The HPSC HCS Prelims Exam 2026, conducted on 26 April 2026 by the Haryana Public Service Commission, has generated significant interest among aspirants eager to assess their performance. Candidates are now looking for accurate answers and detailed explanations to evaluate their attempts and estimate their scores.
In this article, we provide a comprehensive set of HPSC HCS answers with explanations 2026, with expert analysis, helping aspirants understand the correct approach, identify mistakes, and strengthen their preparation for the next stage of the examination.
Download: HPSC HCS Question Papers 2026
HPSC HCS GS Paper Answers With Explanations 2026
1 Consider the following pairs:
| 1 | Sri Bhramaramda Mallikarjuna Swamy Temple | Andhra Pradesh |
| 2 | Shri Kamakshi Devi Temple | Goa |
| 3 | Sun Temple | Odisha |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(A) Only one pair
(B) Only two pairs
(C) All three pairs
(D) None of the pairs
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Â Â Sri Bhramaramba Mallikarjuna Swamy Temple is located in Srisailam, Andhra Pradesh. It is notable for being both a Jyotirlinga and a Shakti Peetha.
- Â Â Shri Kamakshi Devi Temple is situated in Shiroda, Goa. The deity is believed to have been moved there from Raia during the 16th century.
- Â Â Sun Temple (specifically the Konark Sun Temple) is located in Konark, Odisha. It is a 13th-century UNESCO World Heritage site built by King Narasimhadeva I
Also Check: HPSC HCS Answer Key 2026 (Unofficial)
- Consider the following information:
| No. | Art Form | Origin/Community Associated | Key Feature |
| 1. | Mohiniyattam | Chera patronage (9th-12th century CE) | Graceful swaying movements; linked to Mohini incarnation of Vishnu |
| 2. | Thullal | Introduced by Kunchan Nambiar | Solo satirical dance performed during temple festivals |
| 3. | Kutiyattam | Chakkiar Community | Dramatic performance lasting from six to twenty days |
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: c
Explanation:
All three rows accurately describe traditional art forms from Kerala:
- Â Â Mohiniyattam: It is a classical dance form that evolved under the patronage of the Chera dynasty. It is characterized by “Lasya” (graceful, feminine movements) and portrays the Mohini avatar of Lord Vishnu.
- Â Â Thullal: This solo dance-drama was indeed introduced by the famous 18th-century poet Kunchan Nambiar. It is known for its social satire and is a popular performance during temple festivals.
-   Kutiyattam: Traditionally performed by the Chakkiar community, it is one of India’s oldest living theatrical traditions. Its performances are highly elaborate and can span across multiple days (often 6 to 20).
3 Consider the following information:
| No. | Festival | State | Month |
| 1 | Madai | Chhattisgarh | December |
| 2 | Doongri | Himachal Pradesh | May |
| 3 | Gugga Naumi | Haryana | August–September |
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: c
Explanation:
All three rows accurately match the festival with its state and typical timing:
- Â Â Madai: This major tribal festival of the Gond community in Chhattisgarh usually begins in December and continues through the spring across different locations.
- Â Â Doongri: Also known as the Hadimba Devi Fair, it takes place in Manali, Himachal Pradesh, every May to celebrate the birthday of Goddess Hadimba.
-   Gugga Naumi: This religious festival dedicated to snake worship (Gugga Pir) is celebrated in Haryana and parts of Rajasthan during the month of Bhadrapada, which corresponds to August–September.
4. Consider the following pairs:
- Extended Fund Facility (EFF) : For structural balance of payments problems
- Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) : Quick and concessional lending for low-income countries
- Resilience and Sustainability Facility (RSF) : Short-term liquidity line.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two
(Note: Ans key given is “a,” but logically, both 1 and 2 are standard IMF definitions. technically 1 and 2 are correct.)
Explanation:
- Pair 1 is correct: The Extended Fund Facility (EFF) is provided by the IMF to help countries with deep-seated structural balance of payments problems that require longer-term reform.
- Â Pair 2 is correct: The Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) provides low-access, quick, and concessional financial assistance to Low-Income Countries (LICs) facing an urgent balance of payments need.
- Â Pair 3 is incorrect: The Resilience and Sustainability Facility (RSF) is not a short-term liquidity line; rather, it provides long-term financing to help countries build resilience against external shocks, such as climate change or pandemic preparedness. Short-term liquidity is typically handled by the Short-Term Liquidity Line (SLL).
5. Consider the following information:
- Index: Human Development Index | Economist: Mahbub ul Haq
- Index: Physical Quality of Life Index | Economist: Morris David Morris
- Index: Multidimensional Poverty Index | Economist: Suresh Tendulkar
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation:
- Â Â Â Â Row 1 is correct: The Human Development Index (HDI) was created by Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq in 1990, in collaboration with Amartya Sen, for the UNDP.
- Â Â Â Â Row 2 is correct: The Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) was developed by Morris David Morris in the mid-1970s to measure the quality of life or well-being of a country based on literacy, infant mortality, and life expectancy.
- Â Â Â Â Row 3 is incorrect: The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) was developed by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the UNDP (notably Sabina Alkire and James Foster). Suresh Tendulkar is associated with the Tendulkar Committee, which defined the poverty line in India based on per capita consumption expenditure, but he did not create the global MPI.
6. Consider the following information:
- Name: Lapies | Type: Depositional | Agent: Groundwater
- Name: Seif Dune | Type: Depositional | Agent: Wind
- Name: Horn | Type: Erosional | Agent: Glacier
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation:Â
Row 1 is incorrect: Lapies are indeed formed by groundwater (Karst topography), but they are an erosional landform, not depositional. They are irregular grooves and ridges formed by the chemical weathering of limestone.
- Â Â Â Â Row 2 is correct: A Seif Dune is a long, narrow ridge of sand (linear dune) formed by the depositional action of wind, usually parallel to the prevailing wind direction.
- Â Â Â Â Row 3 is correct: A Horn (like the Matterhorn) is a sharp, pyramid-like peak formed by the erosional action of glaciers cutting back into a mountain from several sides.
7. Consider the following statements:
- When rivers originate from a hill and flow in all directions, the drainage pattern is known as ‘trellis’ pattern.
- The drainage pattern resembling the branches of a tree is known as the ‘centripetal’ drainage pattern.
- When the rivers discharge their waters from all directions in a lake or depression, the pattern is known as the ‘dendritic pattern’.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (D) None
Explanation: All three definitions are mismatched:
- When rivers flow in all directions from a central peak, it is called a Radial pattern (not Trellis).
- The pattern resembling tree branches is the Dendritic pattern (not Centripetal).
- When rivers discharge into a central depression or lake, it is the Centripetal pattern (not Dendritic).
8. Consider the following statements:
- Nilgiri Biosphere reserve has the largest known population of the two endangered animal species, namely the Nilgiri Tahr and the Lion-tailed macaque.
- Sea cow, an endangered species of marine animals, are found in the Gulf of Mannar biosphere reserve.
- About 80% of the flowering plants reported from the Western Ghats occur in the Nilgiri Biosphere reserve.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation:
- Â Â Â Â Statement 1 is correct: The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is the primary stronghold for the Nilgiri Tahr and the Lion-tailed macaque.
- Â Â Â Â Statement 2 is correct: The Dugong (Sea Cow) is the flagship species of the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve, which is one of the few places in India where it is still found.
- Â Â Â Â Statement 3 is incorrect: While the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is incredibly biodiverse, the figure of 80% is statistically overstated. It houses a significant portion (roughly 50% of the Western Ghats’ endemics), but not 80% of all flowering plants of the entire Western Ghats range.
9. Consider the following statements:
- Mizoram, also known as the ‘Molassis basin’, is made of soft unconsolidated deposits.
- ‘Bugyals’ are summer grasslands in the higher reaches of the Great Himalayan ranges.
- Loktak lake is located in Mizoram.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation:
- Â Â Â Â Statement 1 is correct: Mizoram is frequently referred to as the Molassis Basin because it is primarily composed of soft, unconsolidated tertiary deposits.
-     Statement 2 is correct: Bugyals are high-altitude alpine meadows or “nature’s own gardens” found in the Himalayas, particularly in Uttarakhand, used by migratory herders in summer.
- Â Â Â Â Statement 3 is incorrect: Loktak Lake, famous for its floating phumdis, is located in Manipur, not Mizoram.
- Assertion A: The south-western districts of Haryana receive significantly less monsoon rainfall compared to the north-eastern districts.
Reason R: The Aravalli range in the south-west acts as a massive orographic barrier, blocking the moisture-laden winds of the Bay of Bengal branch.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (C) A is true but R is false.
Explanation:
- Â Â Â Â Assertion A is true: Rain decreases from the North-East (closer to the Himalayas) toward the South-West (closer to the Thar Desert).
- Â Â Â Â Reason R is false: The Aravalli range does not act as a “massive barrier” for the monsoon. In fact, the Aravallis run parallel to the direction of the Arabian Sea monsoon branch, which is why they fail to intercept moisture, contributing to the aridity of the region rather than “blocking” it to cause rain elsewhere. The Bay of Bengal branch also loses most of its moisture by the time it reaches south-west Haryana.
11. With reference to the Haryana Panchayati Raj Act, 1994 and its subsequent amendments, how many of the following criteria are mandatory for a candidate contesting for the post of a Sarpanch?
- The candidate must possess a functional toilet in their residential premises.
- A male candidate from the General Category must have passed the Matriculation (10th) examination.
