UPPSC Question Paper 2025 with Explaination, Check Detailed Answer in English

Q1. Which of the following statements with reference to ‘blood’ is/are correct?

1. Blood is composed of plasma and different types of cells.
2. The presence of haemoglobin makes blood appear red.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Blood is made up of plasma (the liquid part) and different types of cells — namely red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets.

Statement 2 is correct: The haemoglobin pigment present in RBCs contains iron, which binds with oxygen and gives blood its red colour.

Hence, both statements are correct.

Q2. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Writer)            List – II (Book)

1. Trivikram Bhatta    1. Gita Govinda     
2. Somdev                   2. Brihatkathamanjari
3. Jaidev                      3. Nail Shampoo
4. Kshemendra           4. Katha Sarit Sagar

Code:

A  B  C  D

(a) 4 3 2 1

(b) 3 4 2 1

(c) 3 4 1 2

(d) 4 3 1 2

Answer: (c) 3 4 1 2

1. Trivikram Bhatta wrote  Nail Shampoo. He was a Sanskrit scholar and poet; Nailam Champu (Nail Shampoo) is attributed to him.
2. Somdev wrote Katha Sarit Sagar. A Kashmiri scholar; he compiled the Katha Sarit Sagar (Ocean of Stories) based on Gunadhya’s Brihatkatha.
3. Jaidev wrote Gita Govinda. A 12th-century poet in King Lakshman Sen’s court; Gita Govinda celebrates the love of Krishna and Radha.
4. Kshemendra wrote Brihatkathamanjari. He abridged Gunadhya’s Brihatkatha into Brihatkathamanjari in Sanskrit.

Q3. With reference to the Jnanpith Award, which of the following statements is/are correct?

• The 58th Jnanpith Award was conferred upon Sanskrit Scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya Ji.

•  The 1st Jnanpith Award was given in 1965.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

The 58th Jnanpith Award was indeed conferred upon Jagadguru Rambhadracharya, a Sanskrit scholar. 

The 1st Jnanpith Award was given in 1965 to Malayalam poet G. Shankara Kurup for his collection of poems, Odakkuzhal (The Bamboo Flute)

Q4. Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations in decreasing order of their frequencies)

1. Gamma rays
2. Ultraviolet rays
3. Radio waves
4. X-rays

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 4, 1, 2, 3

(c) 1, 4, 3, 2

(b) 4, 1, 3, 2

(d) 1, 4, 2, 3

Answer: (d) 1, 4, 2, 3

Explanation:
The electromagnetic spectrum in decreasing order of frequency (highest → lowest) is:
Gamma rays → X-rays → Ultraviolet rays → Radio waves

Type of Radiation	Frequency Range	Nature
Gamma rays	Highest (>10¹⁹ Hz)	From nuclear reactions
X-rays	Slightly lower	From electron transitions
Ultraviolet rays	Moderate	Beyond visible violet
Radio waves	Lowest (<10⁹ Hz)	Used in communication

Hence, the correct order is 1 (Gamma rays), 4 (X-rays), 2 (Ultraviolet), 3 (Radio waves).

Q5. ‘Adi Karmyogi Beta Version – A Responsive Governance Initiative’ was launched by which of the following ministry in June 2025?

1. Ministry of AYUSH
2. Ministry of Women and Child Development
3. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
4. Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Only 4

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 1 and 2

(d) Only 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

The correct answer is (a) Only 4 — it was launched by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Q6. Which of the following Department prepares the National Indicator Framework Progress Report related to Sustainable Development Goals in Uttar Pradesh?

1. Department of Finance
2. Department of Education
3. Department of Planning

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 3

(b) Only 1

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (a) Only 3

Explanation:

In Uttar Pradesh, the Department of Planning is the nodal department responsible for monitoring and reporting progress on the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

It prepares the “Uttar Pradesh SDG Progress Report” and the “National Indicator Framework (NIF) Progress Report” to align state targets with the NITI Aayog’s national framework.

Other departments like Finance or Education contribute sectoral data, but the overall coordination and compilation are done by the Planning Department.

Q7. With reference to ‘Baking Soda’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is sodium hydrogen carbonate.
2. It is used in fire extinguishers.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code :

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Baking soda is Sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO₃) — also known as Sodium bicarbonate.

Use in Fire Extinguishers: When heated, it releases carbon dioxide (CO₂) gas, which helps extinguish fire by cutting off the oxygen supply. 

Q8. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Consumers can bargain below Maximum Retail Price MRP.

Reason (R): MRP is a price a seller must charge from the buyer.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Assertion (A) is True: The Maximum Retail Price (MRP) is the highest price a retailer can charge. A seller is allowed to sell below MRP (offer discounts), and consumers can bargain for a lower price.

Reason (R) is  False: The seller must not exceed the MRP but can charge less than it.

Q9. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Nuclear Power Plant)    List – II (State)

1. Kudankulam  1.Karnataka

B.Kakrapar   2.Tamil Nadu

3. Kaiga   3. Rajasthan
4. Rawatbhata  4.Gujarat

Code:

A  B  C  D

(a) 2 4 3 1

(b) 4 2 3 1

(c) 4 2 1 3

(d) 2 4 1 3

Answer: D

Explanation

Kudankulam – Tamil Nadu: Located in Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu. Established with Russian collaboration (Rosatom). It is the largest nuclear power plant in India.

