APSC CCE 2025 Question Paper with Solution

The Assam Public Service Commission (APSC) successfully held the Combined Competitive Examination (CCE) Prelims 2025 on June 8, 2025, to recruit 289 positions in Assam Civil Services, Police Services, and other allied departments. Candidates who have taken the exam or are preparing for future APSC attempts can now download the APSC CCE 2025 question paper with solutions in PDF format for General Studies Paper 1 and Paper 2 (CSAT).
These well-crafted solutions will assist candidates in assessing their performance, understanding exam trends, and improving their preparation for APSC CCE Mains 2025.

Q1. On November 21, 2024, the Assam Government officially renamed the Karimganj district as Sribhumi, along with its headquarters town Karimganj, which will now be called Sribhumi town. The new name was inspired by Rabindranath Tagore’s description of the area over a century ago as ‘Sribhumi’. As per Kabiguru Tagore’s description, the word ‘Sribhumi’ is referred to as –

(A) the land of Maa Lakshmi

(B) the land of Maa Durga

(D) the land of Maa Saraswati

Ans; a

Recently, the Assam cabinet approved the renaming of Karimganj district in the Barak Valley, bordering Bangladesh, as Sribhumi.
Chief minister Himanta Biswa Sarma, while making the announcement, observed that it honours Tagore’s vision, who designated the current geographical area of undivided India as Sribhumi.
“Over a century ago, Kabiguru Rabindranath Tagore described modern-day Karimganj District in Assam as ‘Sribhumi’ – the land of Maa Lakshmi,”

Q2. The Assam Government’s decision to officially recognize ‘Bathouism’ in the Bodoland Territorial Region (BTR) primarily aims to –

(A) promote religious conversion among indigenous communities

(B) preserve and acknowledge the traditional faith of the Bodo

community

(D) integrate Bathouism practices into mainstream Hindu rituals

Ans; b

The primary aim of the Assam Government’s official recognition of ‘Bathouism’ in the Bodoland Territorial Region (BTR) is to preserve and recognize the indigenous faith and distinct cultural identity of the Bodo community.
This move includes Bathouism as an option in the religion column of key application forms, like birth and death certificates and admission forms, demonstrating a commitment to preserve nature-based faiths.

Q3. On February 24, 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi attended the largest Jhumur event in history, celebrating the 200th anniversary of Assam’s tea industry. Consider the following statements:

(i) The tea garden community migrated from Central India in the 19th century to work in the tea gardens of Assam.

(ii) Jhumur dance originates from the Sadan ethnolinguistic group of the Chota Nagpur region.

(iii) The songs sung during Jhumur performances often depict the struggles of tea plantation workers. They narrate stories of migration and exploitation,depicting the community’s socio-economic challenges.

(iv) Jhumur dance plays a vital role in tea garden festivals, particularly during Tushu Puja and Karam Puja, which celebrate the harvest time.

Which of the above statements is/ are not correct?

(A) (ii) only

(B) (i) and (iii) only

(D) None of the above

Ans; d

All the statements are correct
- The tea garden community migrated from Central India in the 19th century to work in the tea gardens of Assam.
- Jhumur dance originates from the Sadan ethnolinguistic group of the Chota Nagpur region.
- The songs sung during Jhumur performances often depict the struggles of tea plantation workers. They narrate stories of migration and exploitation,depicting the community’s socio-economic challenges.
- Jhumur dance plays a vital role in tea garden festivals, particularly during Tushu Puja and Karam Puja, which celebrate the harvest time.

About Jhumur dance

Jhumur, a traditional folk dance of Assam’s Adivasi tea tribes, was brought by the tea garden community from Jharkhand’s Chotanagpur region.
- It belongs to the Sadan ethnolinguistic group (origins to the Chotanagpur region) and is performed during harvest, weddings, and gatherings.
Performance and Style: Jhumur is performed by men and women in a circular formation.
- It features rhythmic footwork, and lively music, accompanied by Madal, Dhol, Taal, and Flute.
Cultural Significance: Jhumur dance reflects unity, pride, and the struggles of Assam’s tea garden communities, with songs narrating migration, exploitation, and social struggles of the tea garden community.

Q4. Which of the following statements about Kaziranga National Park is incorrect?

(A) It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

(B) It is home to the highest population of one-horned rhinoceroses in the world.

(D) It is situated on the banks of Brahmaputra River and lies between the Brahmaputra River and the Karbi Hills.

Ans; c

Kaziranga National Park was declared as a Tiger Reserve in 2006.
It was also designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985.
The park is known for its high density of tigers and is home to a significant population of one-horned rhinoceroses.

Q5. In February 2025, a significant conservation milestone was achieved in Assam concerning the Greater Adjutant Stork. Which of the following best describes this achievement?

(A) The species was declared ‘extinct in the wild’

(B) The stork population increased from 450 to over 1800 birds

(D) The species was removed from the endangered list

Ans; b

News sources indicate that conservation efforts in Assam, India, have led to a significant increase in the population of the Greater Adjutant Stork, with numbers rising from 450 to over 1800 birds.
This achievement represents a major milestone in the conservation of this endangered species.

Q6. In early 2025, a rare marbled cat was spotted in which National Park of Assam?

(A) Dehing Patkai National Park

(B) Kaziranga National Park

(D) Nameri National Park

Ans; a

In early 2025, a rare marbled cat was spotted in Dehing Patkai National Park of Assam.
The sighting was captured by camera traps within the park.
This marks an important event in the conservation efforts for the marbled cat, which is considered near threatened.
The marbled cat is a small, wild cat native to the eastern Himalayas and Southeast Asia.

Q7. In early 2025, concerns arose regarding declining pungency of the Bhut Jolokia chili in Assam. What was identified as the primary cause of it?

(A) Climate change affecting soil temperature

(B) Overuse of fertilizers altering

(D) Pests attacking the chili plants

Ans; b

While multiple factors could contribute to the declining pungency of the Bhut Jolokia chili, according to expert sources,
(B) Overuse of fertilizers, altering the chili’s genetic composition, is most frequently cited as the primary cause.

Q8. The Soliga tribe inhabits the Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve in Karnataka. Their relationship with the tiger population is very important to conservation efforts. Consider the following statements in connection with Soliga tribe :

(i) The name ‘Soliga’ means ‘children of bamboo’.

(ii) The Soligas worship tigers as sacred beings. They refer to the tiger as Dodda Nayi and maintain a temple dedicated to it.

(iii) The Soligas were the first tribal community to have their forest rights recognized within a tiger reserve.

(iv) The Soliga tribe is confined to the State of Karnataka alone.

Which of the above statements is/ are not correct?

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (iii) only

Ans; c

Statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Statement 4 is incorrect because, The Soliga tribe is not confined to Karnataka alone; they are also found in neighboring Tamil Nadu.

Q9. India plans to issue Sovereign Green Bonds to raise money for green infrastructure projects. Consider the following statements about India’s Sovereign Green Bonds:

Statement 1: The funds raised will be used to finance public projects that lower the economy’s carbon intensity.

Statement 2 : India issued its first Sovereign Green Bond in 2023:

Statement 3: Green Bonds are part of India’s strategy to achieve net zero emission by 2070. Statement 4: Only private investors can subscribe to Green Bonds.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1 and 4 only

(B)1, 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans; b

Statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Statement 4 is incorrect; No, private investors aren’t the sole participants in Green Bond subscriptions.
Green Bonds are open to a wider range of investors, including retail investors, corporations, non-resident Indians (NRIs), and institutional investors.

Q10. The National One Health Mission is a recently launched initiative in India aimed at strengthening the country’s response to diseases and promoting a holistic approach to public health. Consider the following statements about India’s One Health Mission:

Statement 1: The One Health Mission integrates human, animal and environmental health under a single framework.

Statement 2: The initiative is funded entirely by the Government of India without any international collaboration.

Statement 3: The Mission aims to track zoonotic diseases like Nipah and avian influenza.

Statement 4: India is the first country in Asia to adopt a One Health approach.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans; a

The National One Health Mission in India, which aims to strengthen the country’s response to diseases and promote a holistic approach to public health, is a multi-sectoral effort that integrates human, animal, and environmental health under a single framework.
The mission’s goal is to coordinate efforts across various ministries to achieve pandemic preparedness and integrated disease control.

Correct Statements:

Statement 1:
The One Health Mission integrates human, animal and environmental health under a single framework.
Statement 3:
The Mission aims to track zoonotic diseases like Nipah and avian influenza.
Statement 4:
While India is actively promoting a One Health approach, it is not the first country in Asia to do so.

Incorrect Statements:

Statement 2: The initiative is not funded entirely by the Government of India without any international collaboration. It involves collaborations with various international and national partners.

Therefore, the correct answer is (A) 1 and 3 only

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Eat Right Station’ certification:

Statement 1 : It is an initiative by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).

Statement 2: As of February 2025, 150 railway stations and 6metro stations have received the certification.

Which of the above statements is/ are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Eat Right Station certification is a flagship initiative of the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
Its primary goal is to promote safe, hygienic, and nutritious food practices at railway stations to improve the overall food ecosystem.
The initiative involves:
- Encouraging food vendors at railway stations to maintain cleanliness and comply with food safety regulations.
- Creating awareness among consumers about healthy eating habits.
- Recognizing and certifying stations that meet strict food safety and hygiene benchmarks.
As of February 29, 2024, 150 railway stations across India have been certified as “Eat Right Stations” by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). This certification signifies that these stations adhere to stringent food safety, hygiene, and nutrition standards. The initiative aims to ensure safe, hygienic, and nutritious food options for passengers.

Q12. The Viksit Bharat 2047′ initiative is the Government of India’s visionary road map to transform the nation into a developed country by 2047, making it the centenary of its independence. Consider the following four key objectives of the initiative:

Objective 1 : Elevate India to become the world’s third largest economy within the next five years, aiming for a $100 trillion economy by 2047

Objective 2 : Empower youth, women. The underprivileged and farmers, recognizing them as pivotal contributors to national development

Objective 3 : Implement strategies to address climate change and promote sustainable practices

Objective 4: Enhance administrative efficiency and transparency to ensure effective public service delivery

Which of the above key objectives are not correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) 3 and 4 only

Answer: A

Explanation:

Viksit Bharat 2047 is a long-term vision by the Government of India aimed at transforming India into a developed country by the 100th year of its independence (2047).
It outlines several key objectives to achieve sustainable and inclusive growth:
1. Economic Growth:
  - Aim to make India the world’s third-largest economy soon.
  - However, the claim of reaching a $100 trillion economy by 2047 is not officially recognized or realistic.
  - Current projections estimate India’s economy will grow significantly but not to this extent within the timeline.
2. Social Empowerment:
  - Focus on empowering youth, women, underprivileged groups, and farmers.
  - Recognizes these groups as crucial drivers of national development.
  - This objective is aligned with government policies and is correct.
3. Sustainability and Climate Action:
  - Commitment to tackling climate change and promoting sustainable development practices.
  - Includes clean energy, water conservation, and pollution control.
  - This is a correct and prioritized objective.
4. Good Governance:
  - Enhance administrative efficiency, transparency, and public service delivery.
  - Aim to improve ease of doing business and citizen-centric governance.
  - This objective is also correct.
Therefore, only Objective 1 is incorrect due to exaggerated economic target claims.
The correct answer is (A) 1 only.

Q13. Which of the following statements describes tariff in the context of international trade?

(A) It is a tax on imports into a country.

(B) It is a tax imposed by a country on goods crossing its border.

(D) It is a reciprocal tax.

Answer: A

APSC ANSWER: B

Explanation:

A tariff is a tax specifically levied on imports entering a country.
It is imposed to make imported goods more expensive compared to domestic products, thereby protecting local industries from foreign competition.
Tariffs generate revenue for the government and can be specific (fixed amount per unit) or ad valorem (percentage of the value).
Tariffs differ from quantitative restrictions (like quotas), which limit the quantity of goods rather than taxing them.
While tariffs apply to imports, taxes on goods crossing borders can also include exports but tariffs usually refer to import duties.
Thus, the best definition in the context of international trade is “a tax on imports into a country.”
Governments impose tariffs to raise revenue, protect domestic industries, or exert political leverage over another country.
Tariffs often result in unwanted side effects, such as higher consumer prices.
Tariffs are used to restrict imports. Simply put, they increase the price of goods and services purchased from another country, making them less attractive to domestic consumers.

Q14. What is meant by the ‘repo rate’ of the RBI?

(A) It is the rate of interest at which commercial banks offer loans

(B) It is the percentage of total deposits of commercial banks that is kept in cash

(D) It is the rate at which commercial banks lend to each other

Answer: C

Explanation:

The repo rate is the rate of interest at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), as the central bank, lends short-term funds to commercial banks against the collateral of government securities.
It is a vital monetary policy tool that helps the RBI control liquidity in the banking system and influence inflation and economic growth.
When commercial banks face a shortage of funds, they borrow from the RBI at the repo rate.
A lower repo rate reduces the cost of borrowing for banks, encouraging them to lend more to businesses and consumers, thus stimulating economic activity.
Conversely, a higher repo rate makes borrowing more expensive, which can help reduce inflation by curbing excessive spending.
The repo rate influences other interest rates in the economy, including lending and deposit rates set by banks.
It differs from the cash reserve ratio, which is the proportion of deposits banks must keep as reserves, and from the call money rate, which is the rate at which banks lend to each other.

Consider the following statements about Kumbh Mela of India:

(i) It is the oldest recorded religious festival of the world.

(ii) The earliest reference to Prayaga and bathing pilgrimage is found in the Rigveda Parishishta (supplement to the Rigveda).

(iii) The frequency of one Purna Kumbh Mela every 12 years coincides with one revolution of Jupiter around the Sun (approx.).

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B)(ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer: (D) (i), (ii), and (iii)

Explanation:

The Kumbh Mela is considered one of the oldest religious festivals in the world, with references dating back thousands of years. It is a major pilgrimage where millions gather to take a holy dip in sacred rivers.
The earliest textual mention of Prayaga (modern-day Allahabad) and the ritual of bathing pilgrimage is found in the Rigveda Parishishta, which is a supplement to the Rigveda. This shows the ancient religious significance of the site and the festival.
The timing of the Kumbh Mela is astronomically linked to the movement of Jupiter (Brihaspati) around the Sun, which takes approximately 12 years. The Purna Kumbh Mela happens once every 12 years, aligning with Jupiter’s revolution, which determines the festival’s timing along with the positions of the Sun and Moon in specific zodiac signs.

Q16. Which of the following ocean currents is/are warm current(s) in the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans?