- The candidate must not have any arrears owed to any Primary Agricultural Cooperative Society (PACS).
- The candidate must be a minimum of 25 years of age.
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three
(D) All four
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (C) Only three
Explanation:
- Â Â Â Â Criterion 1 is correct: The 2015 amendment made a functional toilet at home mandatory for all candidates.
- Â Â Â Â Criterion 2 is correct: Male candidates in the General category must have passed the 10th standard. (For women and SC candidates, it is 8th pass).
- Â Â Â Â Criterion 3 is correct: Candidates must provide a “no dues” certificate regarding cooperative banks (PACS) and electricity bills.
- Â Â Â Â Criterion 4 is incorrect: For Panchayati Raj elections (Sarpanch, Panch, etc.), the minimum age is 21 years, not 25.
12. Consider the following statements regarding the imposition of President’s Rule (Article 356) in Haryana:
- President’s Rule has been imposed in Haryana exactly three times since its formation.
- The first instance of President’s Rule in Haryana occurred in 1967 following the fall of the Rao Birender Singh-led Samyukta Vidhayak Dal government.
(A) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true.
(B) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false.
(C) Statement 1 is true, but Statement 2 is false.
(D) Statement 1 is false, but Statement 2 is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true.
Explanation:
- Â Â Â Â Statement 1 is true: Haryana has witnessed President’s Rule on three occasions: 1967, 1977, and 1991.
- Â Â Â Â Statement 2 is true: The first instance was in November 1967. Despite Rao Birender Singh having a majority, the Governor recommended President’s Rule citing political instability and “floor-crossing” (defections), famously leading to the “Aaya Ram, Gaya Ram” political culture.
- Assertion A: The J. C. Shah Commission, established in 1966, unanimously recommended the inclusion of Chandigarh and Kharar tehsil into the newly formed state of Haryana.
Reason R: The 1961 linguistic census indicated a decisive Hindi-speaking majority in both Chandigarh and the Kharar tehsil.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
- Â Â Â Â The Shah Commission was tasked with demarcating the boundaries of Punjab and Haryana based on the 1961 Census.
- Â Â Â Â Because the census data showed a majority of Hindi speakers in Chandigarh and the Kharar tehsil area, the commission recommended (with a 2:1 majority, though often cited as the primary recommendation in this context) that these areas go to Haryana. However, due to subsequent protests and political negotiations, Chandigarh was made a Union Territory and the joint capital.
14. Consider the following pairs:
- Pathmar : Horse Postal System
- Uluq : Foot Postal System
- Dawa : Messengers
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(A) Only one pair
(B) Only two pairs
(C) All the three pairs
(D) None of the pairs
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) Only one pair
Explanation:
The postal systems described by travelers like Ibn Battuta during the Sultanate period are:
- Â Â Â Â Uluq: This was the Horse-post, stationed at distances of every four miles.
- Â Â Â Â Dawa: This was the Foot-post, which had three stations per mile (runners).
- Â Â Â Â Pathmar: These were indeed messengers/couriers, but the terms Uluq and Dawa are the primary technical terms for the “system.”
- Â Â Â Â Only Pair 3 is generally considered correctly matched as a general term for messengers, while Pairs 1 and 2 are swapped definitions of the technical systems.
15. Consider the following pairs:
- Bernier : Describes the efficiency of the postal system.
- Ibn Battuta : Always compares India with the superiority of Europe.
- Abul Fazal : Considers land revenue as a “remuneration of kingship,” rather than a tax.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(A) Only one pair
(B) Only two pairs
(C) All the three pairs
(D) None of the pairs
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) Only one pair
Explanation:
- Â Â Â Â Pair 1 is incorrect: It was Ibn Battuta who was famous for his detailed description of the efficiency of the Indian postal system. Bernier was more critical and focused on land ownership.
-     Pair 2 is incorrect: It was François Bernier who constantly compared India to Europe, usually arguing that the lack of private property in India made it inferior to the European model.
- Â Â Â Â Pair 3 is correct: In the Ain-i-Akbari, Abul Fazal defines land revenue as Sovereignty’s Remuneration (Khiraj-i-Siyasat). He argues the king is entitled to a share of the produce because he provides protection and justice to the subjects, not simply as a “tax” on the land.
16. Consider the following pairs:
- Siyar-ul-Auliya : Tazkiras (Biographies of Sufi saints)
- Maktubat-e-Imam Rabbani : Maktubat (Collection of letters)
- Fawaid-al-Fu’ad : Malfuzat (Conversations of Sufi saints)
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(A) Only one pair
(B) Only two pairs
(C) All the three pairs
(D) None of the pairs
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (C) All the three pairs
Explanation:
- Â Â Â Â Pair 1 is correct: Siyar-ul-Auliya, written by Amir Khwurd, is a classic Tazkira that provides a biographical account of Chishti Sufi saints in India.
- Â Â Â Â Pair 2 is correct: Maktubat-e-Imam Rabbani is a famous collection of Maktubat (written letters) by Sheikh Ahmad Sirhindi (Imam Rabbani), discussing religious and social reforms.
- Â Â Â Â Pair 3 is correct: Fawaid-al-Fu’ad is the quintessential Malfuzat (table talk/conversations) text, recording the spiritual discourses of Nizamuddin Auliya as noted by his disciple Amir Hasan Sijzi.
17 Consider the following pairs:
- Duarte Barbosa : Portuguese
- Nicolo de’ Conti : Russian
- Afanasy Nikitin : Italian
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(A) Only one pair
(B) Only two pairs
(C) All the three pairs
(D) None of the pairs
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) Only one pair
Explanation:
- Â Â Â Â Pair 1 is correct: Duarte Barbosa was a Portuguese writer and officer who traveled extensively in India and provided detailed accounts of the Vijayanagara Empire.
- Â Â Â Â Pair 2 is incorrect: Nicolo de’ Conti was an Italian (Venetian) merchant and explorer who visited Vijayanagara during the reign of Deva Raya I.
- Â Â Â Â Pair 3 is incorrect: Afanasy Nikitin was a Russian merchant and one of the first Europeans to travel to and document the Deccan (Bahmani Kingdom).
- Consider the following pairs:
(Vijayanagar Fact) : (Relation)
- Hiriya : Canal
- Kamalapuram : Platform
- Amara Nayak : Military Commander
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(A) Only one pair
(B) Only two pairs
(C) All the three pairs
(D) None of the pairs
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two pairs
Explanation:
- Â Â Â Â Pair 1 is correct: The Hiriya Canal was one of the most prominent waterworks in Vijayanagara, drawing water from a dam across the Tungabhadra river to irrigate the valley.
- Â Â Â Â Pair 2 is incorrect: Kamalapuram is a famous tank/reservoir built in the 15th century for irrigation and water storage. The famous platform in Vijayanagara is the “Mahanavami Dibba.”
- Â Â Â Â Pair 3 is correct: The Amara-Nayakas were military commanders who were given territories (Amaram) to govern and maintain troops for the Raya (King).
19 Consider the following pairs:
- Nalayira Divya Prabandham : Compilation of Shaiva hymns in Tamil language
- Andal : Vishnu’s beloved
- Tevaram : The poems of Appar, Sambandar and Sundarar
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(A) Only one pair
(B) Only two pairs
(C) All three pairs
(D) None of the pairs
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two pairs
Explanation:
- Pair 1 is incorrect: The Nalayira Divya Prabandham is a compilation of 4,000 Tamil verses composed by the twelve Alvars (Vaishnava saints), not Shaiva.
- Pair 2 is correct: Andal was the only female Alvar saint; she expressed her intense devotion by considering herself the beloved of Lord Vishnu (Lord Ranganatha).
- Pair 3 is correct: The Tevaram constitutes the first seven volumes of the Tirumurai and contains the hymns of the three most prominent Nayanars (Shaiva saints): Appar, Sambandar, and Sundarar.
21 Given below are two statements:
Statement I:
If a copper and a nichrome wire of same length and same area of cross-section carry the same current for same time at room temperature then both will produce the same amount of heat.
Statement II:
If current in a conductor is doubled and time is halved then the heat produced becomes double.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer:Â (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Explanation:
22 Given below are two statements:
Statement I:
For mixing concentrated nitric acid and water, water must always be added slowly to concentrated acid.
Statement II:
For dilution, solvent is required to be added to the concentrated solution
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but (Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.Â
Explanation:
- Statement I is false: You should never add water to concentrated acid. The reaction is highly exothermic; adding water to acid can cause the mixture to flash-boil and splash acid out of the container. The safe method is to add acid to water slowly with constant stirring.
- Statement II is true: Dilution is the process of reducing the concentration of a solute in a solution, which is fundamentally done by adding more solvent (such as water) to the concentrated solution.
23 Consider the following information:
| Â | Substance | Chemical Formula | Use |
| 1 | Bleaching Powder | CaOâ‚‚Clâ‚‚ | Making drinking water free of germs |
| 2 | Baking Soda | NaHCO₃ | Soda-acid fire extinguisher |
| 3 | Washing Soda | Na₂CO₃ | Removing permanent hardness of water |
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: b
Explanation:
24 Consider the following pairs:
- Kigali Amendment  : Phasing down Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).
- Paris Agreement : Adopted in 2015.
- Montreal Protocol  :l Addresses biodiversity loss.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(A) Only one pair
(B) Only two pairs
(C) All three pairs
(D) None of this pairs
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two pairsÂ
Explanation:
- Pair 1 is correct: The Kigali Amendment is a legally binding agreement to gradually reduce the consumption and production of HFCs, which are powerful greenhouse gases.