Kakrapar – Gujarat: Situated near Surat in Gujarat. Houses India’s first indigenously developed Pressurized Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR). Operated by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL).

Kaiga – Karnataka: Located near the Kali River in Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka. Known for a series of PHWR-type reactors. Plays a key role in southern India’s power supply.

Rawatbhata – Rajasthan: Situated near Kota, on the banks of the Chambal River. One of India’s oldest nuclear power plants. Home to multiple PHWR units operated by NPCIL.

Q10. Consider the following elements found in a typical 70 kg man and arrange them in correct increasing order.

1. Sodium
2. Potassium
3. Copper
4. Iron

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 3, 4, 2, 1

(b) 4, 3, 2, 1

(c) 4, 3, 1, 2

(d) 3, 4, 1, 2

Answer: (d) 3, 4, 1, 2

Explanation:
The approximate quantities of these elements in a 70 kg human body are as follows:

Element	Amount (approx.)	Observation
Copper (Cu)	~0.1 g	Trace element — least abundant
Iron (Fe)	~4 g	Present mainly in haemoglobin
Sodium (Na)	~100 g	Major extracellular electrolyte
Potassium (K)	~140 g	Major intracellular electrolyte

Thus, the increasing order (least → most) is:
Copper < Iron < Sodium < Potassium → 3, 4, 1, 2

Q11. Arrange the following saints in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below.

1. Nanak
2. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
3. Namdev
4. Kabir

Code :

(a) 4, 3, 1, 2

(b) 4, 3, 2, 1

(c) 3, 4, 2, 1

(d) 3, 4, 1, 2

Answer: (d) 3, 4, 1, 2

Explanation:

Saint	Lifespan	Key Contribution
Namdev	1270–1350 CE	Early Bhakti saint from Maharashtra; composed abhangas in Marathi.
Kabir	1440–1518 CE	Criticized caste and ritualism; emphasized Nirguna Bhakti (formless God).
Guru Nanak	1469–1539 CE	Founder of Sikhism; promoted unity of God and equality.
Chaitanya Mahaprabhu	1486–1533 CE	Led Gaudiya Vaishnavism movement in Bengal; promoted devotion to Krishna.

Q12. Consider the following and arrange them in correct chronological order.

1. Jawahar Employment Scheme
2. Development of women and children in Rural Areas
3. Integrated Rural Development Programme
4. National Rural Employment Programme

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 4, 3, 2, 1

(b) 3, 4, 2, 1

(c) 3, 4, 1, 2

(d) 4, 3, 1, 2

Answer: (b) 3, 4, 2, 1

Explanation (Chronological Order):

Programme	Launch Year	Key Objective
Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP)	1978–79	Self-employment through asset creation for rural poor.
National Rural Employment Programme (NREP)	1980	Wage employment to rural unemployed.
Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas (DWCRA)	1982	Sub-scheme of IRDP for women’s self-reliance through group-based activities.
Jawahar Employment Scheme (JES)	1989	Merged NREP and Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme to provide wage employment.

Q13. With reference to creation of new All India Service, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. In the national interest, the Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution for creation of new All India Service.
2. The resolution for creation of new All India Service must be passed by the Rajya Sabha by two-third majority of the total members of the house.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code :

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (b) Only 1

Explanation:

Statement 1 is Correct: Under Article 312 of the Indian Constitution, the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) can pass a resolution to create a new All India Service (e.g., IAS, IPS, IFS) in the national interest.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The resolution must be passed by a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting, not of the total membership of the House.

Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Q14. Consider the following Committees relating to poverty and arrange their formation in correct chronological order. 

1. Lakdawala Committee
2. Rangarajan Committee
3. Tendulkar Committee
4. Dandekar and Rath Committee

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1, 4, 3, 2

(c) 4, 1, 2, 3

(b) 4, 1, 3, 2

(d) 1, 4, 2, 3

Answer: (b) 4, 1, 3, 2

Explanation (Chronological Order):

Committee	Year	Key Contribution
Dandekar and Rath Committee	1971	First to estimate poverty based on minimum calorie intake.
Lakdawala Committee	1993	Recommended poverty estimation based on calorie norms and state-specific price indices.
Tendulkar Committee	2009	Shifted from calorie-based to consumption expenditure method; included health, education, and housing.
Rangarajan Committee	2014	Reviewed poverty lines, suggested higher thresholds for urban and rural areas.

Q15. With reference to ‘Brazil’ which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The equatorial rainforests of Brazil are called ‘Selvas’.
2. The dark black colour fertile land here is called ‘Terra Roxa’,

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: D

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The dense equatorial rainforests of the Amazon Basin in Brazil are locally known as ‘Selvas’.These forests are characterized by thick canopy cover, high biodiversity, and heavy rainfall throughout the year.

Statement 2 is correct: The term ‘Terra Roxa’ means ‘Red Earth’ in Portuguese (though it appears dark purplish). It refers to the fertile soil found in southern Brazil, formed from decomposed basaltic rocks. This soil is ideal for coffee cultivation and other commercial crops.

Q16. Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order.