(i) Benguela Current

(ii) Kuroshio Current

(iii) Norwegian Current

(iv) Peru Current

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i) and (iv) only

Answer: (B) (ii) and (iii) only

Explanation:
Ocean currents influence climate, marine biodiversity, and navigation, and are classified broadly into warm and cold currents.

The Kuroshio Current is a warm ocean current flowing northward along the east coast of Japan in the Pacific Ocean. It is similar to the Gulf Stream in the Atlantic and brings warm tropical water to higher latitudes.
The Norwegian Current is a warm current in the North Atlantic Ocean flowing along the coast of Norway, helping moderate the climate of Northern Europe by transporting warm waters from the Gulf Stream towards the Arctic.
The Benguela Current is a cold current flowing northward along the southwest coast of Africa in the Atlantic Ocean. It brings cold, nutrient-rich waters from the Southern Ocean and supports one of the richest marine ecosystems.
The Peru Current (or Humboldt Current) is a cold current flowing northward along the west coast of South America in the Pacific Ocean. It brings cold water from the Antarctic towards the equator and supports the rich fisheries off Peru and Chile.

Thus, only Kuroshio and Norwegian currents are warm currents, while Benguela and Peru currents are cold currents.

Q17. Which of the following pairs concerning canal irrigation of india is/are not correct?

(i) Agra Canal-Yamuna River

(ii) Upper Bari Doab CanalJhelum River

(iii) Sirhind Canal-Ravi River

(iv) Bikaner Canal-Satluj River

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

Answer: (B) (ii) and (iii) only

Explanation:
Irrigation canals in India have played a crucial role in agricultural development, especially in northern India. Understanding the origin and location of major canals is essential for geography and economy-related questions.

Agra Canal and Yamuna River: The Agra Canal originates from the Yamuna River near Okhla in Delhi. It is one of the oldest canals, constructed during the British era, and it provides irrigation water to parts of Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan. This pair is correctly matched.
Upper Bari Doab Canal and Jhelum River: The Upper Bari Doab Canal (UBDC) actually originates from the Ravi River, not the Jhelum River. The term ‘Bari Doab’ refers to the tract of land between the Beas and Ravi rivers, and UBDC irrigates this area in Punjab. The Jhelum River is geographically separate and does not feed the UBDC. Therefore, this pair is incorrect.
Sirhind Canal and Ravi River: The Sirhind Canal originates from the Satluj River, not the Ravi River. It was constructed in the late 19th century and is a major irrigation canal in Punjab, channeling water from the Satluj to arid regions of Punjab and Haryana. Hence, this pair is also incorrect.
Bikaner Canal and Satluj River: The Bikaner Canal, which is part of the Indira Gandhi Canal project, draws water from the Satluj River (via the Harike Barrage). It irrigates parts of the Thar Desert region in Rajasthan, including Bikaner. This pair is correctly matched.

Q18. Which of the following sequences or statements concerning tributaries of the Brahmaputra in Assam is/are not correct?

(i) The North bank tributaries (from West to East) : Sankosh, Manas, Puthimari, Pagladíya

(ii) The South bank tributaries (from East to West) : Buri Dihing, Bhogdoi, Dhansiri, Kopili

(iii) The North bank tributaries (from East to West): Jiadhal, Subansiri, Ranganadi, Jia Bharali

(iv) The River Barnadi forms a natural boundary between

Darrang and Kamrup districts.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (ii) only

Answer: (C) (ii) and (iv) only

APSC Answer: A

Explanation:
The Brahmaputra River basin is a complex hydrological system with numerous tributaries that are vital for the ecology, economy, and culture of Assam. Correct knowledge of these tributaries and their geographic locations is important.

Statement (i): The north bank tributaries of the Brahmaputra flowing from west to east include the Sankosh, Manas, Puthimari, and Pagladia rivers. This sequence is geographically accurate. These rivers mostly originate in the Bhutan Himalayas and flow into the Brahmaputra, and the west to east order given is correct.
Statement (ii): The south bank tributaries listed from east to west as Buri Dihing, Bhogdoi, Dhansiri, and Kopili are incorrect. The correct sequence of south bank tributaries from east to west should be Buri Dihing, Dhansiri, Bhogdoi, and Kopili. Bhogdoi lies to the west of Dhansiri, so the order given is mistaken. This makes statement (ii) incorrect.
Statement (iii): The north bank tributaries from east to west as Jiadhal, Subansiri, Ranganadi, and Jia Bharali are correctly sequenced. These rivers originate in Arunachal Pradesh and flow southwards into the Brahmaputra, and the east to west order is accurate.
Statement (iv): The Barnadi River does not form the boundary between Darrang and Kamrup districts. Instead, it flows through Udalguri and Baksa districts, which are located in the Bodoland Territorial Region of Assam. The natural boundary between Darrang and Kamrup districts is formed by other rivers like the Kolong and Bharalu. Hence, statement (iv) is incorrect.

Q19. Which of the following statements concerning Tinsukia district of Assam is/are correct?

(i) It is the Easternmost district of Assam having been surrounded by Arunachal Pradesh from three sides.

(ii) It is an industrial district well known for coal, oil and tea production.

(iii) The Dhola-Sadiya Bridge, which is well-known as Bhupen Hazarika Setu, is constructed on the River Lohit located in this district.

(iv) The Maguri Motapung Beel is located in this district.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(D) All the statements are correct

APSC Answer: D

Explanation:

(i) It is the easternmost district of Assam having been surrounded by Arunachal Pradesh from three sides

The easternmost district of Assam that is bordered by Arunachal Pradesh on three sides is Tinsukia. Tinsukia shares its borders with Changlang, Namsai, and Lower Dibang Valley districts of Arunachal Pradesh

(ii) It is an industrial district well known for coal, oil and tea production –
Correct.
Tinsukia is one of Assam’s most industrialized districts, known especially for its:

Coal mining at places like Margherita and Ledo.
Oil exploration and refining (near Digboi, India’s oldest oil refinery).
Tea plantations, particularly in and around Doom Dooma and Makum.

(iii) The Dhola–Sadiya Bridge, well-known as Bhupen Hazarika Setu, is constructed on the River Lohit located in this district –
Correct.
The Dhola-Sadiya Bridge, officially named Bhupen Hazarika Setu, is the longest bridge in India, built over the Lohit River (a tributary of the Brahmaputra) and connects Tinsukia district (Assam) to Arunachal Pradesh. It is of strategic importance and facilitates connectivity in northeast India.

(iv) The Maguri Motapung Beel is located in this district –
Correct.
Maguri Motapung Beel is a famous wetland and birdwatching site located near Dibru-Saikhowa National Park, in Tinsukia district. It is ecologically important.

Q20. Rising intensities of floods and damages in Assam are said to have

prime explanation(s):

(i) The water flow has become sudden and high, induced by natural and anthropogenic factors as well

(ii) People have established settlements in low-lying areas.

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

(A) Only (i) is right

(B) Only (ii) is right

of rising intensity

(D) Both (i) and (ii) are true, but inclusive statements to explain intensity of floods, at present state of technology and development

Answer: (C) Both (i) and (ii) are true, and inclusive to explain the causes of rising intensity

Explanation:

(i) The water flow has become sudden and high, induced by natural and anthropogenic factors –
True.
Floods in Assam are becoming more intense and unpredictable due to:

Climate change, causing sudden cloudbursts and erratic rainfall.
Deforestation in upstream areas, reducing the capacity of forests to absorb rainwater.
Encroachments and poor river management, causing siltation, which raises riverbeds.
Dam operations upstream (especially in Arunachal or China) sometimes releasing water suddenly.

(ii) People have established settlements in low-lying areas –
True.
Large populations in Assam live on riverine islands (chars), embankments, and floodplains, due to fertile land and livelihood needs. These areas are highly vulnerable to floods, and human settlements in such zones increase the impact of floods.

Both statements are valid and inclusive, offering a comprehensive explanation of the causes behind the rising intensity and damage caused by floods in Assam.

Q21. The impact of cyclones and tsunamis in India could be reduced by

(i) preserving mangrove forests

(ii) preserving montane forests

(iii) preserving tropical thorny and scrub forests este

(iv) preserving tropical deciduous forests

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(D) All are correct

Answer: a

Solution

(i)Mangrove forests are coastal trees that play a crucial role in mitigating the impact of cyclones and tsunamis. Their dense root systems and thick canopy act as a barrier against storm surges and waves, reducing their force and preventing erosion. They also absorb and slow down the flow of water, minimizing flooding. Hence option a is correct.
(ii) preserving montane forests: Montane forests are found at high altitudes and are not typically located along coastlines, where cyclones and tsunamis primarily strike. While they offer other ecological benefits like carbon sequestration and biodiversity conservation, they do not have the same protective effect against coastal disasters as mangroves.
(iii) preserving tropical thorny and scrub forests: Tropical thorny and scrub forests are generally located in inland or semi-arid regions and are not situated along the coast. They may offer some protection from wind and erosion in their specific ecosystems but are not as effective as mangroves in mitigating the impact of cyclones and tsunamis.
(iv) preserving tropical deciduous forests: Tropical deciduous forests are characterized by seasonal shedding of leaves. While they provide important ecological services, their structure and location are not as well-suited to withstanding the forces of cyclones and tsunamis as mangroves.

Q22. Authors Arup Kumar Dutta, Arupjyoti Saikia and Samrat Choudhury have common theme(s) in their writing :

(i) They are acclaimed writers on the Brahmaputra

(ii) They have written on Assam’s social history

(iii) They have written on tea and tea plantation history

(iv) They have written on Assam’s geography

Which of the above is/are correct?

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(D) All are correct

Answer: doubt

APSC Answer: a

Solution:

Arup Kumar Dutta, Arupjyoti Saikia, and Samrat are recognized authors who have written extensively about the Brahmaputra river.
Arup Kumar Dutta is known for his diverse writing, including books like “The Brahmaputra” and adventure novels for young people.
Arupjyoti Saikia, a professor of history, has written extensively on the Brahmaputra, notably “The Unquiet River:
A Biography of the Brahmaputra,” which explores its history and impact on Assam. Samrat is another author who has written about the river, including “The Braided River: A Journey Along the Brahmaputra”.
Arupjyoti Saikia’s “The Quest for Modern Assam: A History” explores the period from the 1940s to 2000, focusing on political, environmental, economic, and cultural aspects. Arup Kumar Dutta has written on various topics related to Assam’s history, including the Ahom kingdom, while Goodreads lists him as an author of works like “The Kaziranga Trail” and “Adventure in Kaziranga”
Arup Kumar Dutta is the author of a story titled “Tea from Assam,” which provides an informative account of the tea gardens in Assam. Arupjyoti Saikia has written extensively on the history of Assam, including the book “The Quest for Modern Assam: A History (1942-2000),” which also delves into the role of tea plantations.
Arupjyoti Saikia, a historian, has published extensively on various aspects of Assam’s history, including its forests, ecological history, and the Brahmaputra river. Arup Kumar Dutta, a journalist and author, has written about the Kaziranga National Park and other topics related to Assam. Samrat Choudhury, a journalist, has written “The Braided River: A Journey Along the Brahmaputra,” which explores the river’s course and its impact on Assam.

Q23. In India during 2001 to 2011, the number of census towns showed rapid growth (increased by a total of 2500 in number) compared to statutory towns (increased by about 250 in number). The rapid growth of census towns was because of –

(i) formation of municipal board/ committee and notified town area committee, etc.

(ii) rapid growth of population leading to cross the minimum requirement of 5000 inhabitants to qualify as a town

(iii) the town area becoming densely populated with more than 400

persons per square kilometre

(iv) three-fourths of the male workforce found full-time jobs beyond agriculture activities

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

(D) (iv) only

Answer: b

Solution:

The rapid increase in census towns in India between 2001 and 2011 was primarily due to rapid growth of population leading to cross the minimum requirement of 5000 inhabitants to qualify as a town. This is because census towns are areas that, while not formally designated as towns, meet certain demographic and economic criteria for classification as towns.
Rapid population growth: The most significant factor driving the increase in census towns was the rapid growth of population in areas that were previously not considered urban. When these areas reached the population threshold of 5,000 inhabitants required for a place to be classified as a town, they became census towns. Hence statement two is correct.
Formation of municipal boards/committees, etc.: While the establishment of municipal boards or committees can contribute to the urbanization of an area, it is not the primary reason for the increase in the number of census towns. Census towns are designated based on demographic and economic characteristics rather than administrative structures. Hence statement one is incorrect.
High population density: While high population density is a characteristic of urban areas, it is not the sole determining factor for classifying a place as a census town. Census towns are defined by their population size and other economic characteristics. Hence statement three is correct.
Census Towns: In India, a census town is a settlement that meets specific criteria set by the census authority. These criteria include:
- A population of at least 5,000 people.
- A population density of at least 400 people per square kilometer.
- At least 75% of the male workforce is employed in non-agricultural activities. Hence statement four is correct.

Q24. Rangsapara village, Goalpara district and Zion village, Dima Hasao district of Assam occupied the limelight in the last decade because-

(i) the villages were evaluated as the cleanest villages of the State

(ii) Rangsapara was evaluated as the cleanest, whereas all 25+ age group population of Zion had attained education level graduate and above

(iii) Rangsapara village faced catastrophe caused by flash flood and Zion was devastated by landslides

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

(A) Only (i) is correct

(B) Only (ii) is correct

(D) All are correct

Answer: b

Solution:

Rangsapara village in Goalpara district and Zion village were indeed recognized as among the cleanest villages in the state, with Rangsapara being specifically declared the cleanest village in Assam in 2017.
Rangsapara in Goalpara, Assam, has been recognized as one of the cleanest villages in the state, particularly due to its commitment to cleanliness and its ODF (Open Defecation Free) status. In contrast, Zion’s 25+ population has a high level of education, with all individuals having attained a graduate degree or higher. Hence statement two is correct.

Q25. Consider the following statements about oil in Assam :

(i) Assam is home to India’s first oil refinery, established at Digboi in 1901.

(ii) The major oil-producing districts in Assam include Jorhat, Dibrugarh, but not Tinsukia.

(iii) The Assam oil fields contribute over 50% of India’s total crude

oil production.

(iv) Oil India Limited (OIL) has its headquarters in Duliajan, Assam.

Which of the above statements is/ are correct?