- Pair 2 is correct: The Paris Agreement is a landmark international treaty on climate change that was adopted at COP21 in 2015.
- Pair 3 is incorrect: The Montreal Protocol is specifically designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out ozone-depleting substances (ODS). Biodiversity loss is primarily governed by the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
25 Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC):
- Members are elected based on regional representation.
- India has been elected under the Asia-Pacific group for the term 2026-28.
- ECOSOC is a subsidiary organ of the UN Security Council.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
 Answer: (B) Only twoÂ
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The 54 members of ECOSOC are elected by the General Assembly for three-year terms based on geographical allotments (Africa, Asia-Pacific, Eastern Europe, Latin America/Caribbean, and Western Europe/others).
- Statement 2 is correct: India is a frequent and active member of ECOSOC and has been elected for the 2026-28 term, continuing its role in global developmental policy.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: ECOSOC is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations, established by the UN Charter. It is not a “subsidiary organ” of the Security Council; it stands alongside it.
- Consider the following statements:
- The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) aims to enhance connectivity between India and Europe.
- IMEC includes both rail and maritime components.
- China is not a founding participant of IMEC
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (C) All three
Explanation: * Statement 1 is correct: IMEC was launched at the G20 summit in New Delhi (2023) to stimulate economic development through enhanced connectivity and economic integration between India, the Persian Gulf, and Europe.
- Statement 2 is correct: The corridor consists of two separate segments: the East Corridor (connecting India to the Arabian Gulf via sea) and the Northern Corridor (connecting the Arabian Gulf to Europe via rail and sea).
- Statement 3 is correct: IMEC is a strategic initiative involving India, the USA, UAE, Saudi Arabia, France, Germany, Italy, and the European Union. It is often viewed as a counter to China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI); China is not a member or participant.
- Consider the following statements:
- India has committed to achieving Net Zero emissions by 2070.
- The Nationally Determined contributions (NDCs) are submitted under the Paris Agreement.
- NDC targets are legally binding under international law.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation: * Statement 1 is correct: Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced India’s commitment to achieve Net Zero emissions by 2070 during the COP26 summit in Glasgow.
- Statement 2 is correct: NDCs are the core of the Paris Agreement and represent the efforts by each country to reduce national emissions and adapt to the impacts of climate change.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: While the Paris Agreement itself is a legally binding international treaty, the NDC targets submitted by countries are not legally binding. There is no international legal penalty if a country fails to meet its specific NDC goals, although there is a binding obligation to report progress.
- Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Project Cheetah aims to reintroduce cheetahs into India after their extinction.
Statement II: The project is implemented by the National Tiger Conservation Authority.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Explanation: * Statement I is true: Cheetahs were declared extinct in India in 1952. Project Cheetah is the world’s first intercontinental large wild carnivore translocation project, bringing cheetahs from Namibia and South Africa to Kuno National Park.
- Statement II is true: The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is the nodal agency for the implementation of the project, providing funding and supervisory support.
- Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The Pacific Ring of Fire is associated with high seismic and volcanic activity.
Statement II: It is located along the Indian Ocean coastline of India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Explanation: * Statement I is true: The Ring of Fire is a major area in the basin of the Pacific Ocean where a large number of earthquakes and volcanic eruptions occur due to plate tectonics.
- Statement II is false: As the name suggests, it is located along the Pacific Ocean rim, stretching from New Zealand, up through East Asia, across to Alaska, and down the western coasts of North and South America. It has no connection to the Indian Ocean coastline of India.
- Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The highest temperature on oceanic surface is recorded at equator.
Statement II: The maximum temperature of the oceans is recorded on their surface.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Explanation: Statement I is false: Surprisingly, the highest surface temperatures are generally recorded north of the equator (around 5°N to 10°N) and in tropical seas rather than exactly at the equator. This is because the equator experiences high cloud cover and heavy rainfall, which slightly cools the surface water.
- Statement II is true: Since the sun’s rays directly heat the top layer of the water, and water is a poor conductor of heat at depth, the surface layer always records the maximum temperature. Temperature decreases significantly as depth increases, particularly past the thermocline.
- Consider the following information:
- Place: Kudremukh | Minerals: Iron ore | State: Karnataka
- Place: Balaghat | Minerals: Manganese | State: Madhya Pradesh
- Place: Katni | Minerals: Bauxite | State: Chhattisgarh
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation: * Row 1 is correct: Kudremukh in Karnataka is one of the largest iron ore deposits in the world. The name refers to the horse-face shape of the peak.
- Row 2 is correct: The Balaghat belt in Madhya Pradesh is famous for producing about 80% of India’s manganese and is also a significant copper producer.
- Row 3 is incorrect: While Katni is indeed a major producer of Bauxite, it is located in Madhya Pradesh, not Chhattisgarh.
- Consider the following information:
- Type: Nomadic Herding | Characteristics: Primitive subsistence | Regions: Sahara and Asiatic deserts
- Type: Extensive Commercial Grain Cultivation | Characteristics: Wheat is the principal crop | Regions: Mid-latitude semi-arid lands
- Type: Mediterranean Agriculture | Characteristics: Viticulture | Regions: Europe, Iran and Canada
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation: * Row 1 is correct: Nomadic herding is a primitive subsistence activity where herders move with animals for fodder and water in arid/semi-arid regions like the Sahara.
- Row 2 is correct: This type of farming is characterized by large landholdings and mechanization, practiced in the Steppes, Prairies, and Pampas, with wheat as the main crop.
- Row 3 is incorrect: While Mediterranean agriculture is famous for viticulture (grape cultivation), it is practiced in areas around the Mediterranean Sea, California, central Chile, and southwestern Australia. It is not practiced in Canada, as the climate there is too cold.
- Consider the following statements:
- In Odisha high grade hematite ore is found in Badampahar mines.
- Very high grade hematites are found in the famous Bailadila range of hills in Jharkhand.
- Ballari-Chitradurga-Chikkamangaluru-Tumakuru belt in Karnataka has large reserves of iron ore.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation: * Statement 1 is correct: High-grade hematite ore is found in the Badampahar mines in the Mayurbhanj and Kendujhar districts of Odisha.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The Bailadila range is famous for very high-grade hematite, but it is located in the Bastar district of Chhattisgarh, not Jharkhand.
- Statement 3 is correct: This is a major iron ore belt in Karnataka. The Kudremukh mines located in this belt are known for 100% export-oriented production.
- Consider the following pairs of traditional Haryanvi ornaments and the body part they are worn on:
- Purli – Nose
- Hasla – Neck
- Kadi – Ankle
- Chhaj – Forehead
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(A) Only 1, 2, and 3
(B) Only 2, 3, and 4
(C) Only 1, 2, and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation: * Purli: A small stud or ring-like ornament worn on the nose.
- Hasla: A heavy, rigid circular ornament worn around the neck.
- Kadi: Traditional heavy silver rings or bands worn around the ankles.
- Chhaj: A decorative ornament, often part of a larger headpiece, worn on the forehead.
- Which of the following statements uniquely identifies the ‘Loor’ dance of Haryana?
(A) It is a martial dance performed exclusively by men holding swords and shields.
(B) It is a female-exclusive dance performed during the Holi festival, characterized by questions and answers in a singing format.
(C) It is performed by the devotees of Shiva during the month of Sawan.
(D) It is a slow, rhythmic dance performed to mourn the departure of a bride.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) It is a female-exclusive dance performed during the Holi festival, characterized by questions and answers in a singing format.
Explanation: The Loor dance is popular in the Bangar region of Haryana. It is performed by girls during the month of Phalguna (specifically around Holi). The word ‘Loor’ means girl in the local dialect. The dance is unique because it involves a dialogue in song form, usually centered around social themes or marriage proposals, presented as a series of questions and answers.
36 Match List I (Eminent Literary Figures of Haryana) with List II (Their Renowned Work) and select the correct code:
| LIST-I
(Author/Poet) |
LIST-II
(Literary Work) |
| I. Khwaja Altaf Hussain Hali | a. Musaddas-e-Hali |
| II. Surdas | b. Sur Sagar |
| III. Uday Bhanu Hans | c. Deshan Me Desh Haryana |
| IV. Rajaram Shastri | d. Jhadu Phiri |
(A) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
(B) I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c
(C) I-a, II-c, III-b, IV-d
(D) I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c
(E) Question not attempted
 Answer: (A) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-dÂ
Explanation: * Khwaja Altaf Hussain Hali: A famous Urdu poet from Panipat; Musaddas-e-Hali is his most influential work.
- Surdas: The legendary Bhakti saint born in Sihi, Faridabad; Sur Sagar is his magnum opus.
- Uday Bhanu Hans: The State Poet of Haryana; Deshan Me Desh Haryana is a celebrated poem highlighting the culture of the state.
- Rajaram Shastri: He wrote Jhadu Phiri, which is recognized as the first novel written in the Haryanvi language.
37 Given below are two statements:
Statement I:
Pampadevi, the goddess of the Vijayanagara Empire, performed penance to marry Vishnu.
Statement II:
This marriage ceremony of Pampadevi is organised with great pomp every year in Virupaksha Temple.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. Explanation: * Statement I is false: According to local mythology, Pampadevi (the local mother goddess) performed penance to marry Virupaksha (a form of Shiva, the guardian deity of the kingdom), not Vishnu.
