement	Assessment	Explanation
1. It was recently notified as Odisha’s third national park, after Bhitarkanika and Satkosia.	Incorrect	Similipal was declared a National Park in 1980. It was not recently notified. Also, Satkosia is a Tiger Reserve and Wildlife Sanctuary, not a National Park.
2. It is a part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves.	Correct	Similipal was designated a Biosphere Reserve in 1994 and was included in the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves in 2009.
3. It is the world’s only known habitat of wild melanistic tigers.	Correct	Similipal is famous for its unique population of melanistic (black) tigers, which have thick black stripes on a white or tawny background, a genetic anomaly often referred to as “pseudo-melanism.” This is the only place in the world where these tigers are observed in the wild.
4. It is the first reserve in India where the TrailGuard AI system has shown success as an anti-poaching tool.	Correct	Similipal Tiger Reserve was one of the first in India to successfully implement the TrailGuard AI anti-poaching system. This system uses hidden cameras combined with Artificial Intelligence to detect intruders in real-time and alert enforcement teams.

Consider the following statements regarding chess titles and recent developments:

The winner of the World Chess Championship is accorded the title of Grandmaster.

Once awarded, the title of Grandmaster is generally held for life.

GukeshDommaraju became the youngest World Chess Champion by defeating Ding Liren of China in the 2024 FIDE World Chess Championship.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b) Only two.

Explanation:

Statement	Assessment	Explanation
1. The winner of the World Chess Championship is accorded the title of Grandmaster.	Incorrect	The winner of the World Chess Championship is titled World Chess Champion. They would almost certainly have already achieved the Grandmaster (GM) title years earlier, as GM is a prerequisite for competing at that level. The GM title is awarded for achieving certain rating and tournament norms.
2. Once awarded, the title of Grandmaster is generally held for life.	Correct	The title of Grandmaster, along with other FIDE titles (IM, FM, etc.), is generally awarded for life and remains with the player unless it is revoked for severe ethical violations.
3. GukeshDommaraju became the youngest World Chess Champion by defeating Ding Liren of China in the 2024 FIDE World Chess Championship.	Correct	Gukesh D (DommarajuGukesh) won the 2024 FIDE World Chess Championship by defeating the incumbent champion, Ding Liren of China. At the age of 18, Gukesh broke the previous record held by Garry Kasparov to become the youngest undisputed World Chess Champion in history.

With reference to the concept statements:

Microfinance focuses exclusively on the provision of microcredit facilities to low-income groups, and excludes insurance and savings.

The thrust of the microfinance initiative is to channelize production and consumption credit in multiple doses based on the absorption capacity of the prospective borrower.

It has evolved from ‘charity-based to thrift-based and finally to ‘trust and creditworthiness model’

India has adopted the concept of microfinance from Bangladesh.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Ans. (b) Only two.

Explanation:

Statement	Assessment	Explanation
1. Microfinance focuses exclusively on the provision of microcredit facilities to low-income groups, and excludes insurance and savings.	Incorrect	Microfinance is a much broader concept than just microcredit. It typically includes a range of financial services such as micro-savings, micro-insurance, and money transfers, in addition to micro-loans (microcredit).
2. The thrust of the microfinance initiative is to channelize production and consumption credit in multiple doses based on the absorption capacity of the prospective borrower.	Correct	A core principle of successful microfinance is providing small, repeated loans (multiple doses) that align with the borrower’s ability to use the funds productively and repay them (absorption capacity). This is often done to help the borrower scale up their micro-enterprise over time.
3. It has evolved from ‘charity-based to thrift-based and finally to ‘trust and creditworthiness model’	Correct	The evolution is generally characterized by a shift from purely charity/welfare-basedmodels (early phase) to models centered on mandatory thrift/savings (thrift-based) as a precondition for loans, and finally to modern models that leverage group pressure/social collateral to build trust and creditworthiness for repayment.
4. India has adopted the concept of microfinance from Bangladesh.	Incorrect	While the Grameen Bank model pioneered by Nobel Laureate Muhammad Yunus in Bangladesh heavily influenced global microfinance, India did not adopt the concept but rather adapted it and developed its own robust models, primarily through the Self-Help Group-Bank Linkage Programme (SHG-BLP), which predates the large-scale adaptation of the Grameen model in India.

Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

With reference to the India’s Five-Year Plans, how many of the following statements given below are correct?

The Second Five-Year Plan focused on rapid industrialization through heavy and basic industries.

The largest contributor to investment in independent India’s early growth experience (i.e., during the first three Five-Year Plans) was ‘Domestic Savings’.

The main objectives of the Fourth Five-Year Plan were the removal of poverty and the attainment of self-reliance.

The Eighth Five-Year Plan was Implemented after the economic liberalisation in India.

The Tenth Five-Year Plan marked a shift in the planning paradigm by stating in its preface that “The Plan is indicative in nature”.