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i) and (iv) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

Answer: b

Solution:

Digboi refinery is known as the birthplace of the oil Industry in India. It was commissioned on 11 December 1901. It has the distinction of being Asia’s first refinery and one of oldest still in operation. Oil was accidentally discovered in 1867 while laying a railway line in the Digboi area.Hence statement one is correct.
The statement that the major oil-producing districts in Assam include Jorhat and Dibrugarh but not Tinsukia is incorrect. Tinsukia is a major oil-producing district in Assam, particularly known for the Digboi oilfield, which is one of the oldest oilfields in India. While Jorhat and Dibrugarh are also oil-producing districts, Digboi in Tinsukia is a significant location for oil extraction. Hence statement two is incorrect.
The statement “The Assam oil fields contribute over 50% of India’s total crude oil production” is incorrect. Assam contributes a significant portion of India’s crude oil production, but it is not the majority. Hence statement three is incorrect.
Oil India Limited (OIL) has its headquarters in Duliajan, Assam. Duliajan is also known as Zaloni in the Nahorkatiya area and is a significant oil city in the region, Hence statement four is correct.

Q26. Based on the 2011 Census data, here is a list of major towns in Assam arranged in descending order of their urban population. Select the correct sequence.

(A) Tinsukia, Tezpur, Jorhat, Dibrugarh

(B) Dibrugarh, Tezpur, Jorhat, Tinsukia

(D) Dibrugarh, Jorhat, Tinsukia, Tezpur

Answer: d

Solution:

The detailed analysis of Population Census 2011 published by Govt. of India for Assam state revealed that the population of Assam has increased by 17.07% in this decade compared (2001-2011) to the past decade (1991-2001). The density of Assam state in the current decade is 1030 per sq mile
- Assam is a State of India with population of Approximate 3.12 Crores.
- The population of Assam state is 31,205,576.
- The density of Assam state is 398 per sq km.
- Assam State is spread over 78,438 Sq Km.

#	District	Sub-Districts	Population	Increase	Sex Ratio	Literacy	Density
1	Nagaon	List	2,823,768	22.00 %	962	72.37 %	711
2	Dhubri	List	1,949,258	24.44 %	953	58.34 %	896
3	Sonitpur	List	1,924,110	15.55 %	956	67.34 %	370
4	Cachar	List	1,736,617	20.19 %	959	79.34 %	459
5	Barpeta	List	1,693,622	21.43 %	953	63.81 %	742
6	Kamrup	List	1,517,542	15.69 %	949	75.55 %	489

7	Tinsukia	List	1,327,929	15.47 %	952	69.66 %	350
8	Dibrugarh	List	1,326,335	11.92 %	961	76.05 %	392
9	Kamrup Metropolitan	List	1,253,938	18.34 %	936	88.71 %	1313
10	Karimganj	List	1,228,686	21.90 %	963	78.22 %	679
11	Sivasagar	List	1,151,050	9.44 %	954	80.41 %	431
12	Jorhat	List	1,092,256	9.31 %	962	82.15 %	383
13	Golaghat	List	1,066,888	12.75 %	964	77.43 %	305

14	Lakhimpur	List	1,042,137	17.22 %	968	77.20 %	458
15	Goalpara	List	1,008,183	22.64 %	964	67.37 %	553
16	Morigaon	List	957,423	23.34 %	967	68.03 %	617
17	Karbi Anglong	List	956,313	17.58 %	951	69.25 %	92
18	Baksa	List	950,075	10.74 %	974	69.25 %	387
19	Darrang	List	928,500	22.19 %	954	63.08 %	586
20	Kokrajhar	List	887,142	5.21 %	959	65.22 %	269
21	Udalguri	List	831,668	9.61 %	973	65.41 %	413
22	Nalbari	List	771,639	11.99 %	949	78.63 %	733
23	Bongaigaon	List	738,804	20.59 %	966	69.74 %	676
24	Dhemaji	List	686,133	19.97 %	953	72.70 %	212
25	Hailakandi	List	659,296	21.45 %	951	74.33 %	497
26	Chirang	List	482,162	11.34 %	969	63.55 %	251
27	Dima Hasao	List	214,102	13.84 %	932	77.54 %	44

Q27. Match the following deserts (List-I) with their respective continents (List-I) (List-II)

Kalahari Desert 1. North America
Atacama Desert 2. Asia
Gobi Desert 3. South America
Great Basin Desert 4. Africa

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) a b C d

4 1 2 3

(B) a b C d

4 3 2 1

4 2 1 3

(D) a b C d

3 4 2 1

Answer: b

Solution:

Kalahari Desert – Africa
- The Kalahari Desert is a large, semi-arid sandy desert in Southern Africa, stretching across Botswana, Namibia, and South Africa.
- It’s known for its unique landscape of red sand dunes, diverse wildlife, and the San people (Bushmen) who have traditionally inhabited the region.

Atacama Desert – South America
- The Atacama Desert, located in South America, is a desert plateau known for its extreme aridity and is the driest non-polar desert in the world. It’s located on the Pacific coast, west of the Andes Mountains, and stretches 1,600 km along the coastline. The desert’s dryness is attributed to factors like the Humboldt Current, the strong Pacific anticyclone, and the rain shadow effect created by the Andes and the Chilean Coast Range.

Gobi Desert – Asia
- The Gobi Desert is a large, cold desert region in Asia, primarily located in northern and northeastern China, and southern Mongolia. It’s the second-largest desert in Asia after the Arabian Desert and the sixth-largest in the world. The Gobi is known for its diverse landscape, including dunes, mountains, and areas of rocky outcrops and gravel plains.

Great Basin Desert – North America
The Great Basin Desert is a large, cold desert in North America, primarily located in the western United States. It’s the largest desert in the USA, covering parts of Nevada, Utah, California, Oregon, Idaho, and Wyoming. Characterized by its high elevation and cold winters, the Great Basin Desert is a “basin and range” system, meaning it comprises numerous north-south mountain ranges separated by basins and valleys.

Q28. Match the (List-I) with following their grasslands respective locations (List-II):

List-I List-II

Pampas 1. North America
Steppes 2. Eurasia
Prairies 3. Argentina
Velds 4. South Africa

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) a b C d

3 2 1 4

(B) a b C d

2 1 3 4

4 3 2 1

(D) a b C d

1 3 4 2

Answer: a

Solution:

Pampas: This grassland is primarily found in Argentina, South America.
Steppes: This grassland is prevalent in Eurasia.
Prairies: This grassland is characteristic of North America.
Veld: This grassland is located in South Africa

Temperate Grasslands

These grasslands are similar to tropical grasslands, except for the climatic conditions. They have cold winters and warm summers with 25 cm and 75 cm. of annual rainfall. Shrublands are the best example of temperate grasslands.
Moreover, these grasslands suffer extreme climates. In the cold season, the temperature can reach up Flooded Grasslands to 0 degrees Fahrenheit. While in the summer season it reaches up to 90 degrees in some areas. The precipitation in these grasslands is mostly in the form of dew and snow.
For instance, some vegetation that grows here are, cacti, sagebrush, perennial grasses, buffalo grass clovers, and wild indigos, etc.

Temperate Grasslands are:

Argentina- Pampas
America- Prairie
South Africa- Veld
Asia- Steppe
Australia- Down

Q29. Which of the following statements about the Paralympic Games is not correct?

(A) The medals tally of India was the highest so far in any Paralympic event with a total of 29 medals in Paris, 2024.

(B) India made its first appearance in the Paralympic event in the year 1968.

(D) The Paralympic motto is ‘Spirit in Motion’.

Answer: c

Solution:

While India did achieve a record number of medals in the 2024 Paris Paralympics with 29, according to current information available, other countries have historically accumulated more medals overall.
India made its first appearance in the Paralympic event in the year 1968.
India’s first participation in the Paralympics was in 1968.
The first Paralympic Games were held in Rome, Italy, in 1960. Hence option c is incorrect.
Spirit in Motion” is the official motto of the Paralympic Games.

Q30. What is the recent India-US ‘TRUST’ initiative related to?

(A) It is a bilateral initiative for mutual cooperation in recovery and processing of critical minerals

(B) It is a bilateral initiative to ease certain import-export regulations between the two countries

(D) None of the above

Answer: a

Solution:

India and the United States have launched a bilateral initiative for cooperation in the recovery and processing of critical minerals, including lithium and rare earth elements (REEs). Hence option a is correct.
Under the Transforming Relationship Utilizing Strategic Technology (TRUST) initiative announced during Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visit to Washington, the two countries will reduce barriers to technology transfer, address export controls, and enhance high tech commerce.

About Critical Minerals

They are elements that are building blocks of essential modern-day technologies and are at risk of supply chain disruptions due to limited global production & geopolitical factors.
Importance:
- Defence: Neodymium, samarium for high-performance magnets used in missiles, fighter jets, and radars.
- Energy: Lithium, cobalt power are used in advanced batteries for energy storage and electric vehicles.
- Medical: Europium, Terbium enhances biotech imaging and medical diagnostics.

Q31. Who among the following is not a Bharat Ratna awardee of the year 2024?

(A) L. K. Advani

(B) M. S. Swaminathan

(D) Karpoori Thakur

Ans C

Explanation:

The Bharat Ratna is India’s highest civilian award. In 2024, five distinguished personalities were honored with this award. They are:

(A) L. K. Advani – Was a Bharat Ratna awardee in 2024.

(B) M. S. Swaminathan – Was a Bharat Ratna awardee in 2024.

(C) Padma Subrahmanyam – Was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2024, but not the Bharat Ratna. She is a renowned Bharatanatyam dancer.

(D) Karpoori Thakur – Was a Bharat Ratna awardee in 2024.

Therefore, the person who is not a Bharat Ratna awardee of the year 2024 from the given options is Padma Subrahmanyam.

Q32. In which of the following areas, the first pig schools of India are to be started to enhance technical knowhow and biosecurity about pig farming in partnership with Denmark?

(A) Bodoland Territorial Region

(B) Dima Hasao district of Assam

(D) Panikhaiti near Guwahati

Answer: (A) Bodoland Territorial Region

Explanation:

The first pig schools in India are planned to be launched in the Bodoland Territorial Region (BTR) of Assam, covering the four districts that border Bhutan. These schools are being developed in partnership with Denmark (Danish Consortium of Academic Craftsmanship and Dalum Landbrugsskole) to enhance technical know‑how and strengthen biosecurity practices in pig farming

Q33. Match the following Prime Ministers

(List-1) with the biographies/autobiographies on them (List-II):

List-I

Narasimha Rao
I. K. Gujral
Manmohan Singh
NarendraModi

List-II

The Accidental Prime Minister
Matters ofDiscretion
The Man Who Remade India
The ParadoxicalPrime Minister

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) a b C d

3 4 1 2

(B) a b C d

3 4 2 1.

1 2 3 4

(D) a b C d

3 2 1 4

Ans. (D)

Correct Matching:

a → 3
b → 2
c → 1
d → 4

Q34. Consider the following statements on Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:

(i) It introduces new crimes like organized crime

(ii) It introduces community service as a punishment.

(iii) It introduces new provisions to eliminate offence on sedition

(iv) It includes mob lynching as an offence.

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

(A) only (i) and (ii) are correct

(B) Only (ii) is correct

(D) All the statements are correct

Ans. D

Explanation:

Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

(i) It introduces new crimes like organized crime
Correct – The BNS 2023 explicitly defines and criminalizes organized crime.

(ii) It introduces community service as a punishment
Correct – Community service is introduced as a form of alternative punishment for petty offences.

(iii) It introduces new provisions to eliminate offence on sedition
Correct – The offence of sedition under Section 124A IPC has been repealed, and a new Section 150 penalizes acts that endanger sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India—marking a shift in legal approach.

(iv) It includes mob lynching as an offence
Correct – The BNS 2023 includes specific provisions criminalizing mob lynching under certain aggravated murder categories.

Q35. The demarcation of any region as Defence Industrial Corridor (DIC) is to achieve self-reliance in defence manufacturing. Two DICs exist in India and the third one has been negotiated by a State with theCentral Government in recent years.

Choose the correct combination of the States/Union Territories on the basis of the above statements.

(A) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu

(B) Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Assam

(D) Assam, Jammu & Kashmir, Gujarat

Ans. B

Explanation:

A Defence Industrial Corridor is a dedicated area planned strategically to promote indigenous production of defence and aerospace-related items.

India has officially approved two DICs:

Uttar Pradesh Defence Industrial Corridor (UP DIC)
Tamil Nadu Defence Industrial Corridor (TN DIC)

Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu are confirmed. Assam has been recently discussed as negotiating for the third.

Q36. The 100th Constitutional Amendment of India enabled the implementation of a controversial international agreement. Which of the following is referred to here?

(A) Land Boundary Agreement

(B) Foreign Direct Investment in Defence

(D) Indo-US Nuclear Deal

Ans. (A) Land Boundary Agreement.

Explanation:

The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015, enabled the operationalization of the Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) between India and Bangladesh. This agreement involved the exchange of enclaves and the demarcation of the border, resolving long-standing boundary disputes. It was considered controversial by some due to the territorial exchanges.

Q37. The Supreme Court of India has placed the Right to Privacy under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

(A) Article 15

(B) Article 16

(D Article 21

Ans. (D) Article 21.

Explanation: In the landmark judgment of K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), the Supreme Court of India unanimously held that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right. The court primarily placed the Right to Privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution, which guarantees the “Protection of Life and Personal Liberty.” The court also noted that it flows from various other fundamental rights, including those under Article 19 (freedom of speech and expression, etc.). However, Article 21 is considered the primary locus for the right to privacy.

Q38. Consider the following statements:

(i) The first Assam Assembly was inaugurated on 7th April, 1937.

(ii) After the 1937 provincial elections in Assam, the Indian National Congress Party secured the most mandate.

(iii) The Legislative Council of Eastern Bengal and Assam was initiated in 1905.

(iv) Baithalangso, Haflong, Bokajan, Howraghat and Diphu Assembly Constituencies fall under the Autonomous District Lok Sabha Constituency.

Which of the above statements is/ are correct?

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (iii) only

(D) (i), (ii), (ii) and (iv)

Ans. D

Explanation:

(i) The first Assam Assembly was inaugurated on 7th April, 1937 and the first sitting of the Assam Legislative Assembly was held on April 7, 1937, at Shillong.

(ii) After the 1937 provincial elections in Assam, the Indian National Congress Party secured the most mandate, emerged as the single largest party in Assam, winning 33 out of 108 seats. Although they didn’t form the first ministry immediately (Sir Muhammed Saadulah formed the ministry), they did secure the most mandate.

(iii) The Legislative Council of Eastern Bengal and Assam was initiated in 1905 while the Legislative Council of Eastern Bengal and Assam started functioning from December 18, 1906.

(iv) Baithalangso, Haflong, Bokajan, Howraghat and Diphu Assembly Constituencies fall under the Autonomous District Lok Sabha Constituency.

Q39. Which of the following are constituted by the President of India?