1. Poona Pact
2. End of Civil Disobedience Movement
3. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
4. Second Round Table Conference

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 4, 3, 1, 2

(b) 3, 4, 1, 2

(c) 3, 4, 2, 1

(d) 4, 3, 2, 1

Answer: (b) 3, 4, 1, 2

Explanation (Chronological Order):

Event	Year	Description
Gandhi–Irwin Pact	March 1931	Agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin; led to suspension of Civil Disobedience Movement and Gandhi’s participation in Round Table Conference.
Second Round Table Conference	September–December 1931	Gandhi represented the Indian National Congress; it ended in failure.
Poona Pact	September 1932	Pact between Gandhi and B. R. Ambedkar on reservation for depressed classes within the Hindu electorate.
End of Civil Disobedience Movement	April 1934	Officially withdrawn by Gandhi.

Q17. With reference to Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar announced in June 2025, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Yuva Puraskar was announced in 23 Indian languages.
2. There is no Yuva Puraskar in Dogri this year.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Both 1 and 2

 Answer:(d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: In 2025, 23 writers were selected for the Yuva Puraskar across 23 languages.

Statement 2 is correct: No Yuva Puraskar was awarded in Dogri in 2025.

Q18. Consider the following wars and arrange them in correct chronological order.

1. First Anglo-Mysore War
2. Second Anglo-French War
3. First Anglo-Sikh War
4. First Anglo-Afghan War

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4

(b) 2, 1, 3, 4

(c) 2, 1, 4, 3

(d) 1, 2, 4, 3

Answer: (c) 2, 1, 4, 3

Explanation (Chronological Order):

War	Year	Key Details
Second Anglo-French War (Carnatic War)	1748–1754	Fought between British and French in India for supremacy in the Carnatic region.
First Anglo-Mysore War	1767–1769	Between Haidar Ali of Mysore and the British East India Company; ended with the Treaty of Madras.
First Anglo-Afghan War	1839–1842	British tried to install a puppet ruler in Afghanistan; ended disastrously for the British.
First Anglo-Sikh War	1845–1846	Between British and Sikh Empire; ended with the Treaty of Lahore.

Q19. Operation Brahma was launched by India in March 2025 to provide humanitarian aid to which of the following countries?

1. Bangladesh
2. Myanmar
3. Sri Lanka
4. Malaysia

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2 and 4

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Only 1 and 3

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

The correct answer is (c) Only 2 — Operation Brahma was launched to provide humanitarian aid to Myanmar.

Q20. With reference to the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle, 1748, which of the following statements is/ are correct ? 

1. The first Carnatic war ended. 
2. Madras was returned to the British. 

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code: 

(a) Neither 1 nor 2 

(b) Only 1 

(c) Only 2 

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: d

Explanation:

Solution: 

The Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle (1748) ended the War of Austrian Succession in Europe.

As part of this treaty, the First Carnatic War (1746–1748) — which was its Indian extension — also came to an end.

Under the terms of the treaty, Madras (which had been captured by the French) was returned to the British East India Company in exchange for Louisbourg in North America, which had been taken by the British.

Q21. Who among the following introduced the concept of entitlements in food security?

1. M. S. Swaminathan
2. Atul Pranay
3. Samali Srikant
4. Amartya Sen

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code :

(a) Only 4

(b) Only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 3 and 4

Answer: a

Explanation:

The concept of “entitlements” in food security was introduced by Amartya Sen, an Indian economist and Nobel laureate.

He proposed the Entitlement Approach in his 1981 book “Poverty and Famines: An Essay on Entitlement and Deprivation.”

According to this theory, famine and hunger are not only due to lack of food availability but due to people’s inability to access food — that is, lack of entitlements (the set of all possible goods and services a person can legally acquire).

Q22. Match List – I with List II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (State)                List – II (Number of seats in Rajya Sabha)

1. Maharashtra           1. 16

B.Karnataka                 2. 18

3. Biha                          3. 19

D.Tamil Nadu               4. 12

Code:

      A B C D

(a) 2 4 3 1

(b) 3 4 1 2

(c) 2 1 3 4

(d) 1 2 4 3

Answer: b

Explanation:

List of Rajya Sabha seats per state (current):

• Maharashtra – 19 seats
• Karnataka – 12 seats
• Bihar – 16 seats
• Tamil Nadu – 18 seats

Q23. Consider the following revolts and arrange them in correct chronological order.

1. Pabna
2. Indigo
3. Kuka
4. Sanyasi

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 3, 4, 1, 2

(b) 4, 2, 3, 1

(c) 4, 3, 2, 1

(d) 3, 4, 2, 1

Answer: b

Explanation:

Sanyasi Rebellion – late 18th century (around 1770s–1790s) in Bengal and surrounding areas.

Kuka (Namdhari) Movement – mid-19th century (around 1840s–1850s) in Punjab.

Pabna Peasant Uprising – 1873–1876 in Bengal.

Indigo Revolt – 1859–1860 in Bengal.

Q24. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The interior part of Australia is desert and semi-desert

Reason (R): Northern Australia is situated in the temperate zone.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: D

Explanation:

The interior part of Australia is mostly arid or semi-arid, comprising large desert areas such as the Great Victoria Desert, Great Sandy Desert, and Simpson Desert. Hence, Assertion (A) is true.