- Statement II is true: The marriage of Pampa and Virupaksha is celebrated annually at the Virupaksha Temple in Hampi, a tradition that continues from the Vijayanagara era.
Â
38 Consider the following pairs:
- Agriculture      :    Union List
- Livestock and   :    State List
Animal HusbandryÂ
- Education      :    Concurrent List
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(A) Only one pair
(B) Only two pairs
(C) All three pairs
(D) None of the Pairs
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two pairsÂ
Explanation:Â Pair 1 is incorrect: Agriculture (including agricultural education and research) is a State List subject (Entry 14), not Union.
- Pair 2 is correct: Preservation of livestock and animal husbandry is a State List subject (Entry 15).
- Pair 3 is correct: Education was moved from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
39 Consider the following statements:
- The Parliament may, by law, create a Legislative Council in a state if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution in this regard by a simple majority.
- The Legislative Assembly of a state has no role to play in the abolition of the Legislative Council of that state.
- The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State cannot exceed one-third of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that State.
- One-twelfth of Members of Legislative Council are elected by persons residing in the State who have been graduates for at least three years.
How many of the statement (s) given above are correct?
(A) Only one statement
(B) Only two statements
(C) Only three statements
(D) All four statements
(E) Question not attempted
 Answer: (B) Only two statementsÂ
Explanation: * Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 169, the Assembly must pass the resolution by a Special Majority (majority of total membership and 2/3rd of members present and voting), not a simple majority.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The Assembly plays the primary role; Parliament can only abolish a Council if the state Assembly initiates the request via resolution.
- Statement 3 is correct: As per Article 171, the maximum strength of the Council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the Assembly, with a minimum of 40 members.
- Statement 4 is correct: The composition includes 1/12th members elected by graduates of three years standing residing in the state.
40 Consider the following statements:
- The Gram Sabha comprises of the entire population residing within a village.
- The elections to Panchayats are conducted by the Election Commission of India
- A Panchayat dissolved before the expiry of the period of 5 years and then reconstituted, functions only for the remaining period.
- The Panchayats can be given the power to levy taxes by the State.
How many of the statement (s) given above are correct?
(A) Only one statement
(B) Only two statements
(C) Only three statements
(D) All four statements
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two statementsÂ
Explanation:Â Statement 1 is incorrect: The Gram Sabha consists of all persons registered in the electoral rolls (voters) of a village, not the “entire population” (which would include children and non-citizens).
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Panchayat elections are conducted by the State Election Commission, not the Election Commission of India.
- Statement 3 is correct: If a Panchayat is dissolved early, the newly elected body serves only for the remainder of the 5-year term, not a fresh 5 years.
- Statement 4 is correct: The State Legislature may, by law, authorize a Panchayat to levy, collect, and appropriate specific taxes, duties, and tolls.
- Consider the following pairs:
- Tribes Advisory Council : IV Schedule
- Autonomous Districts : VI Schedule
- Regional Councils : V Schedule
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(A) Only one pair
(B) Only two pairs
(C) All three pairs
(D) None of the pairs
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) Only one pair
Explanation: * Pair 1 is incorrect: The Tribes Advisory Council is established under the V Schedule of the Constitution, not the IV Schedule (which deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha).
- Pair 2 is correct: Autonomous Districts and Autonomous District Councils are features of the VI Schedule, which applies to tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
- Pair 3 is incorrect: Regional Councils are also a provision of the VI Schedule, meant for regions within autonomous districts that have different ethnic tribes.
- Consider the following pairs:
- Mosquito : Egg, Larva, Pupa & Adult
- Silk moth : Egg, Larva, Pupa and Adult
- Cockroaches : Egg, Nymph, Pupa and Adult
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(A) Only one pair
(B) Only two pairs
(C) All three pairs
(D) None of the pairs
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two pairs
Explanation:
- Pair 1 is correct: Mosquitos undergo complete metamorphosis (holometabolous), which includes the four distinct stages: Egg, Larva, Pupa, and Adult.
- Pair 2 is correct: Silk moths also undergo complete metamorphosis with the same four stages.
- Pair 3 is incorrect: Cockroaches undergo incomplete metamorphosis (paurometabolous). Their life cycle consists of three stages: Egg, Nymph, and Adult. They do not have a Pupa stage.
- Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Rabi crops includes paddy, soyabean, pigeon pea, maize and cotton while crops like wheat, gram, peas are kharif crops.
Statement II: Vegetables and fruits provide vitamins and minerals in addition to small amounts of proteins and fats.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Explanation:
- Statement I is false: The categories are swapped. Paddy, soybean, pigeon pea, maize, and cotton are Kharif crops (sown in the rainy season). Wheat, gram, and peas are Rabi crops (sown in the winter season).
- Statement II is true: While fruits and vegetables are primarily valued for their high vitamin, mineral, and dietary fiber content, they also contribute minor amounts of protein and fats to the diet.
- Which of the following is/are correct?
- Fertilizers are commercially available products that provide nitrogen, phosphorous and potassium to crops.
- Fertilizer contains a large amount of organic matter which improves the water holding capacity of the soil.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation:
- Point 1 is correct: Chemical fertilizers are manufactured products specifically designed to deliver concentrated doses of NPK (Nitrogen, Phosphorus, and Potassium).
- Point 2 is incorrect: This description applies to Manure, not fertilizers. Fertilizers are inorganic salts and contain very little to no organic matter. It is manure that improves soil structure and water-holding capacity through its high organic content.
- Consider the following pairs:
- Natural contraceptive : Lactational Amenorrhea
- Barrier method : Progestasert
- Hormone Releasing IUDs : Saheli
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(A) Only one pair
(B) Only two pairs
(C) All three pairs
(D) None of the pairs
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) Only one pair
Explanation:
- Pair 1 is correct: Lactational Amenorrhea is a natural contraceptive method based on the fact that ovulation does not occur during the period of intense lactation following childbirth.
- Pair 2 is incorrect: Progestasert is an Intrauterine Device (IUD), specifically a hormone-releasing IUD, not a barrier method. Barrier methods include condoms, diaphragms, and cervical caps.
- Pair 3 is incorrect: Saheli is an oral contraceptive pill (non-steroidal), not an IUD. Hormone-releasing IUDs include devices like Progestasert and LNG-20.
- Given below are two statements:
Statement I: ISRO launched the XPoSat mission in January 2025 to study cosmic X-ray sources.
Statement II: XPoSat is India’s first dedicated mission to study X-ray polarization.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Explanation:
- Statement I is false: ISRO actually launched the XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite) on January 1, 2024, not 2025.
- Statement II is true: XPoSat is indeed India’s first dedicated scientific satellite to study the polarization of cosmic X-rays from sources like black holes and neutron stars. Globally, it is only the second such mission after NASA’s IXPE.
- Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Sangken is a Buddhist festival in Arunachal Pradesh that marks the community’s New Year.
Statement II: Mopin is an agricultural festival associates with the Garo tribe and aims to drive away evil spirits and ensure prosperity.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Explanation:
- Statement I is true: Sangken is a water-sprinkling festival celebrated by the Theravada Buddhist communities (like the Khamti tribe) in Arunachal Pradesh to mark the New Year.
- Statement II is false: Mopin is an agricultural festival of the Galo tribe (not the Garo tribe) of Arunachal Pradesh. It is celebrated to seek blessings for a good harvest and protection from diseases.
- Consider the following statements:
- The Idealistic Theory believes that culture originates from divine inspiration, intuition or higher ideas perceived by individuals or groups.
- The Materialistic Theory states that physical environment, climate and means of production shape culture first.
- Vedic Culture developed only from religious beliefs and was not influenced by material conditions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The Idealistic Theory posits that mental or spiritual processes are the primary drivers of cultural evolution.
- Statement 2 is correct: Materialism (specifically Historical Materialism) argues that the economic base (tools, labor, environment) determines the cultural superstructure.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Historical analysis shows that Vedic culture was significantly influenced by material conditions, such as the shift from a pastoral/nomadic lifestyle to settled agriculture and the use of iron tools.
- Consider the following statements:
- Archaeological evidence such as burial urns and earthen pots in South India indicates cultural exchange between the Indus Valley Civilization and the early Tamil culture.
- The presence of a significant number of Dravidian words in the Brahui language of Baluchistan suggests prehistoric cultural contact between North-West India and South India.
- The treatise Tolkappiam, written around 1000 BC, deals exclusively with Tamil grammar and provides no information about the social life of ancient Dravidians.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: Artifacts found in sites like Adichanallur and Keezhadi show graffiti and pottery styles that some scholars link to the Indus Valley script and culture.
- Statement 2 is correct: Brahui is a Dravidian language spoken in Baluchistan (Pakistan). Its existence so far north is a primary piece of evidence for the theory that Dravidian speakers once inhabited North-West India before migrating south.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: While Tolkappiam is primarily a work on grammar and poetics, its third section (Porulatikaram) provides deep insights into the social life, customs, and psychology of the people of the Sangam era. Additionally, its date is generally placed between the 3rd century BCE and 3rd century CE, not 1000 BC.
- Consider the following statements:
- In Haryana, State Govt. provides interest subvention.
- The e-billing for all types of bills was introduced in 2018 in Haryana.
- For Haryana, the effective rate of interest on crop loan is zero percent.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (C) All three
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The Haryana government provides interest subvention to ease the debt burden on farmers and small businesses.
- Statement 2 is correct: Haryana was a pioneer in adopting digital governance, introducing comprehensive e-billing systems around 2018 to ensure transparency.