(i) The Finance Commission of India

(ii)The NITI Aayog

(iii) The Commission on Official Languages

(iv) The Union Commission Public Service

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (iii) and (iv) only

(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

Ans. C

Explanation:

(i) The Finance Commission of India
Constituted by the President under Article 280 of the Constitution every five years.

(ii) The NITI Aayog
Not constituted by the President.

It was established by a cabinet resolution in 2015, not through the Constitution or Presidential action.
It is an executive body, not a constitutional or statutory body.

(iii) The Commission on Official Languages
Constituted by the President under Article 344 of the Constitution to advise on the progressive use of Hindi.

(iv) The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
Constituted by the President under Article 315 of the Constitution.

Q40. Which of the following is/are common feature(s) of both the Indian

and American Federalism?

(i) Single citizenship

(ii) Three lists of division of powers in the Constitution

(iii) Dual Judiciary

(iv) The Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (iv) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (iv) only

Ans. D

Explanation:

(i) Single Citizenship
Not common.

India has single citizenship — all Indians are citizens of India only.
USA has dual citizenship — one for the federal (national) level and another for the state.

(ii) Three lists of division of powers in the Constitution
Not common.

India has a three-fold distribution of powers — Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
USA has only two levels — federal and state, and powers are enumerated mainly for the federal level, with residual powers left to states.

(iii) Dual Judiciary
Not common.

USA has a dual judiciary — federal and state courts operate independently.
India has a unified judiciary, with the Supreme Court at the top and High Courts below, but part of a single integrated judicial system.

(iv) The Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution
Common feature.

In both India and the USA, the Supreme Court is the final interpreter of the Constitution and has the power of judicial review.

Q41. Which of the following comes under the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(A) The State shall strive to promote science and technology

for development

(B) The State shall endeavour to secure citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout India

planning

(D) The State shall take necessary steps for promoting tourism

Answer:- (B)

Explanation

The Uniform Civil Code (UCC), under Article 44 of the Indian Constitution, is a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP).
This means the state is expected to work towards implementing a uniform set of personal laws for all citizens, regardless of their religious background, concerning matters like marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption.

Q42. In which of the following States, there is a constitutional requirement to have a minister in charge of tribal welfare?

(A) Assam, Nagaland and Manipur

(B) Himachal Pradesh, Haryana and Rajasthan

(D) Manipur, Tripura and Meghalaya

Answer:- (C)

Explanation

According to Article 164(1) of the Indian Constitution, the states that are constitutionally required to have a Minister in charge of tribal welfare are Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, and Odisha.

Key points about Article 164(1):

Ministerial appointment: The Governor appoints the Council of Ministers, including the Minister in charge of tribal welfare, on the advice of the Chief Minister.
Collective responsibility: The entire Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the state’s legislative assembly.
Oath of office: Before assuming office, ministers must take an oath of office and secrecy

Which of the following States was the last one to get the status of full statehood?

(A) Sikkim

(B) Manipur

(D) Meghalaya

Answer:- (C)

Explanation

Sikkim became a full-fledged state of India on May 16, 1975, through the Constitution (36th Amendment) Act, 1975. Previously, it was designated as an Associate State of India in 1974 via the 35th Constitutional Amendment. The 36th Amendment made Sikkim a full-fledged state and repealed the previous 35th Amendment.
Manipur became a state along with Meghalaya and Tripura on January 21, 1972.
Arunachal Pradesh became a state on February 20, 1987.
Meghalaya became a state on January 21, 1972.

Q44. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, a special provision is made for the State of Assam?

(A) Article 371A

(B) Article 371C

(D) Article 371D

Answer:- (C)

Explanation

The Indian Constitution’s Article 371B provides special provisions for the state of Assam.
Specifically, it allows the President to make provisions for the constitution and functions of a committee within the Assam Legislative Assembly, with members from tribal areas and other specified members, and to modify the Assembly’s rules of procedure for the committee.
Article 371, under part XXI of the Indian Constitution, grants some temporary, transitional and special powers for certain States.
- It has been part of the Constitution since 26 January, 1950.
- However, Articles 371(A-J) was brought in via amendments through Article 368.
There are 12 other States that enjoy special powers under Article 371 of the Constitution. These include Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Goa, and Karnataka.
- The Centre has also suggested that it is considering the extension of Article 371-like protection to Ladakh.
- Special provisions under this article range from protection to ownership of land to establishment of development boards.

Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India grants the Supreme Court of India the power to review its own judgements and orders?

(A) Article 78

(B) Article 234

(D) Article 137

Answer:- (D)

Explanation

Article 137 of the Constitution of India grants the Supreme Court the power to review any of its judgments or orders.
This power is subject to any laws made by Parliament or rules made under Article 145.
The Supreme Court can review judgments it has pronounced or orders it has made.

Q46. Match the following Chief Ministers of Assam (List-I) with their corresponding periods of service (List-II):

List-I List-II

Bishnuram Medhi 1. 28th Dec, 1957- 6th Nov, 1970
Mahendra Mohan Choudhurу 2. 26th Jan, 1950- 5th Aug, 1950
Bimala Prasad Chaliha 3. 9th Aug, 1950- 27th Dec, 1957
Gopinath Bordoloi 4. 11th Nov, 1970- 30th Jan, 1972

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) a b C d

1 2 3 4

(В) a b c d

3 4 1 2

3 4 2 1

(D) a b C d

3 1 4 2

Answer:- (B)

Explanation

Bishnuram Medhi served as the Chief Minister of Assam from 9th Aug, 1950- 27th Dec, 1957.
Mahendra Mohan Choudhurу served as the Chief Minister of Assam from 11th Nov, 1970- 30th Jan, 1972.
Bimala Prasad Chaliha served as the Chief Minister of Assam from 28th Dec, 1957- 6th Nov, 1970
Gopinath Bordoloi served as the Chief Minister of Assam from 26th Jan, 1950- 5th Aug, 1950.

Q47. Which of the following best explains why courts appoint an amicus curiae in criminal matters?

(A) To ensure that the prosecution has adequate resources to

argue its case

(B) To expedite the trial process for efficiency

(D) To act as a mediator between the accused and the victim

Answer:- (C)

Explanation

Courts appoint an amicus curiae in criminal matters primarily to ensure the accused receives a fair trial and the court has sufficient legal expertise to make a just decision. Specifically, an amicus curiae is appointed when the accused is unrepresented or when the court needs expert assistance in complex cases.

Key Points:-

Ensuring a Fair Trial for the Unrepresented Accused:

The court may appoint an amicus curiae if the accused is unrepresented or unable to represent themselves effectively.
This ensures that the accused has legal representation and can present their case properly, particularly in cases where the accused might face a life sentence or the death penalty.
The amicus curiae’s role is to defend the accused’s interests and argue their case before the court.

Providing Expert Guidance in Complex Cases:

The court may also appoint an amicus curiae to provide expert legal advice when dealing with complex legal questions or when the court needs assistance in understanding the implications of specific legal provisions.
This is particularly relevant in cases involving constitutional rights or where the court needs guidance on complex issues.
The amicus curiae can assist the court in interpreting the law and ensuring that the rights of the accused are protected.

Ensuring a Just Outcome:

By appointing an amicus curiae, the court aims to ensure that the final decision is just and fair, even if the accused is unrepresented or the case is complex.
The amicus curiae’s role is to provide independent and impartial advice to the court, helping to ensure that all relevant issues are considered and that the accused receives a fair hearing.

Q48. The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ has several elements, some of which are as follows –

(i) Absence of arbitrary powey

(ii) Equality before law

(iii) Primacy of the rights of the individual

(iv) Cannot be destroyed by an amendment

Which of the above are applicable to the Indian system?

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(D) only (i) (ii) and (iv)

Answer:- (D)

Explanation

The concept of “Rule of Law” emphasizes that everyone, including the government, is subject to the law.
The Indian Constitution is the primary source of law in India and embodies the principles of the Rule of Law.
The Indian judiciary plays a crucial role in interpreting and upholding the Rule of Law.

Key Concepts:-

Absence of arbitrary power:

- - This principle means that the government cannot act arbitrarily or without following established laws. The Indian Constitution explicitly upholds this principle through various provisions, particularly Article 14 which guarantees equality before the law and prohibits discrimination.

Equality before the law:

- - This principle states that all citizens are equal under the law and should be treated equally regardless of their social status, gender, religion, or other factors. This is a cornerstone principle of the Indian Constitution as enshrined in Article 14.

Primacy of the rights of the individual:

- The Indian Constitution protects a wide range of fundamental rights, such as the right to freedom of speech, expression, religion, and movement. These rights are considered primary and are protected from arbitrary infringement by the state.

Q49. W. W. Rostow’s model of economic development proposes that all countries progress through five stages. What is the correct sequence of the five stages?

(A) (i) Traditional society, (ii) Preconditions for takeoff, (iii) Takeoff, (iv) Age of high mass consumption, (v) Drive to maturity

(B) (i) Traditional society, (ii) Takeoff, (iii) Pre-conditions for takeoff, (iv) Drive to maturity, (v) Age of high mass consumption

(C) (i) Traditional society, (ii) Preconditions for takeoff, (iii) Takeoff, (iv) Drive to maturity, (v) Age of high mass consumption

(D) (i) Traditional society, (ii) Preconditions for takeoff, (iii) Age of high mass consumption, (iv) Drive to maturity, (v) Take- off

Answer:- (C)

Explanation

Rostow’s Stages of Economic Growth model proposes that nations progress through five distinct stages to achieve economic development.
These stages are: Traditional Society, Preconditions to Take-off, Take-off, Drive to Maturity, and Age of High Mass Consumption.

Traditional Society:

This is the initial stage characterized by a subsistence agricultural economy with limited technology and a social structure that is largely unchanged.

Preconditions to Take-off:

This stage marks a shift toward change, with societies beginning to adopt new technologies, develop manufacturing, and expand their horizons beyond local areas.

Take-off:

This is a period of rapid growth and industrialization, driven by new technologies and investment in manufacturing sectors.

Drive to Maturity:

This stage involves further diversification of industries, investment in infrastructure, and improvement in living standards.

Age of High Mass Consumption:

This final stage is characterized by a high standard of living, with mass production catering to the consumer demands of a wealthy population.

Q50. Biofuels offer a viable alternative towards an environmentally friendly energy landscape. Which of the following statements regarding use of biofuels to meet energy demands are correct?

(i) Aggressive use and production of first-generation biofuels may threaten food security.

(ii) Production of first-generation biofuels is not environmentally friendly.

(iii) A concern regarding biofuels is that extensive cultivation of plants for extracting biofuels may increase deforestation and habitat destruction.

(iv) Biofuel production will lead to large amounts of toxic metallic waste which may adversely affect human health.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (i) and (iv) only

Answer:- (A)

Explanation

First-generation biofuels often require land that could otherwise be used for growing food crops. This leads to increased land use for biofuel production, reducing the area available for food cultivation.
To compensate for land used for biofuels, other areas, including forests or natural ecosystems, may be cleared for agriculture. This can have negative impacts on biodiversity, carbon storage, and other environmental factors.
Large-scale biofuel production could lead to deforestation and habitat destruction. The conversion of natural ecosystems into agricultural land for biofuel crops can result in habitat loss and decreased biodiversity. Additionally, some biofuel production processes, especially those using crops also used for food, may increase the pressure on land resources and potentially lead to further deforestation.
Biofuel production does release toxic metallic waste but not in large amounts.

Q51. List-I gives the names of satellites launched by ISRO and List-II gives the names of the types of satellites.

Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

(Names of satellites) (Types of satellites)

RISAT-2BR2 1. Meteorological
Megha-Tropiques 2. Earth observation
AstroSat 3. Solar coronal
Aditya-L1 observation 4. Study high-energy processes in binary star system

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

2 1 4 3

a b c d

1 2 3 4

a b с d

4 3 2 1

a b с d

3 4 1 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

Satellite	Type
RISAT-2BR2	Earth Observation (2)
Megha-Tropiques	Meteorological (1)
AstroSat	Study high-energy processes (4)
Aditya-L1	Solar coronal observation (3)

a. RISAT-2BR2 → Earth Observation (Match: 2)

RISAT-2BR2 is part of ISRO’s Radar Imaging Satellite (RISAT) series. It was launched on December 11, 2019.

It carries a Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) that enables high-resolution imaging regardless of weather or lighting conditions.
Its main applications include agriculture monitoring, disaster management, surveillance, and Earth resource management.
It can capture images at night and through cloud cover, making it crucial for earth observation and remote sensing.
Hence, it is correctly matched with Earth Observation (2).

b. Megha-Tropiques → Meteorological Satellite (Match: 1)

Megha-Tropiques is an Indo-French joint satellite mission, launched in October 2011.

The word “Megha” means cloud and “Tropiques” means tropics.
It is designed to study the tropical atmosphere, particularly the water cycle and energy exchanges.
Instruments on board monitor humidity, temperature, rainfall, and clouds, making it vital for climate and weather studies.
Therefore, Megha-Tropiques is correctly matched with Meteorological (1).

c. AstroSat → Study High-Energy Processes in Binary Star Systems (Match: 4)

AstroSat, launched on September 28, 2015, is India’s first dedicated space-based multi-wavelength observatory.

It observes the universe in optical, ultraviolet, and X-ray bands.
Key scientific objectives include the study of:
- High-energy binary star systems
- Black holes and neutron stars
- Supernova remnants
It is used to explore energetic processes in space, especially in X-ray binaries, which are systems with a compact object (like a black hole) and a companion star.
So, it is correctly matched with Study of high-energy processes in binary star systems (4).

d. Aditya-L1 → Solar Coronal Observation (Match: 3)

Aditya-L1 is India’s first solar mission, launched in September 2023.

It is positioned at Lagrangian Point 1 (L1), which provides a continuous view of the Sun without interruptions like eclipses.
Its key objective is to observe and understand:
- Solar corona and solar flares
- Solar wind and magnetic storms
- Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs)
The mission helps study how solar activity affects space weather, which in turn impacts satellites and communications on Earth.
Thus, it is correctly matched with Solar coronal observation (3).

Q52. Nanomaterials are usually considered to be materials with at least one external dimension that measures 100 nanometres or less. Consider the following statements regarding nanomaterials:

(i) They are toxic and carcinogenic.

(ii) Graphene is a well-known nanomaterial.

(iii) Nanoscale titanium dioxide can be used in sunscreen lotion.

(iv) Paints made from nano gold do not fade with time.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (i) and (iv) only

(D) All the statements are correct

Ans. (D) All the statements are correct

Explanation:

Statement one: They are toxic and carcinogenic
This statement is conditionally correct.