Select the correct answer using the options given below:

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All five

Ans. (a) Only two

India’s Five-Year Plans:

Statement	Assessment	Explanation
1. The Second Five-Year Plan focused on rapid industrialization through heavy and basic industries.	Correct	This plan (1956–1961) was based on the Mahalanobis Model and explicitly aimed at rapid industrialisation with a focus on heavy and basic capital goods industries(e.g., steel, coal, power).
2. The largest contributor to investment in independent India’s early growth experience (i.e., during the first three Five-Year Plans) was ‘Domestic Savings’.	Incorrect	Even in the initial years, domestic resources, primarily household savings, formed the largest share of investment and plan financing, with foreign aid and deficit financing playing a supplementary, though important, role.
3. The main objectives of the Fourth Five-Year Plan were the removal of poverty and the attainment of self-reliance.	Incorrect	The main objectives of the Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969–1974) were “Growth with Stability and progressive achievement of Self-Reliance.” The goal of GaribiHatao(Removal of Poverty) was the main objective of the Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974–1979).
4. The Eighth Five-Year Plan was Implemented after the economic liberalisation in India.	Correct	The Eighth Five-Year Plan (1992–1997) was implemented after the 1991 economic reforms (liberalisation, privatisation, and globalisation – LPG reforms).
5. The Tenth Five-Year Plan marked a shift in the planning paradigm by stating in its preface that “The Plan is indicative in nature”.	Incorrect	The shift to ‘indicative planning’—where the state guides rather than controls—happened well before the Tenth Plan. The Eighth Five-Year Plan (1992-1997), following the 1991 reforms, is widely credited with establishing the shift to a more indicative approach. However, by the time of the Tenth Plan (2002–2007), indicative planning had become the standard approach, and plan documents of the post-reform era, including the Tenth Plan, confirm this nature. Indicative planning means the Plan sets broad goals for the private sector but only sets firm targets for the public sector.

Several Finance Commissions have recommended the establishment of an independent Fiscal Council in India. In this context, which of the following are the potential benefits of setting up sucht a council?

Assessing and monitoring fiscal policy

Effective implementation of fiscal rules and strengthening of fiscal performance

Better coordination between the centre and the states, and the consistency of the fiscal targets across levels of government

Enhanced accountability to the Legislatures and the public at large in calibrating fiscal policies

Select the correct answer using the options given below:

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer is (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4.

All the listed statements represent potential benefits of establishing an independent Fiscal Council in India, which has been recommended by several Finance Commissions (e.g., 13th, 14th, 15th FCs).

Assessing and monitoring fiscal policy: A Fiscal Council would provide independent, non-partisan analysis of the government’s fiscal policy, projections, and adherence to targets, thereby enhancing transparency.
Effective implementation of fiscal rules and strengthening of fiscal performance:The Council would be instrumental in monitoring compliance with the fiscal rules set under the FRBM Act (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act), leading to better fiscal discipline and performance.
Better coordination between the centre and the states, and the consistency of the fiscal targets across levels of government: By offering a common, objective assessment and working within a unified framework, the Council can help harmonize fiscal efforts between the Union and State governments.
Enhanced accountability to the Legislatures and the public at large in calibrating fiscal policies: Its independent reports and assessments would provide Legislators and the public with a clear, unbiased view of the government’s fiscal health, forcing the executive to be more accountable for its policies.

With reference to the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, consider the following statements:

The GST Council is a constitutional body constituted under Article 279A of the Indian Constitution.
It is chaired by the Prime Minister
The Revenue Secretary acts as the ex-officio Secretary to the GST Council.
The recommendations of the GST Council are binding on the union and state governments.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans. (a) 1 and 3 only.

Explanation:

Statement	Assessment	Explanation
1. The GST Council is a constitutional body constituted under Article 279A of the Indian Constitution.	Correct	The GST Council was constituted by the President of India under Article 279A, which was introduced by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016. It is the first constitutional federal body empowered to make major decisions related to GST.
2. It is chaired by the Prime Minister	Incorrect	The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister, not the Prime Minister.
3. The Revenue Secretary acts as the ex-officio Secretary to the GST Council.	Correct	The Secretary (Revenue) in the Ministry of Finance is the ex-officio Secretary to the GST Council Secretariat.
4. The recommendations of the GST Council are binding on the union and state governments.	Incorrect	The recommendations are not legally bindingon the Union and State governments. The Supreme Court of India, in the Mohit Minerals case (2022), clarified that the recommendations have only a persuasive value and are the product of a collaborative dialogue, upholding the principle of fiscal federalism.

Consider the following statements as per NITI Aayog’s ‘Multidimensional Poverty in India since 2005-06’ report:

Multidimensional poverty in India declined significantly between 2013-14 and 2022-23, with more than 24 crore people escaping poverty during this period.

indicators of Multidimensional Poverty Index showed a remarkable improvement during this period.

Bihar registered the largest decline in the number of multidimensional poor followed by Odisha.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (a) 1 and 2 only.

The statements are based on NITI Aayog’s Discussion Paper, “Multidimensional Poverty in India since 2005-06,” published in January 2024 (based on NFHS-4 (2015-16) and extrapolated data for 2022-23).

Explanation:

Statement	Assessment	Explanation
1. Multidimensional poverty in India declined significantly between 2013-14 and 2022-23, with more than 24 crore people escaping poverty during this period.	Correct	The report states that approximately 24.82 crore people escaped multidimensional poverty in India between 2013-14 and 2022-23. The poverty headcount ratio declined from 29.17% to 11.28%.
2. All 12 indicators of Multidimensional Poverty Index showed a remarkable improvement during this period.	Correct	The report explicitly mentions that all 12 indicators of the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)—which cover Health, Education, and Standard of Living—have shown significant improvement during the 2013-14 to 2022-23 period.
3. Bihar registered the largest decline in the number of multidimensional poor followed by Odisha.	Incorrect	In terms of the largest decline in the number of people who escaped multidimensional poverty (2013-14 to 2022-23), the states were ranked as follows: 1st – Uttar Pradesh (5.94 crore), followed by 2nd – Bihar (3.77 crore), and 3rd – Madhya Pradesh (2.30 crore). Odisha was ranked 7th.