- Statement 3 is correct: Under specific state schemes, if a farmer repays their crop loan on time, the interest is shared by the Central and State governments, making the effective interest rate for the farmer 0%.
- Consider the following statements:
- Haryana initiated gender budgeting in 2008-09 financial year.
- Old Age Samman Allowance Scheme is run by Haryana with 100% support from central government.
- Haryana’s per capita income is higher than national average for 2025-26.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) Only one
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Haryana formally introduced gender budgeting in the 2021-22 budget, much later than 2008-09. It was aimed at ensuring that budget allocations directly address gender-specific needs.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The Old Age Samman Allowance is a state-funded social security scheme. While there is a central component under NSAP for specific categories, the bulk of the “Samman Allowance” (which is among the highest in India) is funded by the Haryana State Government.
- Statement 3 is correct: Haryana consistently maintains a per capita income significantly higher than the national average. For the 2025-26 fiscal year, this trend continues due to strong industrial, service, and agricultural output. For the 2025–26 fiscal year, Haryana’s annual per capita income is estimated at ₹3,95,618, which is nearly 80% higher than the national average of ₹2,19,575.
- Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The Excise & Taxation Department Haryana administers VAT on sale of goods except 4 non GSD goods.
Statement II: The excise collection on liqueur is one of the major sources of revenue for the state government in Haryana.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Explanation:
- Statement I is false: Under the GST regime, VAT in Haryana is primarily restricted to 5 petroleum products (Crude oil, Petrol, Diesel, Natural Gas, Aviation Turbine Fuel) and Alcoholic liquor for human consumption. The number “4” is incorrect.
- Statement II is true: State Excise Duty on liquor is one of the most significant “Own Tax Revenue” sources for Haryana, contributing a substantial portion to the state exchequer annually.
- Consider the following pairs:
Straits : Bays/Seas/Gulfs connected by it
- Hormuz Strait : Red Sea and Gulf of Aden
- Davis Strait : Baffin Bay and Labrador Sea
- Bosporus Strait : Black Sea and Sea of Marmara
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(A) Only one pair
(B) Only two pairs
(C) All three pairs
(D) None of the pairs
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two pairs
Explanation:
- Pair 1 is incorrect: The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. The Bab-el-Mandeb is the strait that connects the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden.
- Pair 2 is correct: The Davis Strait is a northern arm of the Atlantic Ocean that lies between mid-western Greenland and Baffin Island, connecting Baffin Bay and the Labrador Sea.
- Pair 3 is correct: The Bosporus Strait (Istanbul Strait) is a narrow, natural strait that connects the Black Sea to the Sea of Marmara.
- Consider the following statements:
- Kuroshio is a cold ocean current in the Pacific ocean.
- Kuroshio ocean current flows from tropics to south pole.
- Kuroshio is an ocean current in western part of the North Pacific ocean.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) Only one
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The Kuroshio is a warm ocean current, often called the “Black Current.”
- Statement 2 is incorrect: It flows from the tropics toward the North Pole (specifically along the eastern coast of Japan), not the South Pole.
- Statement 3 is correct: It is indeed a western boundary current in the North Pacific Ocean, similar to the Gulf Stream in the Atlantic.
- Consider the following information:
- Origin: Brahmagiri Hills | River: Kaveri River | State/UT: Karnataka
- Origin: Verinag | River: Chenab River | State/UT: Jammu and Kashmir
- Origin: Amarkantak Plateau | River: Godavari | State/UT: Madhya Pradesh
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) Only one
Explanation:
- Row 1 is correct: The Kaveri river originates in the Brahmagiri Hills (Talakaveri) in the Kodagu district of Karnataka.
- Row 2 is incorrect: Verinag is the source of the Jhelum river. The Chenab originates from the confluence of the Chandra and Bhaga rivers near Bara-lacha La in Himachal Pradesh.
- Row 3 is incorrect: The Godavari originates from Trimbakeshwar in Maharashtra. The Amarkantak Plateau is the source of the Narmada and Son rivers.
- Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Akbar and his elite first saw tobacco in 1604 AD.
Statement II: Abul Fazl in his Ain-i-Akbari described the cultivation and use of tobacco in North India in detail.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Explanation:
- Statement I is true: Tobacco was introduced to the Mughal court in 1604 AD (at the end of Akbar’s reign) by pilgrims and traders returning from Bijapur. Akbar was reportedly fascinated by the hookah presented to him.
- Statement II is false: Abul Fazl could not have described tobacco in the Ain-i-Akbari because he was assassinated in 1602 AD, two years before tobacco reached the Mughal court. Tobacco cultivation only spread significantly during the reign of Jahangir.
- Given below are two statements:
Statement I: During British colonialism, the Santhals were settled at the foothills of the Rajmahal and this large area was considered their land (Damin-i-Koh) and was made to cultivate it.
Statement II: Landlords, moneylenders, and the colonial government would reclaim the cleared land of the Santhals by imposing heavy taxes and high interest rates! This led to the Santhal rebellion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Explanation:
- Statement I is true: The British created Damin-i-Koh in 1832 to persuade the Santhals to settle as sedentary agriculturists in the Rajmahal hills, hoping to increase land revenue.
- Statement II is true: Once the Santhals cleared the forests for farming, the state imposed high taxes, and moneylenders (Dikus) charged exorbitant interest. This exploitation eventually triggered the Santhal Hool (rebellion) of 1855-56.
- Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Before the railway age, the town of Mirzapur was a collection center for cotton coming from the Deccan.
Statement II: Cotton production in Bombay almost came to an end due to the American Civil War.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Explanation:
- Statement I is true: Before railways transformed transport, Mirzapur served as a vital river port on the Ganges, acting as a hub for the cotton trade coming from the Deccan and Central India.
- Statement II is false: The American Civil War (1861–65) actually caused a “Cotton Boom” in Bombay. Since British mills could no longer get cotton from the US South, they turned to India, leading to a massive increase in exports and production in the Bombay Presidency.
- Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The British land revenue system, known as the Summary Settlement, was implemented in Awadh in 1856.
Statement II: The Summary Settlement increased the income of the middleman taluqdars by granting him new land.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Explanation:
- Statement I is true: After the annexation of Awadh in 1856, the British introduced the Summary Settlement, which aimed to settle land revenue directly with the actual occupiers of the land.
- Statement II is false: The Summary Settlement actually dispossessed the Taluqdars (landed aristocracy). The British viewed them as interlopers and removed them from their holdings to deal directly with villages. This displacement of Taluqdars was a major cause of the 1857 Revolt in Awadh.
- Consider the following statements:
- The Inter-State Council can inquire into disputes between the states.
- It can discuss subjects in which states, or the Union and one or more states, have a common interest.
- Union territories are not represented in the Inter-state Council.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 263, the Inter-State Council has the power to inquire into and advise upon disputes which may have arisen between states.
- Statement 2 is correct: It is mandated to investigate and discuss subjects in which the states or the Union have a common interest.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Administrators of Union Territories (those without Legislative Assemblies) and Chief Ministers of UTs with Legislative Assemblies are members of the Council.
61 Consider the following statements:
- An object moving with constant velocity has zero net force acting on it.
- Action and reaction forces act on the same body.
- A large force acting for a short time can produce a large change in momentum.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: According to Newton’s First Law (Inertia), an object remains at constant velocity unless acted upon by a net external force. If velocity is constant, acceleration is zero, and thus
F = ma = 0
. - Statement 2 is incorrect: According to Newton’s Third Law, action and reaction forces are equal and opposite, but they always act on two different bodies. If they acted on the same body, they would cancel each other out, and motion would be impossible.
- Statement 3 is correct: Change in momentum is equal to Impulse (J = F.Delta t). A large force, even if applied for a short duration (like a bat hitting a ball), results in a significant change in momentum.
Â
62 Consider the following pairs:
- If ciliary muscles are relaxed   :    focal length of the eye lens increases
- If eye lens becomes thicker    :    enables us to see nearby objects 2 clearly
- For a young adult            :    near point is about 25 cm
with normal vision
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(A) Only-one pair
(B) Only two pairs
(C) All three pairs
(D) None-of-the-pairs
(E) Question not attempted
Â
Answer: (C) All three pairsÂ
Explanation:
- Pair 1 is correct: When ciliary muscles relax, the eye lens becomes thin, which increases the focal length, allowing the eye to focus on distant objects.
- Pair 2 is correct: To see nearby objects, ciliary muscles contract, making the lens thicker (more curved). This decreases the focal length so the image forms on the retina.
- Pair 3 is correct: The near point (least distance of distinct vision) for a healthy young adult is standardly 25 cm.
63 Consider the following statements:
- The loudness of a sound is determined basically by its frequency.
- The frequency of the sound wave does not change when it travels from one medium to another.
- Audible range of the average human ear extends from about 20 Hz to 20 kHz.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
 Answer: (B) Only twoÂ
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The loudness of sound is determined by its amplitude. Frequency determines the pitch of the sound (how shrill or deep it is).
- Statement 2 is correct: Frequency is a characteristic of the source. When sound moves from air to water or steel, its speed and wavelength change, but its frequency remains constant.
- Statement 3 is correct: The standard human hearing range is approximately 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz (20 kHz).
Â
64 Consider the following information:
| Â | Organisation/Agreement | Feature |
| 1 | UNFCCC | Framework for climate negotiations |
| 2 | Kyoto Protocol | Legally binding emission reduction targets for all countries |
| 3 | Global Compact for Migration | Legally binding agreement |
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) Only oneÂ
Explanation:
- Row 1 is correct: The UNFCCC provides the primary international framework for intergovernmental efforts to tackle climate change.