Northern Australia, however, lies in the tropical zone, not the temperate zone. It experiences hot and humid tropical climates with monsoonal rainfall, particularly in regions like Darwin and Cape York Peninsula. Hence, Reason (R) is false.

Q25. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Evaporation of sweat from human skin dissipates body heat.

Reason (R): High humidity on a hot day increases discomfort.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: C

Explanation:

Evaporation of sweat from the skin’s surface helps to remove excess body heat, thereby maintaining body temperature. Hence, Assertion (A) is true.

On humid days, the air already contains a high amount of moisture, which reduces the rate of sweat evaporation. As a result, the body cannot lose heat effectively, leading to discomfort and overheating.

Both statements are correct, however, Reason does not explain the assertion completely.

Q26. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): In the Himalayan mountains different types of vegetation are found.

Reason (R): In the Himalayas, there are variations in climate with change in altitude. 

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code :

(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Himalayan mountains show a wide range of vegetation types, such as tropical forests at lower altitudes, temperate forests in the middle ranges, and alpine vegetation at higher altitudes. Hence, Assertion (A) is true.

This variation in vegetation occurs because the climate changes with altitude — temperature decreases and precipitation patterns vary as one moves upward. Thus, Reason (R) is also true.

Since the variation in climate due to altitude directly causes the diversity in vegetation, the Reason (R) correctly explains Assertion (A).

Q27. With reference to ‘Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was developed and introduced in 2010.
2. It measures extreme poverty and includes those living on less than one dollar per day.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (b) 

Explanation:

Statement 1: “It was developed and introduced in 2010.” This is correct. The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) was developed by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and introduced in 2010 in the UNDP Human Development Report.

Statement 2: “It measures extreme poverty and includes those living on less than one dollar per day.” This is incorrect. MPI does not measure poverty solely by income. Instead, it measures poverty multidimensionally, using health, education, and standard of living indicators. The “less than $1/day” criterion is part of the World Bank’s income-based extreme poverty measure, not the MPI.

Q28. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Emperor)

List – II (City where Tomb is located)

1. Babur 1. Agra
2. Humayun 2. Lahore
3. Jahangir 3. Delhi

D.Shah Jahan 4.Kabul

Code:

A B  C D

(a) 3 4 1 2

(b) 4 3 1 2 

(c) 4 3 2 1

(d) 3 4 2 1

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

• Babur → His tomb is in Kabul. 
• Humayun → His tomb is in Delhi. 
• Jahangir → His tomb is in Lahore. 
• Shah Jahan → He is buried in the Taj Mahal, Agra. 

So the correct matching is: A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Q29. With reference to the Public Accounts Committee, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Public Accounts Committee submits its report to the Lok Sabha.
2. The Public Accounts Committee consists of 15 members from Rajya Sabha.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 2

Answer: b

Explanation: 

The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) submits its report to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, who then presents it to the entire Lok Sabha. The PAC’s primary function is to scrutinize the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) on government expenditures, ensuring public money is spent lawfully and efficiently.

The PAC consists of 22 members: 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha.

Q30. With reference to Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Income (MISHTI), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was initiated in 2019.
2. It aims to restore Mangrove forests.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer:B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The MISHTI (Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Incomes) was announced in the Union Budget 2023–24, not in 2019.

Statement 2 is correct: The scheme aims to restore and expand mangrove forests along India’s coastline and saltpan lands. It focuses on climate resilience, biodiversity conservation, and livelihood generation for coastal communities. 

Q31. Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order.

1. Cripps Mission
2. Cabinet Mission
3. Shimla Conference
4. Wavell Plan

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 4, 1, 2, 3

(c) 1, 4, 3, 2

(b) 1, 4, 2, 3

(d) 4, 1, 3, 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

• Cripps Mission – March 1942
• Cabinet Mission – March 1946
• Shimla Conference – June–July 1945
• Wavell Plan – June 1945

Q32. Which of the following rivers fall into the Arabian Sea ?

1. Periyar
2. pennar
3. Palar

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) Only 1

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation

Periyar River:  It is the longest river in Kerala, originating from the Western Ghats. It flows westward and empties into the Arabian Sea near Kochi.

Pennar River:  It originates from Nandi Hills in Karnataka and flows through Andhra Pradesh, draining into the Bay of Bengal.

Palar River: It originates in Nandi Hills (Karnataka) and flows through Tamil Nadu, finally emptying into the Bay of Bengal near Chennai.

Q33. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer by using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Coal Field)   List – II (Country)

1. Appalachian 1. England
2. Lancashire 2. Germany
3. Ruhr 3. Russia
4. Kuzbass 4. United States of America

Code:

A B C D

(a) 1 4 3 2

(b) 4 1 3 2

(c) 4 1 2 3

(d) 1 4 2 3

Answer: C

Explanation

Appalachian – United States of America: One of the largest and oldest coalfields in the world. Located in the Appalachian Mountains stretching from Pennsylvania to Alabama. Major source of bituminous coal.

Lancashire – England: Located in northwestern England. Historically significant during the Industrial Revolution for supplying coal to textile industries.

Ruhr – Germany: The Ruhr Valley is the industrial heartland of Germany.Rich in bituminous coal and a center for iron and steel production.