Some nanomaterials such as carbon nanotubes, nano silver, and certain metal oxides have been shown to cause potential health risks like DNA damage, oxidative stress, and inflammation under laboratory conditions.
The International Agency for Research on Cancer has classified titanium dioxide as possibly carcinogenic when inhaled in powder form, although it is safe in sunscreens.
While it is not universally true that all nanomaterials are toxic or carcinogenic, the potential exists under certain conditions.
Therefore, if interpreted carefully, the statement can be considered broadly correct.

Statement two: Graphene is a well-known nanomaterial
This is correct.

Graphene is a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice.
It is only one atom thick and falls well within the nanoscale range. It has gained international attention for its exceptional mechanical strength, thermal conductivity, and electrical properties.
It is widely studied and used in electronics, sensors, batteries, and advanced materials.

Statement three: Nanoscale titanium dioxide can be used in sunscreen lotion
This is correct.

- Titanium dioxide at the nanoscale is commonly used in sunscreens because it provides ultraviolet protection without leaving a white residue on the skin.
- It is transparent and effective at blocking both UVA and UVB rays.
- Regulatory authorities including the Food and Drug Administration and the European Union have approved its use in cosmetics and sunscreens.

Statement four: Paints made from nano gold do not fade with time
This is correct.

Gold nanoparticles exhibit color due to a physical phenomenon known as surface plasmon resonance, not because of chemical pigmentation. As a result, the color remains stable over time.
Historical artifacts such as stained glass windows from the Roman period have retained their brilliance due to embedded nano gold. N
ano gold does not oxidize or corrode and maintains its optical properties, making it highly resistant to fading.

Q53. Consider the following statements:

(i) Initially, ITER was called Indian Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor.

(ii) ITER is a nuclear fusion research and engineering megaproject.

(iii) ITER is a nuclear fission research and engineering megaproject.

(iv) ITER means ‘the way’ or ‘the path’ in Latin.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) only

(D) (ii) and (iv) only

Answer: D

Explanation:

(i) Initially, ITER was called Indian Thermonuclear Reactor. Experimental
Incorrect.
ITER does not stand for “Indian Thermonuclear Reactor.” It originally stood for International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor, though now it’s used as a standalone name. It is not an Indian project alone—India is one of the international partners.

(ii) ITER is a nuclear fusion and engineering research megaproject.
Correct.
ITER is a nuclear fusion research project aimed at demonstrating the feasibility of fusion energy, being built in France with collaboration from multiple countries (including India, USA, EU, China, etc.).

(iii) ITER is a nuclear fission research megaproject and engineering
Incorrect.
ITER deals with nuclear fusion, not fission. Fusion combines light nuclei (like hydrogen isotopes), whereas fission splits heavy nuclei (like uranium).

(iv) ITER means ‘the way’ or ‘the path’ in Latin.
Correct.
“ITER” indeed means “the way” or “the path” in Latin, symbolizing its goal to pave the way for fusion energy.

Q54. Consider the following statements:

(i) Particular messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules, which are smaller than their average size, are called microRNA (miRNA).

(ii) miRNA are small, singlestranded, non-coding RNA molecules.

(iii) miRNA molecules play a crucial role in gene regulation.

(iv) People have known about miRNA since the early 1980s.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (ii) and (iv) only

Answer: B

Explanation:

(i) Particular messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules, which are smaller than their average size, are called microRNA (miRNA).– Incorrect.
miRNA is not a smaller form of mRNA.
microRNAs are non-coding RNA molecules, not messenger RNAs. They do not code for proteins and are fundamentally different from mRNAs, which carry genetic instructions for protein synthesis.

(ii) miRNA are small, single-stranded, non-coding RNA molecules.–Correct.
miRNAs are typically ~20–24 nucleotides long, single-stranded, and non-coding. They function mainly in post-transcriptional regulation of gene expression.

(iii) miRNA molecules play a crucial role in gene regulation.–Correct.
miRNAs regulate gene expression by binding to complementary sequences on target mRNAs, leading to their degradation or inhibition of translation. This is vital in many biological processes like development, differentiation, and disease.

(iv) People knew about miRNA since the early 1980s–Incorrect.
miRNAs were discovered in 1993 in the nematode C. elegans. Their importance became widely recognized only in the early 2000s.

Q55. Consider the following statements:

(i) Indian scientist Satyendra Nath Bose developed the foundation of a quantum statistics called Bose-Einstein statistics.

(ii) A class of elementary subatomic particles called boson was named after Satyendra Nath Bose by P. A. M. Dirac.

(iii) Einstein used Satyendra Nath Bose’s radical ideas to develop the theory of a phenomenon called Bose-Einstein condensate.

(iv) Satyendra Nath Bose was awarded India’s second highest

civilian award, the Padma Vibhushan.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) All the statements are correct

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

Ans. A

Explanation:

(i) Indian scientist Satyendra Nath Bose developed the foundation of a quantum statistics called Bose-Einstein statistics.–Correct.

S.N. Bose laid the foundation of Bose-Einstein statistics through his work on photons, which was later extended by Albert Einstein to atoms.

(ii) A class of elementary sub-atomic particles called boson was named after Satyendra Nath Bose by P. A. M. Dirac.–Correct.

The term boson was indeed coined by Paul Dirac to honor S.N. Bose.

(iii) Einstein used Satyendra Nath Bose’s radical ideas to develop the theory of a phenomenon called Bose-Einstein condensate.–Correct.

Einstein built upon Bose’s work to predict the Bose-Einstein Condensate, a new state of matter observed at ultra-cold temperatures.

(iv) Satyendra Nath Bose was awarded India’s second highest civilian award, the Padma Vibhushan in 1954- correct.

Q56. Consider the following statements:

(i) Dark oxygen was discovered in 2013 by Andrew Sweetman while conducting ship-based fieldwork in the Pacific Ocean.

(ii) Dark oxygen was discovered in 2013 by Andrew Sweetman while conducting research on dusty plasma in cometary tails.

(iii) Dark oxygen refers to molecular oxygen that is produced in the total darkness of the very deep ocean.

(iv) Dark oxygen refers to the medical oxygen

cylinders, which

are sold in the black market.

Which of the above statements is/ are correct?

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) only

(D) (i) and (iii only

Ans. D

Explanation:

(i) Dark oxygen was discovered in 2013 by Andrew Sweetman while conducting ship-based fieldwork in the Pacific Ocean.–Correct.
Andrew Sweetman and team discovered evidence of oxygen being produced in deep-sea sediments — even in the absence of sunlight — during fieldwork in the Pacific Ocean in 2013.

(ii) Dark oxygen was discovered in 2013 by Andrew Sweetman while conducting research on dusty plasma in cometary tails.–Incorrect.
This is completely unrelated. Dark oxygen discovery is linked to marine biology and oceanography, not to astrophysics or cometary tails.

(iii) Dark oxygen refers to molecular oxygen that is produced in the total darkness of the very deep ocean.–Correct.
This is the correct scientific definition of dark oxygen — oxygen produced without sunlight, possibly by microbes using alternative biochemical pathways.

(iv) Dark oxygen refers to the medical oxygen cylinders, which are sold in the black market.–Incorrect.
This is not a scientific definition of dark oxygen — this is unrelated and misleading.

About Dark Oxygen-

Dark oxygen refers to molecular oxygen (O₂) that is produced in environments completely devoid of sunlight, such as the deep ocean or sediment layers far below the surface.

Key Features of Dark Oxygen:

Discovered in 2013 by Andrew Sweetman and his team during ship-based fieldwork in the Pacific Ocean.
It challenged the long-held belief that photosynthesis was the only natural process producing oxygen.
“Dark” refers to absence of sunlight, not color.

Production:

Dark oxygen is believed to be produced through non-photosynthetic microbial processes, including:

Chlorite dismutation: Some microbes break down chlorite (ClO₂⁻) into chloride (Cl⁻) and oxygen (O₂).
Nitrite oxidation and ammonia oxidation under anaerobic conditions.
Perchlorate-reducing bacteria may also release oxygen as a by-product.

Importance:

Explains the presence of oxygen in some deep-sea or anoxic environments where sunlight doesn’t reach.
Has implications for our understanding of early life on Earth, since dark oxygen production could have supported aerobic life before the atmosphere became oxygen-rich.
Could influence climate and biogeochemical cycles in deep marine ecosystems.
May also impact astrobiology — the search for life on other planets without sunlight.

Q57. If an object undergoes a uniform circular motion, then its-

(A) acceleration remains uniform

(B) velocity changes

(D) velocity remains uniform

Ans. B

Explanation:
In uniform circular motion, an object moves in a circle at constant speed, but since the direction of motion is continuously changing, the velocity also changes (because velocity is a vector, which depends on both magnitude and direction).

The object has a centripetal acceleration directed towards the center of the circle.
Although the magnitude of acceleration remains constant, its direction keeps changing.
Hence, the velocity is not uniform, and option B is correct.

Q58. The tendency of a liquid drop to contract and occupy minimum area is due to –

(A) surface tension

(B) viscosity

(D) vapour pressure

Ans. A

Explanation:

Surface tension is the property of a liquid surface that causes it to behave like a stretched elastic sheet.
Molecules at the surface experience an inward cohesive force that pulls them toward the interior of the liquid, minimizing surface area.
That is why small liquid drops become spherical, the shape with the least surface area for a given volume.
Viscosity refers to internal friction, not surface behavior. Density and vapor pressure are unrelated to this contracting behavior.

Therefore, the correct explanation is linked to surface tension, and option A is correct.

Q59. Match the following books (List-I) with the names (List-II):

List-I List-II

India Against Itself : Assam and the Politics of Nationality 1. Udayon Misra
Burden of History: Assam and the Partition-Unresolved Issues 2. Sanjib Baruah
Writing on the Wall : Reflections on the North-East 3. Nani Gopal Mahanta
Confronting the State:ULFA’s Quest for Sovereignty 4. Sanjoy Hazarika

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) a b C d

2 1 4 3

(B) a b C d

1 2 4 3

2 1 3 4

(D) a b c d

1 2 3 4

Ans. A

Explanation:

a → 2

b → 1

c → 4

d → 3

Sanjib Baruah wrote India Against Itself, which explores political identity and autonomy issues in Assam.
Udayon Misra authored Burden of History, focusing on the complex legacies of Partition in the region.
Sanjoy Hazarika is known for Writing on the Wall, which gives insights into conflicts and challenges in the Northeast.
Nani Gopal Mahanta has written on insurgency and state responses, notably Confronting the State, focusing on ULFA.

Thus, the correct and fact-checked answer is option A.

Q60. Which of the following statements are true about Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)?

(i) SDGs, also known as the Global Goals, were adopted by the United Nations in 2015.

(ii) It was a universal call to action to end poverty, protect the

planet and ensure that by 2030 all people enjoy peace and prosperity.

(iii) The 17 SDGs are integrated, they recognize that action in one area will affect outcomes in others and development must balance social, economic and environmental sustainability.

(iv) The SDGs are designed to end poverty, hunger, AIDS and discrimination against women and girls.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (iii) and (iv) only

Ans. C

Explanation:

(i) SDGs, also known as the Global Goals, were adopted by the United Nations in 2015-Correct.
The 17 SDGs were adopted in September 2015 by all UN Member States as part of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.

(ii) It was a universal call to action to end poverty, protect the planet and ensure that by 2030 all people enjoy peace and prosperity-Correct.
This is the core mission of the SDGs — to promote inclusive and sustainable development.

(iii) The 17 SDGs are integrated—they recognize that action in one area will affect outcomes in others and development must balance social, economic and environmental sustainability-Correct.
The SDGs are interconnected. For example, improving education (Goal 4) also promotes gender equality (Goal 5) and economic growth (Goal 8).

(iv) The SDGs are designed to end poverty, hunger, and discrimination against women and girls-Correct.

Indeed, ending poverty (Goal 1), ending hunger (Goal 2), and achieving gender equality (Goal 5) are among the core targets of the SDGs.

Q61. Match the following authors (List-I) with the books (List-II):

List-I List-II

Amartya Sen 1. The End of Poverty: Economic Possibilities for Our Time
Abhijit Banerjee and Esther Duflo 2. The World is Flat
Jeffrey D. Sachs 3. Poor Economics
Thomas Friedman 4. Development as Freedom

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) a b C d

1 2 3 4

(B) a b C d

4 3 1 2

3 4 2 1

(D) a b C d

1 3 2 4

Answer: b

Explanation:

a → 4
b → 3
c → 1
d → 2

Amartya Sen → Development as Freedom

Amartya Sen is a Nobel Prize-winning economist.
His book “Development as Freedom” argues that development should be evaluated less by material output and more by the capabilities and freedoms people enjoy.
It introduces key concepts of capability approach and freedom as both the means and the end of development.

Abhijit Banerjee and Esther Duflo → Poor Economics

Abhijit Banerjee and Esther Duflo are also Nobel laureates in Economics.
Their book “Poor Economics” is based on extensive field research and randomized controlled trials (RCTs) to understand how poor people make decisions.
It challenges common assumptions about poverty and offers evidence-based policy insights.

Jeffrey D. Sachs → The End of Poverty: Economic Possibilities for Our Time

Jeffrey Sachs is an American economist known for his work on global poverty, development, and sustainability.
In “The End of Poverty”, he outlines strategies to end extreme poverty by 2025, emphasizing targeted development assistance and policy reform.

Thomas Friedman → The World is Flat

Thomas Friedman is a journalist and author specializing in globalization and international affairs.
His book “The World is Flat” explores how technological and political changes have leveled the global economic playing field, with a focus on outsourcing, supply chains, and global collaboration.

Q62. Which of the following is not published by the UNDP?

(A) The Human Development Index

(B) The Global Hunger Index

(D) The Global Multi-dimensional Poverty Index

Answer: b

Explanation:

The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite index published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in its annual Human Development Report.
The Gender Inequality Index (GII) and the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) are also published by UNDP, in collaboration with other institutions like the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative for MPI.
However, the Global Hunger Index (GHI) is not published by UNDP. It is jointly released by Concern Worldwide (an Irish humanitarian organization) and Welthungerhilfe (a German NGO).
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Q63. The Government of Assam has introduced various schemes to help

the poor, livelihood and selfemployment. Match the following schemes (List-I) with their provisions (List-II):

List-I List-II

Orunodoi Scheme 1. Pension scheme for senior citizens covering all eligible individuals in the State
Assam Arogya Nidhi Scheme 2. A flagship scheme under Assam State Rural Livelihood Mission aiming to generate sustainable livelihood for women in rural areas by forming Self-Help Groups (SHGs)
Swahid Kushal Konwar Sarbajanin Briddha Pension Achoni 3. A major poverty alleviation programme that provides monthly financial assistance to poor households through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT)
Kanaklata Mahila Sabalikaran Yojana 4. Provides financial assistance for the treatment of serious diseases and injuries including those caused by natural or manmade disasters, for families with an annual income of less than 5 lakhs

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) a b с d

3 4 1- 2

(B) a b с d

4 3 2 1

3 1 2 4

(D) a b c d

1 4 2 3 3

Answer: a

a → 3
b → 4
c → 1
d → 2

Explanation:

Orunodoi Scheme: It is Assam’s largest Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) scheme providing monthly financial assistance to poor households, especially women, for nutritional and medical needs. So, it matches with provision 3.
Assam Arogya Nidhi Scheme: It offers financial aid for medical treatment to families with income below five lakhs, particularly for diseases and injuries. So, it matches with provision 4.
Swahid Kushal Konwar Sarbajanin Briddha Pension Achoni: This is a universal pension scheme for senior citizens in Assam, covering all eligible persons without discrimination. So, it matches with provision 1.
Kanaklata Mahila Sabalikaran Yojana: A scheme aimed at women empowerment by forming Self Help Groups (SHGs) under Assam State Rural Livelihood Mission. So, it matches with provision 2.