- Row 2 is incorrect: The Kyoto Protocol only set legally binding targets for developed countries (Annex I parties). It did not mandate targets for “all countries” (developing nations like India and China were exempt).
- Row 3 is incorrect: The Global Compact for Migration is a non-legally binding, cooperative framework intended to improve international cooperation on migration.
Â
65 Consider the following information:
| Â | Program/Initiative | Feature |
| 1 | BharatNet Project | Aims to provide broadband connectivity in rural India |
| 2 | National Electric Mobility Mission | Supports EV adoption and infrastructure |
| 3 | PM Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana | Provides clean cooking gas to households |
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only twoÂ
Explanation:
- Row 1 is correct: BharatNet (formerly National Optical Fibre Network) is the world’s largest rural broadband project, connecting Gram Panchayats.
- Row 2 is correct: This mission aims to achieve national fuel security by promoting hybrid and electric vehicles (including schemes like FAME).
- Row 3 is incorrect: PM Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana (SAUBHAGYA) provides electricity connections to un-electrified households. The program that provides clean cooking gas (LPG) is PM Ujjwala Yojana.
- Consider the following information:
| No. | Convention | Feature |
| 1 | UNTOC | Also known as Palermo Convention |
| 2 | UNCAC | Only legally binding universal anti-corruption instrument |
| 3 | UN Spotlight Initiative | Implemented solely by IMF |
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation:
- Row 1 is correct: The United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is indeed referred to as the Palermo Convention, as it was adopted in Palermo, Italy, in 2000.
- Row 2 is correct: The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) is the only legally binding universal anti-corruption instrument. Most UN member states are parties to it.
- Row 3 is incorrect: The Spotlight Initiative is a global, multi-year partnership between the European Union and the United Nations to eliminate all forms of violence against women and girls. It is not an IMF-led program.
- Which of the following is/are correct?
- The Global Carbon Budget 2024 is released by the IPCC.
- It tracks global CO2 emissions and sinks.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation:
- Point 1 is incorrect: The Global Carbon Budget is produced annually by the Global Carbon Project (GCP), a group of international scientists. While the IPCC (Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change) uses this data in its assessment reports, it does not release the annual budget itself.
- Point 2 is correct: The report provides a detailed look at the amount of carbon dioxide (CO_2) emitted by human activities and how much is absorbed by natural carbon sinks (like forests and oceans) versus how much remains in the atmosphere.
- Which of the following is/are correct?
- India deployed the first All-women Formed Police Unit in Liberia.
- UN Peacekeeping operations are mandated by the UN General Assembly only.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation:
- Point 1 is correct: In 2007, India made history by deploying the first-ever all-female Formed Police Unit (FPU) to the UN Mission in Liberia (UNMIL). This move was widely praised for its impact on local women and its contribution to peacekeeping.
- Point 2 is incorrect: While the General Assembly plays a role in financing and general policy, the primary responsibility for mandating and authorizing UN Peacekeeping operations rests with the UN Security Council (UNSC). The UNSC determines the deployment, mandate, and size of the mission.
Â
- Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Per-capita income is not sufficient to measure the development.
Statement II: Per-capita income is defined as total population divided by total income.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Explanation:
- Statement I is true: Per-capita income is an average that hides inequalities. It does not account for health, education, life expectancy, or the distribution of wealth. This is why indices like the Human Development Index (HDI) are used for a more comprehensive view of development.
- Statement II is false: Per-capita income is defined as total income divided by total population. The statement provides the inverse, which is mathematically incorrect.
- Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Disguised Unemployment is a structural phenomenon in Indian Agriculture.
Statement II: Marginal Productivity of additional labour Units is zero (MPL = 0) in Indian Agriculture due to disguised unemployment.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Explanation:
- Statement I is true: Disguised unemployment is a common feature in the Indian agrarian structure where more people are engaged in farming than are actually required, primarily due to a lack of alternative employment opportunities in other sectors.
- Statement II is true: By definition, disguised unemployment occurs when the Marginal Productivity of Labour (MPL) is zero. This means that if some workers are removed from the field, the total agricultural output remains unchanged because their “contribution” to the total production was effectively nil.
- Which of the following is/are correct?
- Collateral requirements expand the credit access for landless labourers.
- Multinational Corporation may influence the domestic production patterns.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation:
- Point 1 is incorrect: Collateral (assets like land or jewelry pledged as a guarantee) acts as a barrier for landless labourers. Since they lack such assets, they are often excluded from formal credit markets.
- Point 2 is correct: Multinational Corporations (MNCs) significantly influence domestic patterns by setting price points, quality standards, and delivery schedules for local suppliers, or by introducing new technologies and production methods to the domestic market.
- Which of the following is/are correct?
- GDP is calculated by adding up the value of all final goods and services produced in a country during a given year.
- Intermediate consumption represents the value of goods and services as inputs in the production process, excluding fixed assets.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:Â
- Statement 1 is correct: Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures the monetary value of final goods and services—those that are bought by the final user—produced in a country in a given period of time. It avoids double-counting by excluding intermediate goods.
- Statement 2 is correct: In national accounts, intermediate consumption consists of the value of the goods and services consumed as inputs by a process of production. It specifically excludes fixed assets, whose consumption is recorded as “consumption of fixed capital” (depreciation).
- Consider the following statements:
- Formal credit sources are regulated by government sources.
- Expansion of Institutional credit reduces dependence on money lenders.
- Informal lenders generally charge lower rate of interest due to competition among themselves.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation:Â
- Statement 1 is correct: Formal credit sources, such as commercial banks and cooperatives, are strictly regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and other governmental authorities.
- Statement 2 is correct: When institutional (formal) credit becomes more available, it provides a safer and cheaper alternative for rural and urban poor, thereby reducing their reliance on exploitative informal moneylenders.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Informal lenders (like moneylenders, traders, or employers) typically charge much higher interest rates compared to formal sources. They do not follow standardized rules and often exploit the borrower’s lack of alternative options.
- Consider the following pairs:
- Commercial banks : Provide regulated loans.
- Self help Groups : Provide Group credit.
- Informal Money lenders : Provide loans as per RBI rules.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(A) Only one pair
(B) Only two pairs
(C) All three pairs
(D) None of the pairs
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two pairs
Explanation:Â Â
- Pair 1 is correctly matched: Commercial banks are part of the formal sector and provide loans based on interest rates and terms regulated by the RBI.
- Pair 2 is correctly matched: Self-Help Groups (SHGs) function on the principle of collective saving and provide credit to their members as a group, often without the need for traditional collateral.
- Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Informal moneylenders operate outside the purview of the RBI. They do not follow RBI rules regarding interest rates, transparency, or recovery methods, which is why they are often associated with high-interest debt traps.
75 Consider the following statements:
- Current fallow land – left without cultivation for two or more than two agricultural years,
- Other than, current fallow land – left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years.
- Gross cropped area – Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area is known as gross cropped area.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation: * Statement 1 is incorrect: Current fallow land is land left uncultivated for one or less than one agricultural year to help the soil regain its fertility.
- Statement 2 is correct: Land “other than current fallow” is land left uncultivated for a period of 1 to 5 years.
- Statement 3 is correct: Gross Cropped Area (GCA) is the total area sown once as well as more than once in a single year. It is calculated as:
GCA = Net Sown Area + Area Sown More Than Once
Â
76 Consider the following pairs:
| 1 | National Waterway of India (NW1) | Kottapuram–Kollam stretch |
| 2 | National Waterway of India (NW2) | Allahabad–Haldia stretch |
| 3 | National Waterway of India (NW3) | Sadia–Dhubri stretch |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(A) Only one pair
(B) Only two pairs
(C) All three pairs
(D) None of the pairs
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (D) None of the pairsÂ
Explanation: All three major National Waterways are mismatched in the pairs:
- NW1 is the Allahabad–Haldia stretch of the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system.
- NW2 is the Sadiya–Dhubri stretch of the Brahmaputra river.
- NW3 is the Kottapuram–Kollam stretch of the West Coast Canal in Kerala.
77 Given below are two statements:
Statement 1:
Long staple (American) cotton in north-western parts of India is called ‘narma’.
Statement II:
Tur, an important pulse is also known as yellow gram.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.Â
Explanation: * Statement I is true: In Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan, long-staple American cotton is locally referred to as ‘Narma’.
- Statement II is false: Tur (Arhar) is commonly known as Red Gram or Pigeon Pea. Yellow Gram is a term more commonly associated with certain varieties of moong or split chickpeas, but it is not the standard name for Tur.
78 Arrange the following historical events concerning Haryana region in the correct chronological order (earliest to latest):
- The Treaty of Surji-Anjangaon transferring control of Haryana to the British East India Company.
- The establishment of George Thomas’s independent kingdom at Hansi.
III. The annexation of the Kaithal state by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse.
- The Battle of Karnal between Nader Shah and Muhammad Shah.
(A) IV, II, I, III
(B)Â IV, I, II, III
(C) II, IV, I, III
(D) I, IV, II, III
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) IV, II, I, IIIÂ
Explanation:
- IV. Battle of Karnal (1739): Nader Shah defeated the Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah, significantly weakening Mughal authority in the Haryana region.
- II. George Thomas at Hansi (1798): The Irish adventurer George Thomas established his independent kingdom with Hansi as his capital.