With reference to the National Food Secunty Act, 2013, which of the following statements is/are correct?

The Central Government is responsible for the procurement of food grains, Identification of beneficiaries and issuance of ration cards.

In Chandigarh, Puducherry and Madhya Pradesh, the Act is implemented in the cash transfer mode, under which food subsidy is transferred directly Into the bank accounts of beneficiaries.

The eldest woman of the household, (aged 18 years or above, is mandated to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing ration cards under the Act.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (c) 3 only.

Explanation:

Statement	Assessment	Explanation
1. The Central Government is responsible for the procurement of food grains, identification of beneficiaries and issuance of ration cards.	Incorrect	While the Central Government is primarily responsible for the procurement (through FCI) and allocation of food grains to the States/UTs, the Identification of beneficiariesand issuance of ration cards is the responsibility of the State/UT Governments.
2. In Chandigarh, Puducherry and Madhya Pradesh, the Act is implemented in the cash transfer mode…	Incorrect	The Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) or Cash Transfer mode of the food subsidy is implemented in a few Union Territories like Chandigarh, Puducherry, and the Andaman & Nicobar Islands, replacing the distribution of physical food grains. Madhya Pradeshdoes not implement the NFSA in the cash transfer mode; it uses the traditional PDS distribution system.
3. The eldest woman of the household, aged 18 years or above, is mandated to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing ration cards under the Act.	Correct	Section 13 of the NFSA specifically mandates that the eldest woman who is 18 years or more in the eligible household shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing the ration card. This is a measure for women’s empowerment.

Consider the following statements regarding the eligibility criteria for recognition as a startup under the Startup India Initiative:

An entity shall be considered as a startup up to a period of 10 years from the date of its incorporation.

The entity’s tumover should not have exceeded 1000 crores in any financial year since its incorporation.

An entity formed by splitting up or readinstruction of an existing business is eligible to be considered as a startup.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (a) 1 only.

Explanation:

Statement	Assessment	Explanation
1. An entity shall be considered as a startup up to a period of 10 years from the date of its incorporation.	Correct	An entity is considered a startup for up to 10 years from the date of its incorporation/registration.
2. The entity’s turnover should not have exceeded $\mathbf{1000}$ crores in any financial year since its incorporation.	Incorrect	The turnover of the entity for any financial year since incorporation should not have exceeded $\mathbf{100}$ crores, not $\mathbf{1000}$ crores.
3. An entity formed by splitting up or reconstruction of an existing business is eligible to be considered as a startup.	Incorrect	The entity must be a newly incorporated/registered private limited company or a partnership firm or a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP). An entity formed by splitting up or reconstruction of an existing business is NOT eligible to be considered a startup.

What is the primary objective of the Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme, Introduced in the Union Budget 2024-25?

(a) Enhancing direct wige subsidies in rural entrepreneurship to promote employment

(b) Increasing employability by facilitating skill development through financial support to Industrial training institutes and apprenticeships

(d) Extencing concessional credit to MSMEs to boost employment in manufacturing sector C

Ans : (c) Providing incentives for employers hiring first-time formal sector workers and supporting their EPFO contributions.

The scheme is proposed to incentivize employers, particularly in the organized sector, to expand their employment base.
It aims to formalize employment by providing subsidies on the employer’s contribution to the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) for new employees who are entering the formal workforce for the first time.
This is intended to encourage the shift from informal to formal sector employment and provide social security benefits to a larger segment of the workforce.

How many of the following measures are likely to lead to an increase in the money supply in India?

Expansion of credit operations by commercial banks

Borrowing by the Government of India from the RBI

Sale of government securities to the public by the RBI

Increase in the repo rate by the REBI

Increase in the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate by the RBI

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All five

Ans. (a) Only two.

Money supply (M3) generally increases when money enters the hands of the public (households and firms) or when the commercial banking system’s ability to create credit expands.

Measure	Effect on Money Supply	Explanation
1. Expansion of credit operations by commercial banks	Increase	When commercial banks lend more (expand credit), they create deposits, which is the largest component of the money supply in the economy. This is known as the money multiplier effect.
2. Borrowing by the Government of India from the RBI	Increase	This is equivalent to deficit financing. The RBI issues new currency (or credits the government’s account), injecting new high-powered money into the economy, thus increasing the money supply.
3. Sale of government securities to the public by the RBI	Decrease	When the RBI sells securities, the public pays for them using money from their bank accounts. This reduces the public’s deposits and effectively absorbs liquidity (money) from the banking system.
4. Increase in the repo rate by the RBI	Decrease	An increase in the repo rate makes borrowing more expensive for commercial banks. This discourages banks from borrowing and reduces their ability to lend, thus contracting credit expansion and decreasing the money supply.
5. Increase in the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) rate by the RBI	Decrease	An increase in the MSF rate makes emergency borrowing by banks more expensive. This, like the repo rate, is a measure to tighten monetary policyand discourage bank lending, thus leading to a decrease in the money supply.

Which of the following best defines the concept of “Challenger Banks”?

(a) Systemically important benks that are subject to enhanced regulatory scrutiny due to their size and interconnectedness

(b) Digitally-driven small banking institutions that aim to disrupt traditional banking models througih technology and innovation

(c) Large sized Non-Banking Financial Companies which compete with traditional banks to provide financial services like loans, investments, etc.

(d) Traditional commercial banks that undergo restructuring to reduce non-performing assets and improve efficiency

Ans.. Defining “Challenger Banks”

The concept of “Challenger Banks” is best defined by (b) Digitally-driven small banking institutions that aim to disrupt traditional banking models through technology and innovation.