Q64. Which of the following statements regarding post-development

Is the theory true?

(i) Arturo Escobar is one of the leading post-development scholars.

(ii) Post-development is an argument for alternatives to development.

(iii) Developing countries should be able to make decisions for themselves based on their own choices, on their own discourses.

(iv) Post-development theory argues that there is no universal mode

of development to be followed.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

Answer: b

Explanation:

Statement (i): Arturo Escobar is indeed one of the most prominent scholars in post-development theory. His influential work “Encountering Development” critiques the development discourse as a Western-imposed model.
Statement (ii): Post-development theory advocates alternatives to development, especially questioning the traditional notions of progress and modernization.
Statement (iii): A key tenet of post-development is that developing countries should have autonomy in defining their development paths, drawing from their own cultures, needs, and discourses.
Statement (iv): The theory argues that there is no single universal model of development. Instead, it supports pluralism and locally driven alternatives, rejecting the idea of one-size-fits-all growth models.

All four statements accurately represent the post-development perspective.

Q65. The criteria for identifying Particularly Vulnerable Tribal

Groups (PVTGS) are-

(i) pre-agricultural level of technology

(ii) low level of literacy

(iii) economic backwardness

(iv) a declining or stagnant population

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (iii) and (iv) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: d

Explanation:
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Government of India, recognizes PVTGs based on the following criteria:

Pre-agricultural level of technology: These groups are often dependent on hunting, gathering, or shifting cultivation, without settled agriculture.
Low level of literacy: Education levels among PVTGs are far below the national and even tribal averages.
Economic backwardness: They have minimal access to resources, livelihoods, and infrastructure, leading to high levels of poverty.
Declining or stagnant population: Demographic vulnerability, including low growth or decreasing population, is a critical concern.

All four criteria are officially used for identifying PVTGs.

Q66. The Social Development Index (SDI) is a composite index that considers important dimensions of social development such as

(i) demographic parameters

(ii) health indicators and educątional attainment

(iii) basic amenities and economic deprivation

(iv) social deprivation parameters

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (iii) and (iv) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: D

Explanation:

The Social Development Index (SDI) uses a variety of indicators to measure social progress, including health, education, and economic factors, often incorporating elements of the Human Development Index (HDI).
Human Development:
- Life Expectancy: Measures the average lifespan of a population.
- Education: Includes indicators like mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling.
- Income: Measures a country’s Gross National Income (GNI) per capita.
Social Progress Index (SPI):
- Basic Human Needs:
  This includes indicators like nutrition, healthcare, shelter, and sanitation.
- Foundations of Well-being:
  This covers aspects like access to safe drinking water, access to sanitation, and quality of housing.
- Opportunity:
  This measures aspects of freedom, access to education, and political rights.
Other Relevant Indicators:
- Health Indicators: This includes indicators like maternal mortality rate, infant mortality rate, and life expectancy at birth.
- Education Indicators: This includes literacy rates, enrollment rates, and years of schooling.
- Economic Indicators: This includes GDP per capita, income inequality, and poverty rates.
- Social Indicators: This includes indicators like social inclusion, gender equality, and political representation.
Hence all are correct.

Q67. Which of the following is a graphical representation of income distribution used to calculate the Gini coefficient?

(A) Pareto chart

(B) Lorenz curve

(D) Kuznets curve

Answer: b

Explanation:

- The Lorenz curve is a graphical representation used to illustrate the distribution of income or wealth within a population. It compares the actual distribution of income or wealth to a hypothetical scenario of perfect equality where everyone receives the same share. The further the curve deviates from the line of perfect equality, the greater the inequality in the distribution.
  - Inequality:The distance between the Lorenz curve and the line of perfect equality indicates the degree of inequality. A curve closer to the diagonal line suggests a more equal distribution, while a curve further away indicates higher inequality
  - Gini Coefficient: The area between the Lorenz curve and the line of perfect equality is related to the Gini coefficient, a measure of income inequality. Hence option b is correct.

A Pareto chart, also known as a Pareto diagram or Pareto graph, is a type of chart that combines a bar chart and a line graph to visually represent the relative importance of different factors contributing to a problem or outcome. It helps identify the “vital few” factors that contribute to the majority of the problem, often following the 80/20 rule.

The income-consumption curve is a graph of the optimal points of consumption given varying levels of income based on the consumer’s preferences. The curve is a positive-sloped gradient that runs through each possible budget constraint at the point at which an indifference curve is tangent to it.
The environmental Kuznets curve (EKC) is a hypothesized relationship between environmental quality and economic development: various indicators of environmental degradation tend to get worse as modern economic growth occurs until average income reaches a certain point over the course of development.

Q68. Which of the following is not a fiscal instrument?

(A) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)

(B) Goods and Services Tax (GST)

(D) Subsidy

Answer: a

Explanation:

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): This is a tool of monetary policy, not fiscal policy. It refers to the percentage of deposits that banks are required to hold in reserve with the central bank, impacting the amount of money available for lending, and is controlled by the central bank. Hence option a is correct.
Goods and Services Tax (GST): GST is a tax levied on the supply of goods and services, considered a fiscal instrument as it is used by the government to influence spending and revenue.
Income Tax: Income tax is another direct tax levied on individual income, directly impacting government revenue and expenditure, making it a fiscal instrument.
Subsidy: A subsidy is a direct payment made by the government to producers or consumers to lower the price of a good or service, considered a fiscal instrument as it involves government spending.

Q69. Which of the following conducts the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI)?

(A) The Reserve Bank of India

(B) The Department of Economic Affairs

(D) The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

Answer: d

Explanation:

Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) ASI is the primary source of industrial statistics in India .
It was initiated in 1960 as per the Collection of Statistics Act of 1953 , with the year 1959 as the base year and has been conducted annually since 1972 .
ASI has been conducting this survey since the year 2010-11 under the Collection of Statistics Act, 2008 , which was amended in the year 2017 to extend it to all India level
The National Statistical Office (NSO) , a part of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) , operates the ASI. The Department of Statistics and Programme Implementation is responsible for ensuring the coverage and quality of statistics released by the Ministry. Hence option d is correct.

Q70. An increase in the tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following?

(i) Larger fiscal ability

(ii) Equitable distribution of income

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) only

(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)

Answer: a

Explanation:

The tax to GDP ratio is the proportion of a country’s gross domestic product collected through taxes.
An increase in this ratio means the government is collecting more taxes relative to the size of the economy, which implies greater fiscal capacity or fiscal ability—i.e., the government has more revenue to spend on development, welfare, and infrastructure.
However, this does not automatically ensure equitable income distribution, because:
- If the tax system is regressive (e.g., heavy reliance on indirect taxes), it may even worsen inequality.
- Equitable distribution depends on how the taxes are structured and how the revenues are spent.

Thus, only statement (i) is correct.

Q71. Arrange the following accidents/episodes in ascending (yearwise) order:

(i) Bhopal Gas Tragedy

(il) Chernobyl Disaster

(ii) Pukushima Dalichi Disaster

(iv) Oil Spill in the Gulf of Mexico

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A)(i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(B) (iii)(ii)(iv) (i)

(D)(ii)(iii)(i)(iv)

Ans; a

Explanation:
Let us list these major disasters with the exact year:

Bhopal Gas Tragedy – 1984
- Occurred on the night of December 2–3, 1984, in Bhopal, India, due to a gas leak at the Union Carbide pesticide plant.
Chernobyl Disaster – 1986
- A catastrophic nuclear accident that occurred on April 26, 1986, in the Soviet Union (now Ukraine).
Oil Spill in the Gulf of Mexico (Deepwater Horizon) – 2010
- Occurred in April 2010; one of the largest marine oil spills in history.
Fukushima Daiichi Disaster – 2011
- A nuclear disaster triggered by a tsunami following the Tōhoku earthquake in March 2011 in Japan.

Q72. Consider the following National Parks of Assam and arrange them in ascending order with respect to the year of declaration as National Park:

(i) Raimona National Park

(ii) Manas National Park

(iii) Dibru-Saikhowa National Park

(iv) Nameri National Park

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) (ii) (iii)(iv)

(B) (ii) (iv) (ⅲ) (i)

(D)(ii)(i)(iv) (iii)

Ans; b

Explanation:

Manas National Park – 1990
- Originally a wildlife sanctuary in 1928; declared a National Park in 1990.
Nameri National Park – 1998
- Located in the Sonitpur district, it was declared a National Park in 1998.
Dibru-Saikhowa National Park – 1999
- Tinsukia district, declared a National Park in 1999.
Raimona National Park – 2021
- Assam’s newest National Park, declared in June 2021.

Q73. Match List-l with List-II:

List-I List-II

Mulch 1. Variation in species composition across different habitats

Niche 2. Movement of nutrient-rich bottom water to ocean’s surface

Beta diversity 3. A protective cover on the ground, may be of dried leaves

Upwelling 4. The functional role and position of a species in an ecosystem

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) a b c d

2 3 4 1

(B) a b c d

3 4 1 2

4 3 2 1

(D) a b c d

4 2 3 1

Ans; b

Explanation:

a. Mulch → 3: Mulch is a layer of material (like dried leaves, straw, or plastic) applied to the soil surface to conserve moisture, reduce weed growth, and improve fertility.
b. Niche → 4: A niche refers to the ecological role a species plays in its environment, including its behavior, resource use, and interaction with other species.
c. Beta diversity → 1: This term describes the variation in species diversity between ecosystems or habitats. It is a measure of species turnover across landscapes.
d. Upwelling → 2: Upwelling is the process where nutrient-rich water from the ocean depths rises to the surface, enhancing marine productivity.

Final Matching: a – 3, b – 4, c – 1, d – 2

Q74. According to the Assam State Action Plan on Climate Change (2015-2020), which of the following temperature and rainfall changes has occurred in Assam during the period 1951-2010?

(A) Annual mean temperature and annual rainfall have both increased

(B ) Annual mean temperature and annual rainfall have both decreased

(C)Annual mean temperature has increased, while annual rainfall has decreased

(D) No noticeable changes in temperature and rainfall trends

Ans; c

Explanation:

The Assam State Action Plan on Climate Change (SAPCC) identified that during the period 1951–2010:
- Annual mean temperature has shown a rising trend.
- Annual rainfall has shown a declining trend in several regions.
This aligns with broader climate change patterns in the northeastern region of India, where warming trends are evident, while monsoonal variability and rainfall reduction have been observed in the long term.

Hence, the correct trend is: increased temperature, decreased rainfall.

Q75. Bioremediation using fungi is known as

(A) mycoremediation

(B) phycoremediation

(D) entomoremediation

ANs; a

Explanation:

Bioremediation refers to the use of biological organisms to remove or neutralize contaminants from a polluted area.
Mycoremediation is a specific type of bioremediation that uses fungi (particularly their mycelia) to break down pollutants like hydrocarbons, pesticides, and heavy metals.
It is effective due to fungi’s enzymatic systems, especially ligninolytic enzymes, which degrade complex organic substances.

Other terms:

Phytoremediation: Uses plants to remove contaminants.
Phycoremediation: Uses algae.
Entomoremediation: Uses insects (a niche field).

Q76. The global warming potential of a gas is decided on the basis of

(A) the amount of total long-wave radiation a greenhouse gas can trap

(B) the amount of total long-wave radiation a greenhouse gas can trap in comparison to CO₂ over a period of 100 years

(D) the amount of total long-wave radiation a gas can trap over a period of 1 year

Ans; b

Explanation:

Global Warming Potential (GWP) is a metric developed to compare the ability of different greenhouse gases to trap heat in the atmosphere and contribute to global warming.

Key features of GWP:

Reference Gas – CO₂:
- Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is assigned a baseline GWP of 1.
- All other greenhouse gases are compared to CO₂.
Time Horizon – Typically 100 Years:
- GWP is generally calculated over a 100-year time horizon, although 20-year and 500-year values are also sometimes used.
Basis of Comparison:
- It considers how much heat a gas traps in the atmosphere over time and how long it stays in the atmosphere.
- For example:
  - Methane (CH₄) has a GWP of around 28–34 over 100 years.
  - Nitrous oxide (N₂O) has a GWP of about 265–298 over 100 years.
Measurement of Long-Wave Radiation Trapping:
- GWP measures the capacity of a gas to trap infrared (long-wave) radiation relative to CO₂.

The GWP is not an absolute measure of radiation trapping, but a relative measure.
It compares the radiative forcing effect of one unit mass of a greenhouse gas to one unit mass of CO₂ over 100 years.

Incorrect Options:

(A): Incorrect because it doesn’t mention comparison to CO₂ or the time horizon.
(C): Incorrect because CH₄ is not the reference gas; CO₂ is.
(D): Incorrect because GWP is usually based on 100 years, not 1 year.

Q77. Which of the following soil horizons is present in the soil of forests but absent in the cultivated fields?

(A) O horizon

(B) A horizon

(D) C horizon

Ans; a

The soil horizon most commonly present in forests but absent in cultivated fields is the O horizon.

Explanation: The O horizon consists of accumulated organic matter like fallen leaves and decomposing debris, which is typically found in forested areas. However, agricultural practices like plowing often bury and mix this organic matter into deeper layers, effectively eliminating a distinct O horizon from cultivated soils.

Key points about soil horizons:

A horizon:
This is the topsoil layer, rich in organic matter and nutrients. It can be present in both forested and cultivated soils, but may be significantly altered by tillage in cultivated fields.
E horizon:
This horizon is formed by leaching, where nutrients and minerals are transported downward from the A horizon. It is more common in forested areas due to higher rainfall and the presence of a large organic layer.
B horizon:
This layer is typically denser and contains accumulated clay and other minerals leached from the E horizon. It is present in both forested and cultivated soils.