Kuzbass – Russia: Short for Kuznetsk Basin, located in southwestern Siberia. One of the largest coal-producing regions in Russia, known for high-quality coking coal.

Q34. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Dolphins and Whales breathe through blowholes.
2. Earthworm breathe through their skin.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Both are mammals, not fish. They breathe air through blowholes located on the top of their heads. When they come to the surface, they exhale and inhale air through these blowholes.

Statement 2 is correct:  Earthworms do not have lungs or gills. They breathe through their moist skin, which allows oxygen to diffuse in and carbon dioxide to diffuse out directly.

Q35. Which one of the following books is NOT written by Kalidas ?

1. Meghduta
2. Raghuvamsam
3. Shringar Shatak

Select the correct answer from code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 3

(c) 1 and 2

(b) Only 1

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Only 3

Explanation:

Kalidasa — the great Sanskrit poet and dramatist — authored: Meghaduta (lyrical poem) and Raghuvamsha (epic poem). 

Shringar Shatak was not written by Kalidasa; it was composed by Bhartrihari, another classical Sanskrit poet known for his three Shatakas (centuries): Nīti Shatak, Vairāgya Shatak, and Shringar Shatak.

Q36. Which of the following pairs of Part of Indian Constitution and its subject is/are NOT correctly matched ?

1. Part IV A – Fundamental Duties
2. Part VI -The States
3. Part XI – The Municipalities

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 3

(b) Only 1

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Only 3

Explanation:

Part	Subject	Correct / Incorrect
Part IV-A	Fundamental Duties	Correct — Added by the 42nd Amendment (1976).
Part VI	The States	Correct — Deals with state executive, legislature, judiciary, etc.
Part XI	Relations between the Union and the States	Incorrect — The Municipalities are covered under Part IX-A, not Part XI.

Q37. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Voices of men and women are different.

Reason (R): Length and thickness of vocal cord is different in men and women. 

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Assertion (A): Voices of men and women are different is True. The pitch and tone of voices differ between males and females.

Reason (R) is True. Men have longer and thicker vocal cords, which produce lower-frequency (deeper) sounds, while women have shorter and thinner cords, producing higher-pitched voices.

Hence, R correctly explains A.

Q38. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Refinery)   List – II (State)

1. Nayara 1. Assam
2. Manali 2. Gujarat

C.Numaligarh 3. Andhra Pradesh

4. Tatipaka 4.Tamil Nadu

Code:

     A B C D

(a) 2 4 1 3

(b) 4 2 1 3

(c) 4 2 3 1

(d) 2 4 3 1

Answer: a

Explanation:

• Nayara Refinery → Gujarat
• Manali Refinery → Tamil Nadu
• Numaligarh Refinery → Assam
• Tatipaka Refinery → Andhra Pradesh

Q39. With reference to Operation Olivia’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an initiative of Indian coast Guards to protect Olive Ridley turtles along the coast of Odisha.
2. Operation Olivia is carried out during the month of August which is the nesting time of Olive Ridley turtles.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: B

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: It is an initiative of the Indian Coast Guard (ICG) launched in 1988. The operation aims to protect Olive Ridley turtles during their annual nesting season along the coast of Odisha, particularly at Gahirmatha, Devi River, and Rushikulya rookeries. The ICG provides assistance in patrolling, prevents illegal trawling, and ensures safe nesting and hatching.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Olive ridley turtles are famous for arribada (Spanish for “arrival”), a unique mass nesting behavior where thousands of females nest simultaneously. From September, they travel 9,000 km from the Pacific to the Indian seas. After mating, males retreat, and females nest from December to March.

Q40. ‘BHARATPOL’, an online portal for International Police Co-operation has been developed by which of the following?

1. Central Bureau of Investigation
2. Research and Analysis Wing
3. Intelligence Bureau
4. Enforcement Directorate

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 3 and 4

(b) Only 1

(c) 2 and 3

(d) Only 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

BHARATPOL was developed by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).

Q41. Which among the following words were inserted in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitution Amendment?

1. Socialist
2. Secular
3. Sovereign
4. Republic

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation:

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 added the words “Socialist” and “Secular” to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

The Preamble originally read:  “We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Democratic Republic…” After the amendment, it became:  “…to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic…”

Q42. With reference to ‘International Solar Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is the first treaty based Inter-governmental organisation headquartered in India with 38 member countries.
2. World Solar Bank and One Sun One World One Grid Initiative were initiated under it.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: C

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect:The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is the first treaty-based intergovernmental organization headquartered in Gurugram, India. It was jointly launched by India and France during the COP-21 (2015) Paris Climate Conference. Initially, it had 121 potential member countries (those lying fully or partially between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn). As of now, 102 members are there.

Statement 2 is correct: The World Solar Bank (WSB) was proposed under the ISA framework to finance solar energy projects across member nations. The One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG) initiative, launched by India, also operates under ISA’s broader vision to connect solar energy grids globally for sharing renewable energy resources.

Q43. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Buland Darwaja was constructed at Fatehpur Sikri by the Mughal emperor Akbar.

Reason (R): Akbar built this monument to commemorate the birth of his son Jahangir. 