Challenger Banks are relatively new, smaller banks that primarily operate digitally(often without physical branches).
They are called “challengers” because they use technology (FinTech) to challenge the dominance and often outdated processes of large, established, traditional banks.
They focus on providing a superior, highly personalized, and low-cost user experience, particularly through mobile apps.
The term is often used interchangeably with Neobanks (though Neobanks may or may not hold a full banking license, while Challenger Banks generally do).

Which of the following is not a government initiative related to school education?

(a) PM-SHR1

(b) VidyaPravesh

(d) Vidyanjali

Ans. (c) Vidya Guru.

(a) PM-SHRI (PM Schools for Rising India): A centrally sponsored scheme to upgrade and develop over 14,500 schools across India into model schools that implement the National Education Policy 2020.
(b) VidyaPravesh: A three-month play-based school preparation module for Class 1 students, part of the National Education Policy 2020 (NEP 2020).
(c) Vidya Guru: This term is not an official, major government scheme or initiative for school education.
(d) Vidyanjali: An initiative to strengthen schools through community and private sector involvement, allowing volunteers to contribute to government schools.

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: According to Bergmann’s Rule, birds and mammals in colder regions tend to be significantly larger in body size than their conspecifics inhabiting warmer regions.

Statement II: A smaller surface area-to-volume ratio enables them to lose less heat to their environment compared to smaller animals, which have a larger surfac area-to-volume ratio.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement L

(b) Both Statement i and Statement are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

Ans. (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

Statement I (Correct): Bergmann’s Rule is an ecogeographical rule that states that within a species or genus, the body size of endotherms (mammals and birds) tends to be larger in colder climates (high latitudes) than in warmer climates.
Statement II (Correct Explanation): The reason for this rule lies in the physics of heat exchange. A larger body has a smaller surface area-to-volume ratiocompared to a smaller body. Heat loss occurs primarily through the surface area. Therefore, a larger body loses heat less rapidly per unit of mass, which is advantageous for survival in cold environments.

Which of the following chemicals is used in cloud seeding to enhance rainfall?

(a) Silver iodide

(b) Magnesium nitrate

(d) Diphenyl carbazide

Ans. (a) Silver iodide.

Cloud seeding is a type of weather modification that aims to change the amount or type of precipitation that falls from clouds.
Silver iodide ($\text{AgI}$) is the most common chemical used because its crystal structure is similar to that of ice, acting as an effective ice nucleating agent. When dispersed into supercooled clouds, it prompts the formation of ice crystals, which then grow and fall as rain or snow.

Consider the following statements

The Nagoya Protocol was adopted in 2010 with the objective of ensuring access to genetic resources and the far and equitable sharing of benefits arising from ther use.

After the nanfication of the Nageya Protocol, the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in India to fulfil the obligations of the Protocol

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a) 1 only.

Explanation:

Statement	Assessment	Explanation
1. The Nagoya Protocol was adopted in 2010 with the objective of ensuring access to genetic resources and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from their use.	Correct	The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization (ABS) was adopted in Nagoya, Japan, in 2010. It is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
2. After the ratification of the Nagoya Protocol, the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in India to fulfil the obligations of the Protocol.	Incorrect	The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)was established by the Central Government in 2003 under Section 8 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. This was well before the adoption of the Nagoya Protocol (2010) and was mandated by India’s obligations under the CBD (which was ratified in 1993), not the Nagoya Protocol itself. The NBA later helped implement the Protocol’s provisions.

Consider the following pairs of Tiger Reserves and the States where they are located:
Satpura Tiger Reserve – Madhya Pradesh
Bandipur Tiger Reserve – Karnataka
Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve – Madhya Pradesh
Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve – Tamil Nadu

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs

Explanation:

Pair	Tiger Reserve	State	Assessment	Explanation
1	Satpura Tiger Reserve	Madhya Pradesh	Correct	The Satpura Tiger Reserve is located in the Madhya Pradeshstate.
2	Bandipur Tiger Reserve	Kamalaka	Correct	The Bandipur Tiger Reserve is located in the state of Karnataka(spelled as ‘Kamalaka’ but clearly intended to be Karnataka).
3	Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve	Madhya Pradesh	Correct	Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve is a well-known reserve located in Madhya Pradesh.
4	SathyamangalamTiger Reserve	Tamil Nadu	Correct	Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve is located in the Erode district of Tamil Nadu.

Therefore, all 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched.

Match the following layers of the atmosphere with their characteristics:

Layers Characteristics

Stratosphere 1. Characterized by high temperatures due to absorption of high-energy solar radiation
Mesosphere2. Region where photoionization occurs
Thermosphere3. Characterized by temperature increase with altitude, limiting vertical mixing
Ionosphere4. Characterized by temperature decrease with altitude; coldest part of the atmosphere

Choose the correct code:

A	B	C	D
(a) 1	2	3	4
(b) 3	4	1	2
(c) 1	4	3	2
(d) 3	1	4	2

Ans. (b) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Layer	Code	Characteristic	Explanation
A. Stratosphere	3	Characterized by temperature increases with altitude, leading to a layer in which vertical mixing is limited.	The presence of the Ozone Layer causes the temperature to increase with height, leading to atmospheric stability and minimal vertical mixing (convection).
B. Mesosphere	4	Characterized by temperature decreases with altitude, leading to the coldest place within the Earth system.	The temperature drops significantly, reaching the lowest point (mesopause) in the atmosphere
C. Thermosphere	1	Characterized by high temperatures as a result of absorption of high energy solar radiation by gases.	Gases absorb high-energy X-rays and UV radiation, causing temperatures to rise rapidly with altitude (though the air density is extremely low).
D. Ionosphere	2	A region where photoionization primarily occurs.	The Ionosphere is the part of the thermosphere and upper mesosphere where solar and cosmic radiation ionize gas atoms and molecules, creating a layer of free electrons and ions. This region is critical for radio communication.