Q78. The ‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan Committee Report’ are related to

(i) Ganga Action Plan

(ii) inter-linking of Indian rivers

(iii) protection of Western Ghats

(iv) planning of ecozones of India

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (iv) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (ii) only

ANs; B (Ayog Answer)

The correct answer is (C) (iii) only.

Explanation:

The Gadgil Committee and the Kasturirangan Committee were both constituted for the conservation and sustainable development of the Western Ghats, one of the eight “hottest hotspots” of biodiversity in the world.

1. Gadgil Committee (2011):

Officially called the Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP).
Headed by Prof. Madhav Gadgil.
Recommended:
- Classification of the entire Western Ghats into Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZ 1, 2, 3).
- Imposed restrictions on activities like mining, quarrying, and construction.
- Strong emphasis on environmental protection with local community participation.
Was criticized for being too environmentally restrictive.

2. Kasturirangan Committee (2013):

Formed to review and dilute the recommendations of the Gadgil Committee.
Headed by Dr. K. Kasturirangan.
Recommended:
- Declaring only 37% of the Western Ghats as Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA).
- Allowed more room for development, especially in inhabited areas.
- Aimed to balance development with environmental conservation.

Incorrect Options:

(i) Ganga Action Plan — unrelated.
(ii) Interlinking of rivers — handled by different bodies like the National Water Development Agency (NWDA).
(iv) Planning of ecozones of India — broader topic; these committees focused only on the Western Ghats.

Q79. Which organization/department is the custodian of foreign exchange reserves in India?

(A) The Exim Bank

(B) The RBI

(D) The NITI Aayog

Ans; B

Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the custodian of foreign exchange reserves in India.

Foreign Exchange Reserves

Foreign exchange reserves are assets held by a central bank in foreign currencies. These typically include:

Foreign currency assets (like US dollars, euros, pounds)
Gold reserves
Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) from the IMF
Reserve Tranche Position in the IMF

Role of the RBI:

Custodian and Manager:
The RBI holds and manages India’s foreign exchange reserves on behalf of the Government of India.
Foreign Exchange Regulation:
Under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999, the RBI regulates and facilitates foreign exchange transactions.
Stabilizing the Rupee:
The RBI uses these reserves to manage volatility in the foreign exchange market and stabilize the Indian rupee against global currencies.
Investment:
The RBI invests these reserves primarily in safe and liquid foreign government securities to preserve their value.

Incorrect Options:

(A) The Exim Bank: It promotes exports and imports through credit and support services, but is not the custodian of forex reserves.
(C) The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT): It formulates trade policies, not responsible for reserves.
(D) The NITI Aayog: It is a policy think-tank, with no role in managing foreign exchange.

Q80. As per the NITI Aayog’s multi-dimensional poverty index (as per the latest statistics for 2022-23), the percentage of population in Assam classified as poor is

(A) 36.97%

(B) 26.37%

(D) 13.73%

Ans; c

Explanation

According to NITI Aayog’s latest Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) for 2022–23, 14.47% of Assam’s population is classified as multidimensionally poor, making option (C) 14.47% the correct answer.

NITI Aayog compiles the National MPI based on twelve indicators covering health, education, and living standards, using data from NFHS-5 (2019–21) and projections for 2022–23
While India’s overall MPI has fallen to 11.28%, Assam still has a higher incidence, at 14.47%, despite significant progress since its 2013–14 level of 36.97.
This places Assam among the states with the highest MPI values in 2022–23, marking notable but continuing challenges.

Q81. What are the main objectives of the ‘Assam Millets’ Mission?

(i) Raise nutrition quotient

(ii) Increase farmers’ income

(iii) Contribute to crop diversification

(iv) Employment generation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (iii) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer:- (B)

Explanation:

The Assam Millets’ Mission, launched by the Government of Assam, is a focused initiative under the broader vision of promoting sustainable agriculture, food security, and farmers’ welfare.

The main objectives of the mission are:

(i) Raise nutrition quotient
Millets are rich in dietary fiber, minerals, and micronutrients. The mission promotes their cultivation and consumption to tackle undernutrition and ensure a healthier diet among the population.
(ii) Increase farmers’ income
By encouraging millet cultivation, especially in marginal and rain-fed areas, the mission helps farmers reduce input costs and access premium markets, thereby improving their income.
(iii) Contribute to crop diversification
Millets require fewer resources compared to conventional cereals like rice and wheat. Promoting their cultivation diversifies cropping patterns and improves agro-ecological resilience.

Why (iv) Employment generation is not a main objective:

While increased millet cultivation might indirectly contribute to rural employment, employment generation is not listed as a core or stated objective of the Assam Millets’ Mission. The primary goals are centered around nutrition, farmer income, and crop diversification.

Q82. Which of the following is not a dimension of the Social Progress Index?

(A) Basic human need

(B) Foundation of well-being

(D) Per capita income

Answer:- (D)

Explanation

- The Social Progress Index (SPI) uses three key dimensions to assess a region’s social and environmental progress: Basic Human Needs, Foundations of Wellbeing, and Opportunity.
- Each dimension is further broken down into specific components.

Basic Human Needs:

- - This dimension evaluates a region’s performance in meeting essential needs such as nutrition, medical care, water and sanitation, personal safety, and shelter.

Foundations of Wellbeing:

- - This dimension assesses progress in areas like access to basic knowledge, access to information and communication, health and wellness, and environmental quality.

Opportunity:

- This dimension focuses on aspects of personal rights, personal freedom and choice, inclusiveness, and access to advanced education.

Q83. In which year were the Assam Plantations Labour Rules established?

(A) 1951

(B) 1971

(D) 1956

Answer:- (D)

Explanation:

The Assam Plantations Labour Rules, 1956 were established under the provisions of the Plantations Labour Act, 1951, which is a central legislation aimed at regulating the working conditions of laborers in tea and other plantations across India.

Key Points:

The Plantations Labour Act, 1951 provided a framework for the welfare of workers in plantations by addressing issues like housing, medical facilities, drinking water, canteens, crèches, and working hours.
To implement this Act at the state level, the Government of Assam framed its own rules in 1956, which are officially known as the Assam Plantations Labour Rules, 1956.
These rules outline the responsibilities of employers in the state’s tea industry and other plantations, with a focus on improving labor welfare and protecting workers’ rights.

Thus, the correct year of establishment of the Assam Plantations Labour Rules is 1956.

Q84. Which one of the following is the purpose of ‘UDAY?

(A) Providing technical and financial assistance to start-up entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy

(B) Providing electricity to every household in the country

(D) Providing for financial turn-around and revival of power distribution companies

Answer:- (D)

Explanation

The Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana (UDAY) is a scheme launched by the Government of India in 2015 to improve the financial health of state-owned power distribution companies (DISCOMs).
It aims to reduce losses, increase operational efficiency, and improve the financial discipline of DISCOMs.

Key Objectives of UDAY:

Reduce Losses:

- - UDAY aims to reduce Aggregate Technical & Commercial (AT&C) losses in the distribution sector.

Improve Operational Efficiency:

- - The scheme promotes the use of smart meters, upgrading transformers, and adopting energy efficiency measures.

Debt Restructuring:

- - UDAY involves states taking over a portion of DISCOM debt and implementing measures to improve financial discipline.

Sustainable Business Model:

- UDAY seeks to create a sustainable business model for DISCOMs, ensuring their long-term financial stability.

Q85. Economists Daron Acemoglu, Simon Johnson and James A. Robinson won the Nobel Prize in 2024 in Economics. They were honoured for their work on

(A) environment

(B) banks and financial crises

(D) labour market

Answer:- (C)

Explanation

Daron Acemoglu, Simon Johnson, and James A. Robinson were awarded the 2024 Nobel Prize in Economics for their research on “how institutions are formed and affect prosperity”.
Their work explores the long-term impact of institutions on economic development, particularly those established during colonialism, and how they can evolve over time.
They have identified the importance of inclusive institutions, which extend political liberties and property rights broadly, versus extractive institutions, where power is wielded by a small elite, in shaping a country’s prosperity.

Q86. Who among the following won the ‘Golden Bat’ in the ICC Champions Trophy, 2025?

(A) Rachin Ravindra

(B) Shreyas lyer

(D) B. M. Duckett

Answer:- (A)

Explanation:

At the ICC Champions Trophy 2025, the Golden Bat award—given to the tournament’s highest run-scorer—was claimed by Rachin Ravindra of New Zealand.

He scored a total of 263 runs across four matches, including two centuries, achieving a high score of 108.
His consistent performance, including a significant century in the semi-final against South Africa, secured him the Golden Bat and also earned him the Player of the Tournament title

While Shreyas Iyer (India), Joe Root (England), and Ben Duckett (England) also scored heavily—243, 225, and 227 runs respectively—Ravindra’s total was the highest in the tournament

Q87. What is the time period of 16th Finance Commission of India which is chaired by Dr. Arvind Panagariya?

(A) 1st April, 2025 to 31st March, 2030

(B) 1st April, 2026 to 31st March, 2031

(D) 1st January, 2026 to 31st December, 2031

Answer:- (B)

Explanation

The 16th Finance Commission of India was constituted on 31st December, 2023, with Dr. Arvind Panagariya, former Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog, as its chairman.
The 16th Finance Commission is mandated to submit its recommendations by 31 st October, 2025, for the award period of five years commencing from 1 st April, 2026.

Q88. Which of the following is/are active Indian Research Station(s) Antarctica continent?

(i) Dakshin Gangotri

(ii) Maitri

(iii) Bharati

(iv) Tushar

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer:- (C)

Explanation

Indian Research stations in Antarctica: Maitri and Bharati.
Maitri is located in the Schirmacher Oasis and was established in 1988.
Bharati is located between Thala Fjord and Quilty Bay, east of Stornes Peninsula, and was established in 2012.
Dakshin Gangotri was the first Indian research station established in Antarctica, built during India’s third expedition in 1983-84.
- Located about 2,500 kilometers from the South Pole, it was named after the Dakshin Gangotri Glacier.
- The station served as a center for various scientific research activities.
- It was abandoned in 1988-89 after being submerged by ice.

Q89. Jyoti Prasad Agarwala said in a speech in 1931, “Assamese youths would follow Bhagat Singh”. Where did he say this?

(A) Na-Duar

(B) Chariduar

(D) Tezpur

Answer:- (A)

Explanation

Jyotiparasad Agarwalla president of IPTA (a meeting of the Youth Club in Na- Duwar in Sonitpur District where Jyotiprasad Agarwala said “Every youth of Assam follow the path of Bhagat Singh”.
For the Independence of India if anybody takes any violent path, I never think that it is wrong.

Q90. Who delivered the welcome address in the Hindu Mahasabha Confer-ence, which was held in 1926?

(A) Tarun Ram Phukan

(B) Gopinath Bordoloi

(D) Pitambar Deva Goswami

Answer: (D) Pitambar Deva Goswami

Explanation:

The 1926 session of the All India Hindu Mahasabha was held in Nagaon, Assam.
The welcome address at this significant event was delivered by Pitambar Deva Goswami, the Satradhikar (head) of the Garamur Satra, one of the major Vaishnavite monasteries in Assam.
He was not just a spiritual leader but also a progressive thinker and social reformer.
His presence and speech at the Hindu Mahasabha indicated the participation of Assamese Vaishnavite institutions in national socio-political movements.
The speech emphasized:
- Protection and upliftment of Hindu society.
- Promotion of Assamese identity and values.
- Harmony among different Hindu castes and sects.
His role in the event reflects the deep intertwining of religion, culture, and politics in Assam’s nationalist awakening during the 1920s.

Q91. Asom Sangrakshini Sabha was founded by

(A) Chandra Nath Sarmah

(B) Gopinath Bordoloi

(D) Ambikagiri Rai choudhury

Answer: (D) Ambikagiri Rai Choudhury

Explanation:

Ambikagiri Rai Choudhury (1885–1967), known as the “Agni Kobi” of Assam, was a prominent poet, freedom fighter, and social reformer.
He founded the Asom Sangrakshini Sabha (literally, “Assam Protection Council”) to:
- Protect the socio-cultural identity of Assamese people.
- Safeguard Assamese language and literature.
- Counter the influx of immigrants and cultural influences that were seen as threatening to Assamese society.
The Sabha was one of the early expressions of Assamese regionalism, and its aim was to mobilize Assamese youth and intellectuals for the protection of their indigenous rights and heritage.
It also encouraged self-reliance, Swadeshi ideology, and opposition to British imperialism.

Contributions of Ambikagiri Rai Choudhury:

Editor of the nationalist journal “Chetana”.
Jailed multiple times during the freedom movement.
Advocated for the cultural and economic awakening of Assam.
Later awarded the Sahitya Akademi Award (1965) for his literary contributions.

Q92. Maitri Ashram, later renamed as Kasturba Ashram, was established at Sarania Hills, Guwahati by-

(A) Amal Prabha Das

(B) Vinoba Bhave

(D) Chandraprabha Saikiani

Answer: A

Explanation:

Maitri Ashram, later renamed as Kasturba Ashram, was indeed established by Amalprabha Das, a prominent Gandhian social worker and freedom fighter from Assam.

Key Facts:

Amalprabha Das was inspired by Mahatma Gandhi’s ideology and worked extensively for women’s empowerment, upliftment of Harijans (Dalits), and rural reconstruction.
She established Maitri Ashram at Sarania Hills, Guwahati, which was later renamed as Kasturba Ashram.
The Ashram became a hub for constructive social work in Assam, focusing on:
- Promotion of khadi and village industries
- Education and training for women
- Welfare of underprivileged communities

Other Names Mentioned:

Pushpalata Das: Also a key freedom fighter and Gandhian from Assam, but not the founder of this particular Ashram.
Vinoba Bhave and Chandraprabha Saikiani: Not connected to the founding of this Ashram.

Q93. Who among the following martyrs died in police firing at Dhekiajuli police station on 20th September, 1942, who stood at the front, heading the ‘Death Squad’?

(A) Manbar Nath

(B) Tileswari Barua

(D) Mangal Kurku

Answer: A

Explanation:

During the Quit India Movement, on 20th September 1942, a significant protest took place at the Dhekiajuli Police Station in Assam. Protesters gathered with the intent to hoist the Indian tricolour on the police station — a bold act against British authority.

Among the volunteers was a specially chosen frontline group, often referred to as the “Mrityu Bahini” or Death Squad — people willing to face bullets and die for the nation.

Manbar Nath was the volunteer who led the procession and stood at the front of the Death Squad when the police opened fire.
He was shot dead by British police while advancing with the tricolour in hand.
His leadership and sacrifice marked him as the first among several martyrs on that fateful day.
Several others, including young Tileswari Barua, Ratan Kachari, and Mangal Kurku, were also martyred — but they were not at the front of the squad.