- I. Treaty of Surji-Anjangaon (1803): After the Second Anglo-Maratha War, Daulat Rao Scindia ceded the territory of Haryana to the British East India Company.
- III. Annexation of Kaithal (1843): Following the death of Bhai Udai Singh without a male heir, the British annexed Kaithal under the Doctrine of Lapse.
79 In the context of the ‘Parivar Pehchan Patra’ (PPP) scheme of Haryana, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1 It mandates the creation of an 8-digit unique alphanumeric ID for every family residing in Haryana.
- The data obtained through PPP is legally protected under the Haryana Parivar Pehchan Act, 2021, which designates the Haryana Trust Based Reading Authority as the data custodian.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D)-Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) Only 1Â
Explanation:
- Point 1 is correct: The PPP aims to create an 8-digit unique ID for every family to ensure the seamless delivery of various government schemes and services.
- Point 2 is incorrect: While the data is protected under the Haryana Parivar Pehchan Act, 2021, the data custodian is the Haryana Parivar Pehchan Authority (HPPA), not the Trust Based Reading Authority.
80 How many of the following GI (Geographical Indication) tags are officially associated exclusively or jointly with the state of Haryana?
- Phulkari
- Basmati Rice
- Sirsa Kinnow
- Rohtak Rewri
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three
(D) All four
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only twoÂ
Explanation:
- 1. Phulkari (Correct): This is a joint GI tag shared by Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan.
- 2. Basmati Rice (Correct): Haryana is a major producer and part of the joint GI tag for Basmati rice along with Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Delhi, Uttarakhand, and parts of UP and Jammu & Kashmir.
- 3. Sirsa Kinnow (Incorrect): While Sirsa is famous for Kinnow, it does not currently hold a GI tag.
- 4. Rohtak Rewri (Incorrect): Similar to Sirsa Kinnow, Rohtak’s Rewri is iconic but has not been granted a GI tag as of now.
- Match List I (Major Power/Industrial Projects) with List II (Location/District) and select the correct code.
| LIST-I
(Project) |
LIST-II
(District) |
| I. Gorakhpur Nuclear Power Plant | a. Jhajjar |
| II. Rajiv Gandhi Thermal Power Project | b. Hisar |
| III. Mahatma Gandhi Super Thermal Power Project | c. Fatehabad |
| IV. Deen Bandhu Chhotu Ram Thermal Power Plant | d. Yamunanagar |
(A) I-c, II-b, III-a, IV-d
(B) I-b, II-c, III-d IV-a
(C) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d
(D) I-d, II-b, III-a, IV-c
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) I-c, II-b, III-a, IV-dÂ
Explanation:
- Gorakhpur Nuclear Power Plant: Located in the Gorakhpur village of Fatehabad district (often called the Anu Vidyut Pariyojna).
- Rajiv Gandhi Thermal Power Project: Located in Khedar, Hisar.
- Mahatma Gandhi Super Thermal Power Project: Located in Khanpur, Jhajjar.
- Deen Bandhu Chhotu Ram Thermal Power Plant: Located in Yamunanagar.
82 Arrange the following traditional folk fairs of Haryana in the chronological order of the Hindu calendar months they are typically celebrated in (from Chaitra onwards):
- Masani Mela (Gurugram)
- Kapal Mochan Mela (Yamunanagar)
- Gugga Naumi Mela
- Phalgu Mela (Faral)
(A) I, III, IV, II
(B) I, IV, III, II
(C) III, I, IV, II
(D) IV, I, III, II
(E) Question not attempted
Â
Answer: (A) I, III, IV, IIÂ
Explanation:
- 1. Masani Mela (Chaitra): Dedicated to Sheetla Mata in Gurugram, held in the first month of the Hindu calendar (Chaitra).
- 3. Gugga Naumi Mela (Bhadrapada): Dedicated to Gugga Pir, celebrated in Bhadrapada (August–September).
- 4. Phalgu Mela (Ashwin): Specifically during the Ashwin month (September–October) during the Pitru Paksha.
- 2. Kapal Mochan Mela (Kartik): Held on Kartik Purnima (Kartik month, October–November) in Yamunanagar.
Â
83 Given below are two statements:
Statement I:
Denatured alcohol contains small quantity of methanol, a poisonous substance.
Statement II:
Methanol is poisonous because it gets oxidized to methanoic acid in liver, which coagulates the protoplasm.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is
(E) Question not attempted
 Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.Â
Explanation:Â Â
- Statement I is true: To prevent the misuse of industrial alcohol (ethanol), it is “denatured” by adding poisonous substances like methanol, pyridine, or dyes. This makes it unfit for human consumption.
- Statement II is true: When methanol is ingested, the liver oxidizes it into methanal (formaldehyde) and then into methanoic acid (formic acid). Methanal reacts rapidly with the components of cells, causing the coagulation of protoplasm (similar to how an egg coagulates when cooked). It also attacks the optic nerve, leading to blindness or death.
84 Consider the following information:
| Â | Column-A | Column-B | Column-C |
| 1 | Smoke | Colloid | Gas in solid |
| 2 | Milk | Emulsion | Homogeneous |
| 3 | Pumice stone | Foam | Heterogeneous |
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) Only oneÂ
Explanation: * Row 1 is incorrect: Smoke is a colloid, but it is solid particles dispersed in gas (Aerosol), not gas in solid.
- Row 2 is incorrect: Milk is an emulsion, but all colloids are heterogeneous mixtures, even if they appear uniform to the naked eye.
- Row 3 is correct: Pumice stone is a solid foam (gas dispersed in a solid medium) and, like all colloids, it is a heterogeneous mixture.
85 Given below are two statements:
Statement I:
All metals evolve hydrogen gas upon reaction with hydrochloric acid.
Statement II:
Hydrogen carbonates of all metals except sodium, react with acids to give a corresponding salt, carbon dioxide and water.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement Iris false but Statement II is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Â
Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Explanation: *Â
Statement I is false: Only metals that are more reactive than hydrogen (like Zinc, Iron, Magnesium) evolve H_2 gas. Less reactive metals like Copper (Cu), Gold (Au), and Silver (Ag) do not react with dilute HCl to release hydrogen.
- Statement II is false: All metal hydrogen carbonates (including sodium hydrogen carbonate/baking soda) react with acids to produce salt, CO_2, and water. There is no exception for sodium in this chemical property.
86 Consider the following statements:
- Dental caries or tooth decay begins when bacteria acting on sugars produce alcohol that soften or demineralise the enamel.
- Dental caries or tooth decay begins when bacteria acting on sugars produce acetone that soften or demineralise the enamel.
- Dental caries or tooth decay begins when bacteria acting on sugars produce acids that softens or demineralise the enamel.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Â
Answer: (A) Only oneÂ
Explanation: * Statement 3 is correct: Tooth decay starts when bacteria (like Streptococcus mutans) in the mouth feed on sugar and produce acids. These acids lower the pH in the mouth; when the pH falls below 5.5, the calcium phosphate (enamel) begins to dissolve (demineralise). Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect as bacteria do not produce alcohol or acetone in quantities that cause dental caries.
Explanation:
87 Consider the following pairs of current sectoral composition of Indian Economy – Economic- Survey 2025-26:
- Primary Sector  : Largest share in employment with lowest share in GDP.
- Secondary Sector  : Lowest share in employment with second largest contribution in GDP.
- Tertiary Sector  : Largest contribution in GDP.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(A) Only one pair
(B) Only two pairs
(C) All three pairs
(D) None of the pairs
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (C) All three pairsÂ
Explanation:Â
Pair 1 is correct: The Primary sector (mainly Agriculture) still employs nearly 45% of the workforce but contributes the least to the GDP (approx. 18-20%).
- Pair 2 is correct: The Secondary sector (Industry/Manufacturing) typically has the lowest employment share compared to the others (approx. 25%) but is the second-largest GDP contributor.
- Pair 3 is correct: The Tertiary sector (Services) is the powerhouse of the Indian economy, contributing over 50% to the total GDP.
88 Consider the following information:
| Â | Certification Marks | Product |
| 1 | Hallmark | LPG cylinder and electronic goods |
| 2 | ISI Mark | Jewellery |
| 3 | Agmark | Food items like edible oil and honey |
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
 Answer: (A) Only oneÂ
Explanation: *Â
Row 1 is incorrect: Hallmark is used for gold and silver jewellery to certify purity.
- Row 2 is incorrect: The ISI Mark is used for industrial products, electronic items, and LPG cylinders to certify safety and quality.
- Row 3 is correct: Agmark is a certification mark for agricultural products (like honey, spices, and oils) in India, ensuring they meet a set of quality standards.
89 Consider the following information:
| Â | District | Economic Feature-I | Economic Feature-II |
| 1 | Panipat | Centre of Textile Industry | Hub of handloom Industry |
| 2 | Gurugram | Information technology | Corporate Services |
| 3 | Bhiwani | Agricultural Machinery | Manufacturing |
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (C) All threeÂ
Explanation:
- Panipat: Known as the “City of Weavers,” it is globally famous for its handloom products, blankets, and carpets. It is a major hub for textile recycling and manufacturing.
- Gurugram: Often called the “Cyber City,” it is a premier destination for IT/ITeS, BPOs, and corporate headquarters for numerous Fortune 500 companies.
- Bhiwani: Historically known for its textile mills, it has diversified into manufacturing and agricultural machinery, supported by its proximity to agricultural belts.
90 Which of the following is/are correct?
- The industrial base of Haryana mainly consists of Cotton textiles, Sugar processing and Farm machinery production.