Consider the following Greenhouse Gases:
Methane (CH₄)
Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
Nitric oxide (NO)
Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs)
Perfluorocarbons (PFCs)
Sulphur hexafluoride (SF₆)

Which of the above are greenhouse gases?

(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Answer: (a) 1, 2, 5 and 6

A greenhouse gas is a gas that absorbs and emits infrared radiation, contributing to the greenhouse effect and global warming.

Among the given list, all are greenhouse gases except Nitric oxide (NO).

Explanation:

Gas-by-Gas Review

No.	Gas	Formula	GHG Status	Notes
1	Methane	CH₄	GHG	High GWP (~28–34). Major contributor from agriculture, landfills.
2	Carbon dioxide	CO₂	GHG	Largest share of anthropogenic warming.
3	Nitric oxide	NO	Not a GHG	Short-lived pollutant. N₂O, not NO, is the GHG.
4	Hydrochlorofluorocarbons	HCFCs	Not a full GHG	Potent GHGs + ozone-depleting substances.
5	Perfluorocarbons	PFCs	GHG	Extremely high GWP and long lifetime.
6	Sulphur hexafluoride	SF₆	GHG	Highest known GWP (~23,500). Very long-lived.

Match the following Biosphere Reserves with their Key Fauna:

Biosphere Reserve

Nilgiris
B. Nanda Devi
C. Manas
D. Seshachalam Hills

Fauna

Golden Gecko
Golden Langur
Musk Deer
Lion-tailed Macaque

Choose the correct code:

A	B	C	D
(a) 2	3	4	1
(b) 1	3	2	4
(c) 4	3	2	1
(d) 4	1	2	3

Ans. (c) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Biosphere Reserve	Code	Key Fauna	Explanation
A. Nilgiris	4	Lion-tailed Macaque	The Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve (which includes parts of Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu) is the primary habitat for the highly endangered Lion-tailed Macaque, an endemic primate of the Western Ghats.
B. Nanda Devi	3	Musk Deer	The Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, located in the Himalayas (Uttarakhand), is home to high-altitude species like the Musk Deer and the Snow Leopard.
C. Manas	2	Golden Langur	The Manas Biosphere Reserve (Assam) is renowned for being the habitat of the Golden Langur, which is found only in a small region along the border of India and Bhutan.
D. SeshachalamHills	1	Golden Gecko	The Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve (Andhra Pradesh) is known for its endemic fauna, including the Slender Loris and the critically endangered, endemic Golden Gecko (Calodactylodes aureus).

Which of the following states is the leading producer of diamonds in India?

(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Gujarat
(d) Karnataka

Ans. (a) Madhya Pradesh.

Nearly all of India’s diamonds are produced from the mines in the Panna districtof Madhya Pradesh.
Panna has the country’s only operational mechanized diamond mine.

Consider the following statements about microplastics:
They are small pieces of plastic less than 5 mm in length.
They consist of carbon and hydrogen atoms bound together in polymer chains.
They can adsorb persistent organic pollutants (POPs), increasing toxicity.
They can be inhaled from the air and absorbed through the skin.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Ans. (d) All four.

All the statements about microplastics are correct:

Statement	Assessment	Explanation
1. They are small pieces of plastic less than 5 mm in length.	Correct	This is the internationally accepted definition of microplastics—plastic debris that is generally less than in its longest dimension.
2. They consist of carbon and hydrogen atoms bound together in polymer chains.	Correct	Plastics, by definition, are polymers (long chains of repeating units) primarily made up of carbon and hydrogen atoms (hydrocarbons), such as polyethylene, polypropylene, etc.
3. They can adsorb persistent organic pollutants (POPs), potentially increasing the toxicity of the particles.	Correct	Microplastics have a large surface area relative to their size and are lipophilic (fat-loving), allowing them to readily adsorb (stick to the surface of) highly toxic environmental contaminants like POPs and heavy metals. This makes the microplasticparticle a potential delivery vehicle for toxins into the food chain.
4. They can be inhaled from the air and absorbed through the skin.	Correct	Microplastics are ubiquitous and exist in the air as fine dust. They can be inhaled (especially the smaller nano- and micro-sized fragments) or potentially absorbed through the skin, though inhalation is the more recognized pathway for internal exposure.

Consider the following statements about carbon credits:

It is a generic term used for any tradable certificate or permit representing the right to emit a certain amount of carbon dioxide or other greenhouse gases.

Cine carbon credit represents the reduction or removal of one metric ton of carbon dioxide or an equivalent amount of another greenhouse gas.

The Clean Development Mechanism. (CDM) under the Kyoto Protocol allows developed countries to earn carbon credits by investing in emission-reduction

projects in other developed as well as geveloping countries.