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: d

Explanation:

Assertion (A) is True: It was built in 1601 AD at Fatehpur Sikri by Akbar.

Reason (R) is False: The Buland Darwaza was actually built to commemorate Akbar’s victory over Gujarat, not the birth of his son.

Q44. Consider the formation of the following States of India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last.

1. Punjab
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Nagaland
4. Sikkim

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 3, 4, 1, 2

(c) 3, 2, 4, 1

(b) 2, 3, 4, 1

(d) 3, 1, 4, 2

Answer: (d) 3, 1, 4, 2

Explanation (Chronological Order of State Formation):

State	Formation Year	Key Fact
Nagaland	1963	Created as the 16th state of India for Naga people.
Punjab	1966	Formed after the reorganization of the old Punjab; Haryana and Himachal Pradesh carved out.
Sikkim	1975	Became the 22nd state of India after merger through the 36th Amendment.
Arunachal Pradesh	1987	Attained full statehood on 20 February 1987.

Q45. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Pulitzer award categories)

List – II (Awardee in 2025)

1. Fiction         1. Jason Roberts
2. Music           2. Brandon

Jacob Jenkins

3. Biography    3. Susie Ibarra
4. Drama          4. Percival Everett

Code:

 A B C D

(a) 4 3 1 2

(b) 3 4 1 2 

(c) 3 4 2 1 

(d) 4 3 2 1

Answer: (a)

Explanation: 

4. Fiction → 4. Percival Everett: Won for his novel “James”, a reimagining of Adventures of Huckleberry Finn told from the perspective of Jim 
5. Music → 3. Susie Ibarra: Recognized for “Four Meditations on Impermanence,” blending traditional Filipino rhythms with experimental percussion 
6. Biography → 1. Jason Roberts: Honored for “Every Living Thing,” a detailed biography of early conservationist Alexander von Humboldt,
7. Drama → 2. Branden (Branden Jacobs-Jenkins): Won for his play “The Comeuppance,” exploring themes of friendship, mortality, and racial identity through dark humor and realism.

Q46. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Governor General/Viceroy)

List – II (Important contribution/work)

1. Lord Dalhousie               1. Permanent settlement of Bengal
2. Lord Curzon                    2. Prohibition of Practice of Sati
3. Lord William Bentinck   3. Partition of Bengal
4. Lord Cornwallis              4. Doctrine of Lapse

Code:

A B C D

(a) 3 4 2 1

(b) 4 3 2 1 

(c) 4 3 1 2 

(d) 3 4 1 2 

Answer: (b) 

Explanation:

Governor-General / Viceroy	Major Contribution	Matching Code
Lord Dalhousie	Doctrine of Lapse (annexation policy used for states like Jhansi, Satara, Nagpur)	4
Lord Curzon	Partition of Bengal (1905) — administrative move that triggered Swadeshi Movement	3
Lord William Bentinck	Prohibition of Sati (1829) and promotion of social reforms	2
Lord Cornwallis	Permanent Settlement of Bengal (1793) — fixed land revenue system	1

Q47. As per the One District One Product (ODOP) scheme of Uttar Pradesh, Moonj products are associated with which of the following districts ?

1. Amethi
2. Sultanpur
3. Sant Kabir Nagar

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation:

The ODOP portal confirms that Amethi has “Moonj Products” as its assigned product. 

The ODOP portal also confirms that Sultanpur is known for Moonj-based products like ropes, woven cots etc.

Sant Kabir Nagar is assigned “Brassware Craft” under ODOP (not Moonj).

Q48. Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched ?

(Biosphere Reserve)  (State)

1. Nokrek – Manipur
2. Manas – Assam
3. Agasthyamalai – Kerala

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Only 3

(b) Only 1

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation

Nokrek Biosphere Reserve – Meghalaya (Not Manipur): Located in West Garo Hills district of Meghalaya. Known for its rich biodiversity, including the red panda and citrus gene sanctuary.

Manas Biosphere Reserve – Assam:  Situated in Assam, it includes the Manas National Park, a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Known for tigers, elephants, and pygmy hogs.

Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve – Kerala & Tamil Nadu: Lies on the southern end of the Western Ghats, spanning Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Named after sage Agasthya, it is rich in evergreen forests and endemic species.

Q49. The Gobi Desert is spread across which of the following countries ?

1. Mongolia
2. China
3. Russia
4. Kazakhstan

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 1, 2 and 4

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 1 and 2

(d) Only 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Gobi Desert is a vast cold desert region in northern China and southern Mongolia.It is known for its harsh climate, temperature extremes, and rocky, barren landscape rather than sand dunes.The desert stretches across southern Mongolia (Ömnögovi and Dundgovi provinces) and northern China (Inner Mongolia and Gansu provinces). It does not extend into Russia or Kazakhstan.

Q50. With reference to ‘acid and bases’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Acidic solutions have pH more than 7.
2. Basic solutions have pH less than 7.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 – False: Acidic solutions have pH less than 7, not more than 7.

Statement 2 – False: Basic (alkaline) solutions have pH greater than 7, not less than 7.

Q51. With reference to Municipalities, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The eligible age to be a member of municipality is 25 years.
2. One-third of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in the municipalities is reserved for women.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 2

Answer: (d) Only 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is Incorrect: As per Article 243V (74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992), the minimum age to contest municipal elections is 21 years, not 25 years.

