Daily Quiz 08 July 2025

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Question 1 of 5

1. Question
1 points
Consider the following statements:
1. Indian Institute of Technology Delhi is ranked within the world’s top 150 in the 2026 QS table.
2. With 54 universities on the list, India is the second-most represented country after the United States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. IIT-Delhi climbed to 123rd place in the 2026 edition, comfortably inside the global top 150.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Although India’s tally rose to 54 institutions, it is fourth after the USA (192), the UK (90) and mainland China (72). Hence India is not the second-most represented country.
Incorrect

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. IIT-Delhi climbed to 123rd place in the 2026 edition, comfortably inside the global top 150.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Although India’s tally rose to 54 institutions, it is fourth after the USA (192), the UK (90) and mainland China (72). Hence India is not the second-most represented country.

Question 2 of 5

2. Question

1 points

Match the features of the original Green India Mission (2014) with those of the Revised Green India Mission (2021–2030):

GIM 2014 Features	Revised GIM 2021–2030 Features
A. Afforestation target	1. 24–25 million ha via convergence with other schemes
B. Monitoring mechanism	2. GIS-based dashboard + satellite & third-party evaluation
C. Number of sub-missions/components	3. Reduced to 3 core components
D. Forest treatment target	4. Direct treatment of 1 million ha by 2030

How many of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Correct

Answer: D

Explanation:

A–1 (Afforestation target → 24–25 million ha via convergence):
Under GIM 2014, the afforestation target was 5 million hectares of non-forest land. In the revised GIM (2021–2030), the target has been vastly expanded to 24–25 million hectares, achieved through convergence with other schemes like CAMPA, MGNREGA, etc.
B–2 (Monitoring mechanism → GIS-based dashboard + satellite & third-party evaluation):
Earlier, GIM relied on ground-level surveys and reports. The revised plan has introduced a robust five-tier monitoring system that uses remote sensing, national GIS-based dashboard, Gram Sabha audits, and third-party evaluations for transparency and better accountability.
C–3 (Number of sub-missions/components → Reduced to 3 core components):
The original GIM 2014 had five components, including urban greening and wetland restoration. The revised GIM has streamlined these into three broad components:
1. Forest quality & ecosystem services
2. Afforestation & restoration
3. Livelihood enhancement for forest-dependent communities

D–4 (Forest treatment target → Direct treatment of 1 million ha by 2030):
Earlier, the target was to improve forest quality on 5 million ha. The revised GIM focuses on treating 1 million hectares directly by 2030, which is more realistic and measurable, considering targeted interventions.

Incorrect

Answer: D

Explanation:

A–1 (Afforestation target → 24–25 million ha via convergence):
Under GIM 2014, the afforestation target was 5 million hectares of non-forest land. In the revised GIM (2021–2030), the target has been vastly expanded to 24–25 million hectares, achieved through convergence with other schemes like CAMPA, MGNREGA, etc.
B–2 (Monitoring mechanism → GIS-based dashboard + satellite & third-party evaluation):
Earlier, GIM relied on ground-level surveys and reports. The revised plan has introduced a robust five-tier monitoring system that uses remote sensing, national GIS-based dashboard, Gram Sabha audits, and third-party evaluations for transparency and better accountability.
C–3 (Number of sub-missions/components → Reduced to 3 core components):
The original GIM 2014 had five components, including urban greening and wetland restoration. The revised GIM has streamlined these into three broad components:
1. Forest quality & ecosystem services
2. Afforestation & restoration
3. Livelihood enhancement for forest-dependent communities

Question 3 of 5

3. Question
1 points
With respect to the Energy Transition Index 2025, consider the following statements:
1. In the 2025 Energy Transition Index, India ranks lower than both China and the United States.
2. Sweden tops the index, followed by Finland and Denmark.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. The 2025 ETI places China 12th, the USA 17th, and India 71st, so India ranks below both.
Statement 2 is correct. The five leaders are Sweden, Finland, Denmark, Norway and Switzerland—Sweden firmly at No. 1.
Incorrect

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. The 2025 ETI places China 12th, the USA 17th, and India 71st, so India ranks below both.
Statement 2 is correct. The five leaders are Sweden, Finland, Denmark, Norway and Switzerland—Sweden firmly at No. 1.
Question 4 of 5

4. Question
1 points
Consider the following statements:
1. Article 10 of the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) requires a withdrawing state to give at least three months’ notice to all other Parties and to the UN Security Council.
2. If a state leaves the NPT, it remains legally bound to continue International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards inspections agreed under the treaty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. Article 10 explicitly mandates three-month prior notification to all Treaty Parties and the UNSC, including a rationale for withdrawal.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Once withdrawal takes legal effect, the safeguards agreement linked to the NPT lapses, and the state is no longer obligated to admit IAEA inspectors, unless it separately agrees to do so.
Incorrect

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. Article 10 explicitly mandates three-month prior notification to all Treaty Parties and the UNSC, including a rationale for withdrawal.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. Once withdrawal takes legal effect, the safeguards agreement linked to the NPT lapses, and the state is no longer obligated to admit IAEA inspectors, unless it separately agrees to do so.
Question 5 of 5

5. Question
1 points
With reference to Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA), consider the following statements:
1. It is caused by a deficiency of SMN protein due to mutations in the SMN1 gene.
2. It affects both voluntary and involuntary muscles, including the heart and digestive system.
3. Risdiplam is one of the FDA-approved therapies for SMA.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- (a) Onlyone
- (b) Onlytwo
- (c) Allthree
- (d) None
Correct

Answer: (b)

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA) is a severe genetic disorder caused by mutations in the SMN1 gene, which results in a deficiency of the SMN (Survival Motor Neuron) protein. This protein is essential for the survival and function of motor neurons, and its absence leads to muscle degeneration.

Statement 2 is incorrect. SMA predominantly affects voluntary muscles, particularly those closer to the trunk of the body (proximal muscles). However, involuntary muscles, such as those of the heart, digestive tract, and blood vessels, are usually not affected, making this a distinguishing feature of the disease.

Statement 3 is correct. Risdiplam is an oral drug approved by the US FDA. It modifies the splicing of the SMN2 gene to produce more functional SMN protein and thus slows the progression of SMA. It is a key part of modern disease-modifying treatment strategies.

Incorrect

Answer: (b)

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA) is a severe genetic disorder caused by mutations in the SMN1 gene, which results in a deficiency of the SMN (Survival Motor Neuron) protein. This protein is essential for the survival and function of motor neurons, and its absence leads to muscle degeneration.

Statement 2 is incorrect. SMA predominantly affects voluntary muscles, particularly those closer to the trunk of the body (proximal muscles). However, involuntary muscles, such as those of the heart, digestive tract, and blood vessels, are usually not affected, making this a distinguishing feature of the disease.

Statement 3 is correct. Risdiplam is an oral drug approved by the US FDA. It modifies the splicing of the SMN2 gene to produce more functional SMN protein and thus slows the progression of SMA. It is a key part of modern disease-modifying treatment strategies.