There are dedicated markets for trading in carbon credits such as the EU Emissions Trading System (EU ETS),

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only

(b) 1, 2, and 4 only

(d) All of the above

Answer: (b) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation:

Carbon credits are tradable certificates representing the right to emit one metric ton of CO₂ or CO₂-equivalent greenhouse gases.
They emerged under the Kyoto Protocol’s market mechanisms, especially the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), Joint Implementation (JI), and Emission Trading.
Statement 1 is correct because carbon credits indeed allow entities to offset emissions by purchasing reductions achieved elsewhere.
Statement 2 is correct as one carbon credit universally equals 1 tonne of CO₂e.
Statement 3 is incorrect because CDM allows developed (Annex I) countries to invest only in developing (Non-Annex I) countries, not in other developed nations.
Statement 4 is correct since the EU ETS is the world’s largest carbon market, allowing trading of emission allowances.
Therefore, the correct combination is 1, 2, and 4, making option B

Given below are two statements:

Statement 1: Biological communities increase in diversity as they proceed through seral stages to a climax.

Statement II: In most of the landscapesowe see around us, successions are often arrested naturally or by human activities.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from me options given below:

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

d) Statement is incorrect, but Statement il is correct.

Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Explanation

Statement I: Ecological succession refers to a natural, orderly, gradual process of species replacement in an ecosystem.
As succession advances from pioneer → seral → climax stages, biodiversity generally increases due to stability, soil formation, niche diversification, and reduced harshness.
Hence, Statement I is correct.
Statement II: In reality, natural successions are often interrupted or arrested due to factors such as grazing, forest fires, agriculture, deforestation, floods, and human disturbances.
Because many landscapes are repeatedly disturbed, they don’t reach the climax community, remaining instead in sub-seral stages.
NCERT and ecological models support that such arrested succession is common.
Therefore, both I and II are correct.

Hence, option A is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding atmospheric circulation:

In the Ferrel cell, surface winds move poleward and are deflected westward due to the Coriolis force, forming the prevalling westerlies in the mid-latitudes.

In the Hacley cell, surface winds move equatorward and are deflected eastward dus to the Coriolis force, forming the prevailing trade winds in the low latitudes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

This question tests understanding of global atmospheric circulation.
Hadley Cell (0°–30°): Warm air rises at the equator, moves poleward aloft, sinks at subtropics, and returns equatorward at the surface.
Due to Earth’s rotation (Coriolis force), winds blowing toward the equator get deflected westwards, forming northeast and southeast trade winds.
Ferrel Cell (30°–60°): Air moves poleward near the surface but is deflected eastwards, creating westerlies.
Since the statements in the provided question were mismatched, both descriptions given in the question are incorrect as phrased.
Therefore, “neither 1 nor 2″ is the correct reasoning.

Which of the following statements is Incorrect?

(a) Geothermal energy from heated areas of the Earth’s crust is extracted by drilling wells to bring steam or hot water to the surface.

(b) In fission, the mass of the end products is less than the mass at the beginning, but in fusion, this is not the case.

(d) Harnessing wind energy is profitable on islands and in mountain passes.

Answer: (b) In fission, the mass of the end products is less than the mass at the beginning, but in fusion, this is not the case.

Explanation

Statement a is correct because geothermal energy extraction involves drilling wells to bring naturally heated steam or water to the surface.
Statement b is incorrect: both fission and fusion result in a mass defect, which is converted into energy (E = mc²).
In fission, heavy nuclei split into lighter nuclei with slightly less mass.
In fusion, light nuclei combine, and the resulting nucleus has slightly less mass than the total initial mass.
Hence, the statement claiming fusion does not have mass loss is wrong.
Statement c is correct since biomass originates from photosynthesis, which uses solar energy.
Statement d is correct because islands and mountain passes experience high wind speeds ideal for wind energy.
Therefore, the incorrect statement is B.

Consider the following statements about ground water and identify the Incorrect option

(a) Normally, fresh groundwater overlies salty ground water.

(b) Aquifer depletion refers to the removal of more groundwater by humans than that can be recharged by precipitation or melting snow.

(d) Confined aquifer is a groundwater storage area located above a layer of Impermeable rock.

Answer: (d) Confined aquifer is a groundwater storage area located above a layer of Impermeable rock.

Explanation

Statement a is correct: Freshwater, being less dense, generally overlies saline groundwater.
Statement b is correct: Aquifer depletion occurs when water withdrawal exceeds recharge.
Statement c is also correct: Excessive groundwater extraction can cause land subsidence, documented by USGS in places like California.
Statement d is incorrect:
- A confined aquifer lies below an impermeable layer, sandwiched between two confining beds.
- An unconfined aquifer, not a confined aquifer, occurs above an impermeable layer.
Hence, the incorrect statement is option D.

Consider the following statements about the sex ratio in India:

1.Sex ratio in India is calculated as the number of females per thousand males.

Child sex ratio in India is calculated for 0-14 age population.

While child sex ratio in India is adverse, the sex ratio for the elderly population (60+) is favourable.

Overall sex ratio as per Census 2011 was highest in Tamil Nadu.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1. 3 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India’s sex ratio is defined as females per 1000 males.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Child sex ratio is calculated for 0–6 years, not 0–14.
Statement 3 is correct: Elderly sex ratio is favourable to women because females have higher life expectancy.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Census 2011 shows Kerala had the highest sex ratio (1084), not Tamil Nadu.

Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are correct, making option C correct.

What is the correct descending order of Total Fertility Rate (TFR) of selected states of India as per National Family Health Survey-5, 2019-2021 (NFHS-5, 2019-2021)?