Statement 2 is Correct: As per Article 243T(3), not less than one-third (1/3) of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every municipality shall be reserved for women, including seats reserved for SCs and STs.

Q52. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?

(Coal Producing Area)   (State)

1. Maolong – Arunachal Pradesh
2. Raniganj – West Bengal
3. Ramgarh -Jharkhand
4. Talcher – Odisha

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2, 3 and 4

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 1 and 2

(d) Only 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Maolong – Arunachal Pradesh. There is no major coalfield named Maolong in Arunachal Pradesh. While Arunachal does have some coal reserves, especially in the Namchik–Namphuk area, Maolong is not recognized as a major coal-producing region.

Raniganj – West Bengal: Raniganj Coalfield is the oldest coalfield in India, located in West Bengal (Asansol–Durgapur region). It lies in the Damodar Valley and is one of the key coal-producing regions of eastern India.

Ramgarh – Jharkhand: Ramgarh Coalfield is located in Jharkhand, near Hazaribagh and Bokaro coal belts. It is rich in bituminous coal.

Talcher – Odisha: Talcher Coalfield lies in the Angul district of Odisha. It forms part of the Mahanadi Coalfields, a major contributor to India’s thermal power plants.

 

Q53. Arrange the following conquests of Alauddin Khalji in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below.

1. Ranthambore
2. Jaisalmer
3. Warangal
4. Chittor

Code:

(a) 2, 1, 4, 3

(b) 1, 2, 4, 3

(c) 1, 2, 3, 4

(d) 2, 1, 3, 4

Answer: (a) 2, 1, 4, 3

Explanation 

(Chronological Order of Alauddin Khalji’s Major Conquests):

Conquest	Year	Details
Jaisalmer	1294 CE	Captured after a long siege; Bhati Rajputs defeated.
Ranthambore	1301 CE	Defeated Hammir Dev; secured control over strategic Rajput fort.
Chittor	1303 CE	Conquered from Rana Ratan Singh; famous for the legend of Rani Padmini and Jauhar.
Warangal	1309 CE	Led by Malik Kafur; Yadava ruler Prataparudra defeated in Deccan expedition.

Q54. With reference to the New Pamban Bridge, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited, which is a ‘Navratna’ public sector unit under the Ministry of Railways.
2. It is India’s first vertical lift railway sea bridge.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) 

Explanation:

The New Pamban Bridge was constructed by Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL), which is designated as a Navratna PSU under the Ministry of Railways.

It is India’s first vertical lift railway sea bridge, designed to allow ships to pass under it by lifting its central span vertically using electro-mechanical systems

Q55. Which of the following Ramsar wetland site is/are NOT situated in Uttar Pradesh ?

1. Sarsai Nawar Lake
2. Samaspur Bird Sanctuary
3. Rudrasagar Lake
4. Sultanpur National Park

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Sarsai Nawar Jheel – Uttar Pradesh: Located in Etawah district of Uttar Pradesh. Declared as a Ramsar Site in 2019.

Samaspur Bird Sanctuary – Uttar Pradesh: Located near Raebareli district, Uttar Pradesh. Known for migratory birds and wetland biodiversity.

Rudrasagar Lake – Tripura: Located near Melaghar in Sipahijala district, Tripura. It is a Ramsar site supporting the famous Neermahal Palace built in the middle of the lake.

Sultanpur National Park – Haryana: Situated in Gurugram district, Haryana. It is a Ramsar site famous for migratory birds like flamingos and pelicans.

Q56. Joint special forces exercise ‘KHANJAR-XII was held in March 2025 between India and which of the following Countries ?

1. Russia
2. Turkmenistan
3. Kyrgyzstan
4. Mongolia

Select the correct answer from the code given below

Code:

(a) 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(b) Only 1

(d) Only 3

Answer: d

Explanation:

KHANJAR-XII was held from March 10 to 23, 2025, in Tokmok, Kyrgyzstan, between the special forces of India and Kyrgyzstan. 

Q57. Who among the following were the members of the Fazal Ali Commission?

1. K. T. Shah
2. K.M. Panikkar
3. P. Sitaramaiah
4. H.N. Kunjaru

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 2 and 4

Explanation:
The States Reorganisation Commission (SRC), popularly known as the Fazal Ali Commission, was appointed in 1953 to recommend the reorganization of Indian states on linguistic lines.

Members of the Commission:

1. Fazal Ali – Chairman
2. K.M. Panikkar – Member
3. H.N. Kunzru – Member

Q58. Match List I with List correct answer from the lists. II and select the code given below

List – I List – II

(National Park/Wildlife Sanctuary) (State/Union Territory)

1. Dachingam    1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Keoladeo          2. Rajasthan
3. Kanha               3. Kerala
4. Periyar             4. Jammu Kashmir

Code:

A B C D

(a) 2 4 1 3 

(b) 4 2 1 3 

(c) 4 2 3 1 

(d) 2 4 3 1 

Answer: (b) 4 2 1 3

Explanation:

Dachigam National Park – Jammu and Kashmir: Located near Srinagar in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Known for the Hangul deer (Kashmir stag), the state animal of J&K. 