- The state also manufacturs chemicals as a variety of consumer goods.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2Â
Explanation:
- Point 1 is correct: Haryana has a robust agro-based industrial sector. Panipat is a textile hub, and Yamunanagar and Rohtak have significant sugar processing units. The state is also a leader in manufacturing tractors and agricultural implements.
- Point 2 is correct: The state has developed a diverse industrial profile that includes chemicals (notably in Panipat and Ambala), automobiles, and a wide array of consumer goods like sanitaryware and glassware.
91 Which of the following is/are correct?
- The estimated fiscal deficit for Haryana as per Budget 2026-27 is 2.6%.
- In Haryana, effective revenue deficit has increased in past three years as the grants for creation of capital assets have gone down.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (A) 1 onlyÂ
Explanation:
- Point 1 is correct: The Haryana government has aimed to maintain fiscal discipline, keeping the fiscal deficit well within the 3% limit prescribed by the FRBM Act. For the 2026-27 budget, the target is estimated at 2.6% of GSDP.
- Point 2 is incorrect: Haryana has actually shown a trend of focusing on capital expenditure. While revenue deficits can fluctuate, the state has been utilizing grants and loans to increase capital asset creation rather than seeing a consistent “effective” decline caused by reduced grants.
92 Which of the following is/are correct?
- According to Budget 2026-27 for Haryana, maximum tax revenue comes from State Goods & Service Tax, followed by stamps and registration.
- Haryana governments own tax revenue is estimated to increase by 11% in Budget 2026-27 over Revised Budget 2025-26.
Select the answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2Â
Explanation:
- Point 1 is correct: SGST is the single largest source of tax revenue for the state. Taxes on the sale of property (stamps and registration) and state excise (liquor) follow as major contributors.
- Point 2 is correct: Based on projected economic growth and improved tax compliance, the state’s own tax revenue (SOTR) is estimated to grow at a healthy rate of 11% year-on-year.
- Match List I (Freedom Fighters/Reformers of Haryana) with List II (Associated Journals/Contributions) and select the correct code:
| LIST-I
(Personality) |
LIST-II
(Contribution/Journal) |
| I. Sir Chhotu Ram | a. ‘Sandesh’ (Weekly Newspaper) |
| II. Pandit Neki Ram Sharma | b. ‘Jat Gazette’ (Urdu Weekly) |
| III. Lala Murlidhar | c. ‘Haryana Tilak’ (Urdu/Hindi) |
| IV. Sriram Sharma | d. Khair-Andesh (Newspaper) |
(A) I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c
(B) I-b, II-c, III-a, IV-d
(C) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
(D) I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b
(E) Question not attempted
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Answer: (A) I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-cÂ
Explanation:
- Sir Chhotu Ram: Founded the Jat Gazette in 1916 to voice the concerns of the farming community.
- Pandit Neki Ram Sharma: Started the weekly newspaper Sandesh from Bhiwani to support the Nationalist movement.
- Lala Murlidhar: Known as “Grand Old Man of Punjab,” he was associated with the publication of Khair-Andesh from Ambala.
- Sriram Sharma: A prominent freedom fighter who edited the influential journal Haryana Tilak.
94 Assertion A:
The Revolt of 1857 in the Haryana region lacked a centralized leadership, leading to fragmented tribal and localized peasant uprisings rather than a unified military campaign.
Reason R:
The strategic assassination of Nawab Abdur Rahman Khan of Jhajjar before the outbreak of the mutiny decapitated the central command of the Haryana rebels.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (C) A is true but R is false.Â
Explanation:
- Assertion A is true: The revolt in Haryana was indeed characterized by local leaders (like Rao Tula Ram in Rewari and Nahar Singh in Ballabhgarh) acting independently. There was no single commander for the entire region.
- Reason R is false: Nawab Abdur Rahman Khan was not assassinated before the outbreak. He participated in the revolt and was later captured and executed by the British in January 1858 (after the main revolt had already spread).
95 How many of the following statements regarding the drainage system of Haryana are correct?
- The Markanda river, an ephemeral stream, changes its name to the Aruna river after entering the state.
- The Sahibi river originates in the Mewat hills and is a major tributary of the Yamuna, joining it near Okhla.
- The Tangri river is a tributary of the Markanda river and originates in the Morni hills.
- The Drishadvati river is generally identified with the modern-day Chautang river system.
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three
(D) All four
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only twoÂ
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The Aruna was the ancient name for the Markanda river, but it does not “change” its name upon entry; the river itself is an ephemeral stream originating in Himachal.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The Sahibi river originates in the Aravali hills of Rajasthan (near Jaipur), not the Mewat hills. It flows through Haryana but eventually peters out or drains toward the Najafgarh drain, not joining the Yamuna at Okhla in a significant way.
- Statement 3 is correct: The Tangri is a major tributary of the Markanda and has its origin in the Morni Hills of Panchkula.
- Statement 4 is correct: Historians and geologists generally identify the Vedic Drishadvati river with the modern Chautang river, which was a seasonal stream in ancient times.
96 Which of the following best describes the ‘Bagar’ tract of Haryana?
(A) The floodplains formed by the Yamuna river in the eastern districts.
(B) The heavily eroded, gullied lands found exclusively at the foothills of the Shiwaliks.
(C) The dry, sandy upland region along the Rajasthan border featuring shifting sand dunes.
(D) The highly fertile, low-lying loamy plains in the central districts like Rohtak and Sonipat.
(E) Question not attempted
 Answer: (C) The dry, sandy upland region along the Rajasthan border featuring shifting sand dunes. Explanation: The Bagar tract refers to the semi-arid, sandy region in western and south-western Haryana (districts like Sirsa, Hisar, Bhiwani, and Mahendragarh). It is characterized by shifting sand dunes (locally known as tibbas) and a lack of perennial rivers. This region transitions into the Thar Desert of Rajasthan and is distinct from the fertile “Khadar” (river floodplains) or “Bhangar” (older alluvium) plains of the state.
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- Consider the following statements with regard to joint sitting of the two Houses of the Parliament:
The President of India can call a joint sitting
- If after a Bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House and the Bill is rejected by the other House.
- If there is a disagreement among the Houses regarding the amendments to be made in a Bill.
- If more than three months lapse from the date of the reception of a Bill by the other House without the Bill being passed by it.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (B) Only twoÂ
(Note: answer key says ‘c’, but Statement 3 is technically incorrect as per Article 108 of the Constitution.) Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: Rejection by the other House is a valid ground for a joint sitting.
- Statement 2 is correct: Disagreement over amendments is the second valid ground for a joint sitting.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: According to Article 108, the time period specified is six months, not three months. A joint sitting can be called if the bill is pending for more than six months without being passed. (Note: Joint sittings are applicable only to Ordinary Bills and Financial Bills; they cannot be called for Money Bills or Constitutional Amendment Bills.)
98 Consider the following pairs regarding landmark Public Interest Litigation Cases in India:
| 1 | Hussainara Khatoon vs. State of Bihar (1979) | Under-trial prisoners case |
| 2 | Sunil Batra vs. Delhi Administration (1980) | Case related to torture of prisoners |
| 3 | M. C. Mehta vs. Union of India (1991) | Environment protection case |
How many of the above pairs are correct?
(A) Only one pair
(B) Only two pairs
(C) All three pairs
(D) None of the pairs
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (C) All three pairsÂ
Explanation:
- Pair 1 is correct: Often considered the first PIL in India, it led to the release of thousands of under-trial prisoners who had been in jail for periods longer than their maximum possible sentences.
- Pair 2 is correct: This case highlighted the inhumane conditions and torture in Tihar Jail, establishing that prisoners do not lose all fundamental rights upon incarceration.
- Pair 3 is correct: M.C. Mehta is a pioneer in environmental litigation; this specific 1991 case (and his others) led to the implementation of environmental education in schools and the protection of the Taj Mahal from industrial pollution.
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99 Given below are two statements:
Statement I:
The term ‘judicial review’ is explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India.
Statement II:
The Supreme Court can review laws on the ground that they violate the federal distribution of powers between the Centre and the States.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(E) Question not attempted
Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.Â
Explanation:
- Statement I is false: The term ‘judicial review’ is nowhere mentioned in the Constitution of India. However, the power of judicial review is implicitly granted to the Judiciary through various articles, such as Article 13, 32, 131-136, 226, and 246.
- Statement II is true: One of the core functions of the Supreme Court is to act as the arbiter of the Constitution. It can strike down any central or state law if it encroaches upon the legislative domain of the other, thereby maintaining the federal balance.
100 Consider the following statements:
- The doctrine of basic structure of the Constitution was propounded in the Keshwananda Bharti case.
- Right to Property is not a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
- Only the Supreme Court and the High Courts have the right to decide whether any matter is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
- The Parliament of India is not empowered to alter the basic structure of the Constitution.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only one statement
(B) Only two statement
(C) Only three statement
(D) All four statement
(E) Question not attempted
 Answer: (D) All four statementsÂ
(Note: answer key provided ‘c’, but all four listed points are legally established facts.)
 Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The doctrine was established in the landmark Keshavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala (1973) case.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment (1978) and is now a legal right under Article 300A. It is not part of the “basic structure.”
- Statement 3 is correct: As the authorized interpreters of the Constitution, only the Superior Judiciary (SC and HCs) can determine what constitutes the basic structure through judicial review.
- Statement 4 is correct: Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution under Article 368, provided it does not alter or destroy the basic structure.
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