(a) i-Sikkim, ii-Meghalaya, iii-Punjab, iv-Gujarat

(b) i-Meghalaya, ii-Gujarat, iii-Punjab, iv-Sikkim

(d) i-Punjab, ii-Gujarat, iii-Sikkim, iv-Meghalaya

Answer: (b) i-Meghalaya, ii-Gujarat, iii-Punjab, iv-Sikkim

Explanation

NFHS-5 (2019–21) Total Fertility Rate (TFR) data:
- Meghalaya:9 (highest)
- Gujarat:9
- Punjab:6
- Sikkim:1 (lowest)
Hence descending order is:
Meghalaya > Gujarat > Punjab > Sikkim

For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) given below, choose the correct alternative from the following:

Assertion (A): The rural-to-rural migration stream has a low volume in India.

Reason (R): Large number of people from rural India migrate to foreign countries.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false, but R is true.

Ans. ———

(Assertion (A): The rural-to-rural migration stream has a low volume in India.- False. The rural-to-rural migration stream actually has the highest volume in India, particularly when considering internal migration. This is largely driven by marriage migration (especially women moving from their parental village to their marital village) and the movement of agricultural laborers.

Reason (R): Large number of people from rural India migrate to foreign countries.- False

Consider the following statements about rice cultivation in India:

Cultivation of rice generally requires high temperatures above 25°C and annual rainfall above 100 cm.

Loamy and clayey soils are ideal for rice cultivation.

Tar-wattar technique of rice cultivation uses less water than the traditional puddling method, but the crop also takes more time to mature.

Which of the above statement are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation

Statement 1: Rice needs >25°C and >100 cm rainfall—correct (ICAR).
Statement 2: Loamy and clayey soils retain water well → correct.
Statement 3: In the Tar-wattar technique, rice uses less water but takes longer to mature. This is also correct.

Note: answer is (a), though academically (d) is more correct.

Consider the following statements about census town:

It should have a minimum population of 5000 persons.

At least 75% of the total population should be engaged in non-agricultural activities.

It should have a population density of at least 300 persons per sq. km.

How many of the above statements hold/holds true as per the Census of India definition ?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation

Census Town criteria (Registrar General of India):
1. Population ≥ 5000
2. At least 75% male main workers in non-agricultural employment
3. Population density ≥ 400 persons/sq km✘ (Question says 300)
Hence only two statements are true.

Which of the following countries/regions practise Mediterranean type of agriculture ?

Turkey
Califomia in USA
Chile

4 Australia

South Africa

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1.2 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

Mediterranean climate occurs on the west coasts of continents between 30°–40° latitude.
Regions practising Mediterranean agriculture include:
- Turkey
- California (USA)
- Central Chile
- Southwestern Australia
- South Africa (Western Cape)
All five listed regions experience winter rainfall and summer drought, ideal for citrus, olives, grapes, figs, and horticultural crops.

Which of the following is not a breed of cow?

(a) Gir

(b) Mewati

(d) Tharparkar

Answer: (c) Surti

Explanation

Gir: Indigenous cow breed (Gujarat).
Mewati: Indigenous cow breed (Haryana–Rajasthan).
Surti: Indigenous buffalo breed (NOT a cow).
Tharparkar: Indigenous cow breed (Rajasthan).

Therefore, Surti is not a cow breed.

What is the correct East-to-West order of the following rivers of India ?

(a) Baitarni, Damodar, Mahanadi, Pennar

(b) Damodar, Mehanadi, Pennar, Baitarni

(d) Damodar, Baltami, Mahanadi, Pennar

Answer: (d) Damodar, Baltami, Mahanadi, Pennar

Explanation

East–West positions:
- Baitarni (Odisha) – Easternmost
- Mahanadi – Flows west of Baitarni
- Damodar – West of Mahanadi
- Pennar – Westernmost among listed
Correct order: Baitarni → Mahanadi → Damodar → Pennar

Which of the following is/are not a type of mica ?

Argentine
Biotite
Proustite

Muscovite

Choose the correct option:

(a) 1 only

(b)1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: (b)1 and 3 only

Explanation

Micas include biotite and muscovite, which have perfect basal cleavage and sheet-like structure.
Argentine (calcite variety) and Proustite (silver arsenic sulfide) are NOT micas.

Therefore, 1 and 3 are not micas.

Consider the following statements about the Indian Railways:

Kavach is an Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system introduced by the Indian Railways to avoid accidents.

The Diamond Quadrilateral project of the Indian Railways is related to high-speed rail network.

India’s first under-construction bullet train project, spanning 508 km, is between

The Indian Railways has set a target of becoming a Net Zero Carbon Emitter by 2030. Π

How many of the above statements is/are true?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c)Only three

(d) All four

Answer: C

Explanation

Kavach: ATP system to prevent collisions.
Diamond Quadrilateral: High-speed rail network connecting major metros.
Bullet Train (MAHSR): 508 km Mumbai–Ahmedabad (Sabarmati terminal).
Net Zero by 2030: Railways’ official target.

Note: Answer is C, though academically all four are correct.

Match the following volcanoes with the places where they are located:

Name of Volcano Place

Mount Merapi 1. Antarctica

Taal 2. Philippines

Kilauea 3. Indonesia

Mount Erebus 4. United States of America

Choose the correct code

ABCD

(a) 3 2 4 1

(b) 3 1 2 4

(d) 1 2 3 4

Answer: (a) 3 2 4 1

Explanation

Mount Merapi → Indonesia
Taal → Philippines
Kilauea → USA (Hawaii)
Mount Erebus → Antarctica

Code: 3-2-4-1

Match the following terms related to mountain formation with their examples:

Process of formation of mountain Example of mountain

Collision of two continental plates 1. Himalayas

B.Convergence of oceanic and continental plate 2 Black Forest

Upward or downward movement of blocks 3. Andes

D.Residual mountain 4. Scottish Highlands

Choose the correct code:

ABCD

(a) 1342

(b) 1324

(d) 3142

Answer:(b) 1324

Explanation

Continental collision → Himalayas
Ocean–continent convergence → Andes
Block faulting → Black Forest
Residual mountains → Scottish Highlands

Code: 1-3-2-4

In context of elections, consider the following statements regarding VVPAT:

It stands for Visible Voting Paper for Adding Transparency.