Common Confusion:

Tileswari Barua (aged 12) is more well-known symbolically due to her age and bravery, but she did not lead the Death Squad — Manbar Nath did.
Multiple individuals are remembered for this day, but the question specifically asks for the one who “stood at the front, heading the ‘Death Squad'”, which is historically Manbar Nath.

Q94.Assertion (A): Purnananda Burha-gohain created a standing army.

Reason (R): The king was plotting to kill the Burhagohain.

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)

(D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct

Answer: B

Explanation:

Assertion (A) — CORRECT

Purnananda Burhagohain, the Prime Minister of the Ahom Kingdom (late 18th century), did create a standing army.
This was during a period of rising instability — especially:
- Moamoria rebellion
- Growing British influence
- External threats like Burmese incursions
He modernized the Ahom military system and moved away from the traditional Paik system.

Reason (R) — ALSO CORRECT

There is historical reference in certain accounts that King Kamaleswar Singha, who ruled during Purnananda’s time, was influenced by court conspirators and suspicious of the powerful Burhagohain.
Some Ahom chronicles indicate tensions between the king and Burhagohain, and a belief that the king might act against him — although an outright plotted assassination may not be widely documented, political friction did exist.
This friction was one of many reasons why Purnananda took military steps, including fortifying his own power base.

But: Was the Reason the cause of the Assertion?

No — the primary motivation for creating the standing army was:

Suppression of Moamoria rebels
Need for a permanent military structure
Defense against Burmese invasions

The tension with the king may have existed, but was not the primary reason for creating the army.

Q95. Which of the following statements regarding Ahom-Mughal conflict during 1616-1639 is/are false?

(i) Ahom king came to be regarded as the Raja of Assam.

(ii) The defeat of the Mughals had been dramatically described in the Baharistan-i-Ghaibi.

(iii) A Barphukan was appointed with headquarters at Kajali.

(iv) The main grounds for the conflict were boundary disputes and commercial relations.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (i) and (iv) only

(D) All the statements are true

Answer: D

Explanation:

Background:

The Ahom–Mughal conflict between 1616 and 1639 centered around territorial disputes, particularly over Kamrup, Darrang, and Koch Hajo areas. The Mughals attempted to extend their frontier eastward, leading to recurring warfare with the Ahoms. The conflict ended in 1639 with the Treaty of Ghilajharighat.

(i) Ahom king came to be regarded as the Raja of Assam

True

After the Treaty of 1639, the Mughal empire acknowledged the Ahom ruler as the Raja of Assam in the context of diplomacy and political geography.
The Ahoms retained independence east of the Barnadi River.
Mughal sources such as the Baharistan-i-Ghaibi reflect this acknowledgment.

(ii) The defeat of the Mughals had been dramatically described in the Baharistan-i-Ghaibi

True

Baharistan-i-Ghaibi, written by Mirza Nathan, is a primary Persian source on Mughal campaigns in Bengal and Assam.
It vividly describes the setbacks and resistance the Mughals faced from the Ahoms.
The text does not conceal defeats — especially at battles like Duimunisila (1638), where the Ahoms defeated the Mughals.

(iii) A Barphukan was appointed with headquarters at Kajali

True, upon reconsideration

Though Guwahati (Pragjyotishpur) is better known as the seat of the Barphukan later, historical records suggest that during earlier phases (before Guwahati was permanently secured), the Barphukan’s headquarters were temporarily based at Kajali.
Kajali, in western Assam near the strategic frontier, served as a forward administrative base during conflicts with the Mughals.
So, while Guwahati became the more prominent and later permanent HQ, Kajali was indeed an earlier post for the Barphukan during this phase.

(iv) The main grounds for the conflict were boundary disputes and commercial relations

True

The conflict primarily revolved around:
- Territorial disputes between the Ahoms and Mughals (especially Koch Hajo vs. Koch Bihar alignment).
- Control of the Brahmaputra valley and associated trade routes.
- The disputed frontier in Kamrup and Darrang districts.
Economic interests, particularly control over riverine commerce, also fueled tensions.

Q96. Which of the following statements regarding the first Assamese film Joymoti is/are false?

(i) The film was produced by Chitralekha Movietone.

(ii) The film was based on a drama by Padmanath Gohain Baruah.

(iii) The artists were drawn from respectable families.

(iv) The film was the first Indian film to delve into ‘realism’.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iv) only

(D) (iii) only

Answer: C

Explanation:

(i) The film was produced by Chitralekha Movietone.

True

Joymoti was directed and produced by Jyoti Prasad Agarwala, and it was produced under his own production banner: Chitralekha Movietone.
Chitralekha Movietone was established in 1933 in Assam for this very purpose.

(ii) The film was based on a drama by Padmanath Gohain Baruah.

False

The play “Joymoti Kuwari” was originally written by Lakshminath Bezbaroa, not Padmanath Gohain Baruah.
Although both were pioneers of Assamese literature, this specific play was not by Padmanath.

(iii) The artists were drawn from respectable families.

True

This is historically accurate. Since acting was not a respectable profession at the time, Jyoti Prasad Agarwala encouraged people from educated, respectable families to participate in the film.
For example, Aideu Handique, who played Joymoti, came from a middle-class Assamese family, though she later faced social ostracism for acting.

(iv) The film was the first Indian film to delve into ‘realism’.

True

Film historians often credit Joymoti as the first Indian film to portray realism over melodrama, focusing on historical-political narrative and authentic sets.
Jyoti Prasad used on-location shooting, naturalistic performances, and a strong social and political message — unusual for Indian cinema at that time.

Q97. Match the following Buranjis (List-I) with the period they deal with (List-II):

List-I List-II

Satsari Assam Buranji 1. Kamaleswar Singha to Purandar Singha
Kali Bharat Buranji 2. 1679-1858
Tungkhungia Buranji 3. 1681-1810
Weissali Buranji 4. Burmese invasion of Assam

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A)a b c d

2 1 4 3

(B) a b c d

2 4 1 3

2 1 3 4

(D) A b C d

1 2 3 4

Answer: D

Solution:

The “Satsari Assam Buranji” is a historical account in Assamese that covers the period from the reign of Kamaleswar Singha to Purandar Singha. This buranji specifically addresses the reigns of Kamaleswar Singha (also known as Suklingphaa), Sudingphaa, and Purandar Singha, focusing on events and developments during that time.
The “Weissali Buranji” refers to a specific chapter in the Buranji, a collection of historical chronicles from the Ahom kingdom of Assam. The Burmese invasions of Assam, specifically the one from 1817 to 1826, are a crucial event within this chronicle, and the “Weissali Buranji” likely deals with this period.
- Satsari Assam Buranji: A type of historical account or chronicle written in Assamese, often focusing on specific periods or rulers.
- Kamaleswar Singha: The Ahom king who ruled from 1795 to 1811, also known as Suklingphaa.
Tungkhungia Buranji, also known as “A History of Assam, 1681-1826 A.D.,” is a significant historical chronicle focusing on the Tungkhungia dynasty of Ahom rulers in Assam. Compiled, edited, and translated by Surya Kumar Bhuyan, it provides a detailed account of the political history of Assam during this period. It covers the reigns of kings from Rajeswar Singha to Kamaleswar Singha (1751-1806) and includes an overview of earlier kings from Udayaditya Singha to Pramatta Singha (1671-1751). Bhuyan meticulously collated information from old Buranjis, adding marginalia and an introduction. The Buranji was written by Srinath Duara Borbarua, an Ahom cabinet minister, and compiled after four years of his Borbaruaship on March 6, 1804.
Weissali Buranji is a Tai-Ahom chronicle that compiles two earlier chronicles: Weissali-Hukong and Weissali-Mung-dun-sun-kham. It’s a significant example of Tai-Ahom historiography, documenting the Ahom kingdom’s history, including battles, events, and the growth of their influence.
- The Buranjis are a unique form of historiography in the Ahom age, and these two chronicles specifically chronicle the Burmese invasion.

Q98. Match the following personalities (List-I) with the associations/organizations they were engaged with during 1920s (List-II):

List-I List-II

a.Rohinikanta Hati Baruah 1. Assam Branch of All India Spinners’ Association

b.Krishna Nath Sarmah 2. APCC (General Secretary)

Tarun Ram Phukan 3. Assam Branch of Swarajya Party
Ambikagiri Rai choudhury 4. Assam Jatiya Mahasabha

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A)a b c d

1 2 3 4

(B) a b c d

2 4 1 3

2 1 3 4

(D) A b C d

1 2 3 4

Answer: C

Rohinikanta Hati Barua
- He was an Assamese freedom fighter and social reformer from Assam, who played a significant role in the anti-opium movement and other social reform initiatives in the region.

Krishna Nath Sarmah
- A freedom fighter and social reformer of the early 20th century, Sarmah was known for his resilience during the freedom movement of India. Inspired by Mahatma Gandhi’s call to remove untouchability, Sarmah opened schools and namghar for the Dalits. His noble gesture earned him the title of Harijan Bandhu. Despite being ostracised by the society Sarmah was known for his selflessness, compassion, and spirit of sacrifice.

In 1923, under the leadership of Kuladhar Chaliha, Rohinikanta Hatibaruah, and Krishna Nath Sarmah, an exhibition was held by the Assam Khadi Board. The exhibition had played a role in imparting the importance of khadi for self-reliance and swaraj, and making an income of Rs 1500. Khadi centres were opened in Barpeta, Guwahati, Nagaon, Barakathani, Dergaon, Chelenghat, Charing, Kakatigaon, and Chaungi. Krishna Nath Sarmah and Sankarlal Baruah had attended the 1925 Patna meeting of the Provincial Khadi Boards, representing the Assam Khadi Board; where they had the opportunity to meet Sankarlal Banker, the Secretary of the All India Khadi Board, who had suggested that the khadi movement in Assam be implemented in a more vigorous manner Gandhi had formed the All India Spinners’ Association in the wake of a khadi revolution and home-spun cloth in India.
Dr Rajendra Prasad had visited Assam to inspect the progress of the implementation of the khadi programme and was profoundly satisfied with the activities of the Assam Khadi Board. Dr Prasad recommended to the All India Spinners’ Association that the Assam Khadi Board be given more funds for vigorous implementation of the programme The Congress session of 1926 was held in Guwahati. It was with Sarmah’s and other leaders’ hard work and dedication that the pavilion, made of khadi left other leaders spellbound and astonished. Gandhi himself remarked that the city was “under khadi canvas”. The huge Congress pavilion was itself made of Pure Assam Khadi. The khadi programme would go on to receive widespread support from the people of Assam during the Civil Disobedience Movement, which was to be launched in 1930.

Tarun Ram Phukan
- The Swaraj Party, founded in 1923 by Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru, also established a branch in Assam. Key figures in the Assam branch included Tarun Ram Phukan, a prominent organizer of the Non-Cooperation and Khilafat movements. The Assam branch actively participated in the Indian freedom struggle, including the Non-Cooperation movement and the Khilafat movement.
Ambikagiri Raichoudhury
- Ambikagiri Raichoudhury, a prominent Assamese freedom fighter and leader, was deeply involved in the Mahasabha’s formation and activities.
- Ambikagiri Raichoudhury, known as “Assam Kesari,” was a prominent Assamese poet, writer, singer, and social worker who played a significant role in the Indian independence movement. He was a key figure in the Assam Jatiya Mahasabha (Assam National Congress), founding it along with the Assam Preservation Council (Asom Songrokhini Sabha).
- “Assam Jatiya Mahasabha,” often shortened to “Asom Jatiya Mahasabha,” refers to a major political party and movement in Assam, India, advocating for the rights and interests of the Assamese people. It has played a significant role in Assam’s political landscape, particularly in promoting Assamese identity and regionalism

Q99. Which of the following statements regarding Buddhism in Assam are true?

(i) Buddhism existed in Assam before the visit of Hiuen Tsang.

(ii) Dhitika became responsible for the spread of Buddhism in Assam.

(iii) Asvabhava preached Maha-yana cult in Assam.

(iv) According to tradition, the older shrine at Hajo was a great Chaitya.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B) (ii) and (iv) only

(D) (i) and (iv) only

Answer: (A) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

Explanation:

(i) Buddhism existed in Assam before the visit of Hiuen Tsang –
True.
There is evidence from ancient texts and archaeological findings that Buddhism had already made its way into Assam prior to Hiuen Tsang’s visit to India in the 7th century CE. Early inscriptions and local traditions suggest Buddhist presence, especially in Lower Assam and the Kamarupa kingdom.

(ii) Dhitika became responsible for the spread of Buddhism in Assam –
True.
According to Buddhist tradition, Dhitika, a native of Assam (often referred to as an inhabitant of ancient Pragjyotisha), is said to have played a role in the early propagation of Buddhism in the region. He is also connected with the legends related to Hinayana Buddhism.

(iii) Asvabhava preached Mahayana cult in Assam –
True.
Asvabhava was a renowned Mahayana Buddhist scholar, and according to tradition, he preached Mahayana doctrines in Eastern India, including Assam. His influence contributed to the spread of Mahayana Buddhism in the Brahmaputra valley.

(iv) According to tradition, the older shrine at Hajo was a great Chaitya –
True.
The Hayagriva Madhava temple at Hajo is considered sacred to both Hindus and Buddhists. According to Tibetan Buddhist tradition, the older shrine was a Chaitya, believed by some Buddhists to enshrine the relics of the Buddha, showing a syncretic religious past.

Since all four statements are supported by historical or traditional sources, the correct answer is (A).

Q100. Arrange the following works chronologically according to their year of publication :

(i) Grammatical Notices of the Assamese Language

(ii) A Grammar of the Assamese Language

(iii) A Dictionary in Assamese and English

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) (ii) (iii)

(B) (i) (iii) (ii)

(D) (ii) (i) (iii)

Answer: D

Solution:

“A Grammar of the Assamese Language” was written by William Robinson and published by the Serampore Press in 1839. It was part of a wider effort by American Baptist Missionaries to promote the Assamese language and spread Christianity. Robinson, an inspector of schools, recognized the need for a vernacular language to teach Christianity, and this grammar book was a key part of that effort.
“Grammatical Notices of the Assamese Language,” authored by Nathan Brown in 1848, is a comprehensive work that delves into the intricacies of the Assamese language. It examines the language’s grammar, syntax, and vocabulary, offering insights into its structure, sounds, noun declensions, and verb conjugations
A Dictionary in Assamese and English by M. Bronson is a bilingual dictionary that translates words between Assamese and English. It was originally published in 1867.