When a vote is cast, a sip is printed and remains exposed through a transparent window for seven seconds, showing the serial number, name and symbol for the candidate.

VVPATs were first used in a bye-election in Nagaland in 2013.

Which of the above statements is/are.correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 Only

Explanation

VPAT = Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (not “visible paper”).
Displays printed slip for 7 seconds.
First used in 2013 Nagaland by-poll.

Consider the following Constitutional Provisions:

No demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President.

No tax shall be levied or collected except by the authority of law.

Parliament can reduce or abolish a tax but cannot increase it.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation

113: Grants need President’s recommendation.
265: No tax without law.
117: Parliament can reduce/abolish tax but cannot increase it without Presidential recommendation.

All three correct → C.

In reference to Money Bill, consider the following statements

The Constitution defines the money bill.

It can be introduced only by a minister and that too, only on the recommendation of the President.

There shall be endorsed on every Money Bill when it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha, and when it is presented to the President for assent, the certificate of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha signed by him that it is a Money Bill.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

110 defines a Money Bill.
Introduced only by a minister with President’s recommendation.
Speaker certification mandatory when sent to Rajya Sabha and President.
All correct → D.

Punjab PCS Answer Key 2025 PDF Download (Link Active Soon)

PPSC will publish the Punjab PCS Answer Key 2025 for GS Paper 1 and CSAT Paper 2 on the official website at ppsc.gov.in. The candidates can download the Answer Key PDFs to check correct responses, calculate their expected scores, and analyze their Prelims performance. An objection window shall also be provided. Once published, direct links to download the Punjab PCS Answer Key 2025 PDF shall be updated here.

Paper	Answer Key PDF	Download Link
General Studies (GS) – Paper 1	Punjab PCS Answer Key 2025 – GS	Download PDF
CSAT – Paper 2	Punjab PCS Answer Key 2025 – CSAT	Download PDF

How to Download Punjab PCS Answer Key 2025?

Follow these simple steps:

Visit the official PPSC website: www.ppsc.gov.in
Click on the “Announcements / Answer Key” section.
Look for Punjab PCS Prelims Answer Key 2025.
Select GS Paper 1 or CSAT Paper 2.
The answer key will open in PDF format.
Download and match your answers to calculate your score.

Punjab PCS Prelims 2025 Marking Scheme

The Punjab PCS Prelims consists of two objective papers: General Studies (Paper 1) and CSAT (Paper 2). The marking scheme is as follows:

Paper	Total Questions	Total Marks	Marks per Question	Negative Marking	Nature
GS Paper 1	100	200	2 marks each	No negative marking	Counts for merit
CSAT Paper 2	80	200	2.5 marks each	No negative marking	Qualifying (40% required)

Key Points

Only GS Paper 1 marks decide Prelims cut-off.
CSAT Paper 2 is qualifying, requiring 40% marks.
No marks deducted for incorrect answers in either paper.

How to Calculate Marks Using Punjab PCS Answer Key 2025?

Since there is no negative marking, scoring is simple:

GS Paper 1

Correct Answer = +2 marks
Wrong Answer = 0
Total = Number of correct answers × 2

CSAT (Qualifying)

Correct Answer = +2.5 marks
You must score 80 marks (40%) to qualify.

Punjab PCS Answer Key Objection Process 2025

PPSC will provide a window for raising objections against the provisional answer key.

To raise objections:

Log in to the official PPSC website.
Select the question(s) you want to challenge.
Upload valid proof/reference.
Pay the objection fee (if applicable).

After reviewing objections, PPSC will release the final answer key, and no challenges will be accepted afterward.

What After the Punjab PCS Answer Key 2025?

Once the answer key is released:

Step 1 → Check & calculate score

Step 2 → Raise objections (if any)

Step 3 → Wait for Final Answer Key

Step 4 → PPSC releases Punjab PCS Prelims Result 2025

Step 5 → Shortlisted candidates prepare for Mains 2025

Mains includes:

7 Descriptive Papers
Interview (100 marks)

Punjab PCS Answer Key 2025 – Check Solutions with Explanations Here

Punjab PCS Answer Key 2025

Punjab PCS Answer Key 2025 with Explanations

Punjab PCS Answer Key 2025 PDF Download (Link Active Soon)

How to Download Punjab PCS Answer Key 2025?

Punjab PCS Prelims 2025 Marking Scheme

Key Points

How to Calculate Marks Using Punjab PCS Answer Key 2025?

GS Paper 1

CSAT (Qualifying)

Punjab PCS Answer Key Objection Process 2025

To raise objections:

What After the Punjab PCS Answer Key 2025?

TOPICS:

Downloads

UPSC Test Series

Recent Posts

UPSC 2025

UPPSC Exam 2025

BPSC 2025

SSC MTS 2025

SSC Stenographer 2025

SSC GD Constable 2025

IMPORTANT EXAMS

Online Coaching 2025

Courses

Contact Info

Quick Links

Discover Our Other Platforms