Keoladeo National Park – Rajasthan: Located in Bharatpur, Rajasthan. A UNESCO World Heritage Site, famous for Siberian cranes and other migratory birds. 

Kanha National Park – Madhya Pradesh. Situated in Mandla and Balaghat districts of Madhya Pradesh. Known for Bengal tigers, barasingha (swamp deer), and sal forests. 

Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary – Kerala: Located in the Western Ghats of Kerala, near Thekkady. Famous for elephants, tigers, and the Periyar Lake formed by Mullaperiyar Dam. 

Q59. Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched ?

(Tribe)                      (Habitat)

1. Bushman               Kalahari Desert
2. Eskimo                   Northern Canada
3. Pygmy                    Congo Basin
4. Masai                    West Africa

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 4

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 1, 2 and 3

(d) Only 3 and 4

Answer (a) Only 4

Explanation:

Bushman (San) — Inhabit the Kalahari Desert region of Botswana, Namibia, and South Africa 

Eskimo (Inuit) — Live in Northern Canada, Alaska, and Greenland

Pygmy — Indigenous people living in the Congo Basin (Central Africa)

Masai — Inhabit the grasslands of Kenya and northern Tanzania in East Africa, not West Africa

Q60. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Food security is necessary even in surplus food production years.

Reason (R) Starvation can still occur due to unequal distribution and lack of accessibility.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true 

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: (b) 

Explanation:

Assertion (A) is True. Surplus production does not automatically ensure that everyone has access to food.

Reason (R)is  True.
Even when food is abundant nationally, poverty, poor distribution systems, and regional disparities can cause hunger and malnutrition (as seen during Bengal famine and modern-day PDS gaps).
Hence, both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A

Q61. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Disciple)   List-II (Guru)

1. Kabir 1. Guru Nanak Dev
2. Aamir Khusrau 2. Swami Ramananda

C.Surdas 3. Nizamuddin Auliya

4. Mardana 4. Vallabhacharya

Code:

A B C D

(a) 3 2 1 4

(b) 2 3 1 4

(c) 3 2 4 1

(d) 2 3 4 1

Answer: (d) 2 3 4 1

Explanation:

Kabir → Guru: Swami Ramananda (Kabir was a disciple of Ramananda, a Vaishnava saint who propagated Bhakti in North India.)

Amir Khusrau → Guru: Nizamuddin Auliya (Sufi poet and musician, disciple of Chishti Sufi saint Nizamuddin Auliya.)

Surdas → Guru: Vallabhacharya (Surdas, the blind poet-saint, was a follower of the Pushtimarg founded by Vallabhacharya.)

Mardana → Guru: Guru Nanak Dev(Bhai Mardana was a close companion and follower of Guru Nanak Dev.)

Q62. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Public Interest Litigation in India is essential for the rule of law.

Reason (R): Public Interest Litigation provides effective access of Justice to socially and economically weaker sections.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: (b) 

Explanation:

Assertion (A)is true:  PIL strengthens judicial accountability and equality before law, ensuring that the law protects the rights of all citizens, not just the privileged.

Reason is True.: Through PIL, the courts take suo motu cognizance or allow public-spirited individuals to file petitions on behalf of those who cannot approach the court themselves.

Since PIL promotes access to justice, which is a core component of the rule of law, R correctly explains A

Q63. Arrange the following events in correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below.

1. Battle of Kannauj
2. Battle of Daurah
3. Battle of Samugarh
4. Battle of Chausa

Code:

(a) 4, 2, 1, 3

(b) 2, 4, 1, 3

(c) 2, 4, 3, 1

(d) 4, 2, 3, 1

Answer: (b) 4, 2, 1, 3

Explanation (Chronological Order):

Battle	Year	Key Details
Battle of Chausa	1539	Fought between Sher Shah Suri and Mughal Emperor Humayun; Sher Shah defeated Humayun.
Battle of Daurah (Bilgram)	1532	Final defeat of Humayun by Sher Shah Suri, leading to Sher Shah’s control over Delhi.
Battle of Kannauj	1540 (same as Daurah, but often used interchangeably) — However, if treated as separate per question sequence, occurs after Chausa and Daurah in extended sense.
Battle of Samugarh	1658	War of succession among Aurangzeb, Dara Shikoh, and Shah Shuja; Aurangzeb’s victory made him emperor.

Q64. Arrange the following States of India in the ascending order on the basis of their area and select the correct answer from the code given below.

1. Haryana
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Punjab
4. Uttarakhand

Code:

(a) 3, 1, 4, 2

(b) 1, 3, 4, 2

(c) 1, 3, 2, 4

(d) 3, 1, 2, 4

Answer: (b)

Explanation: 

According to official data (Census/Survey of India):

State	Area (sq km)
Haryana	44,212
Punjab	50,362
Uttarakhand	53,483
Himachal Pradesh	55,673

Q65. With reference to hydroelectricity in North India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. There are huge possibilities of hydroelectricity in the Himalayan region.
2. Eastern Uttar Pradesh and Bihar cannot utilise this potential because the Himalayas situated to their North lie in the boundary of Nepal.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code :

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) 

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct: The Himalayan region has enormous potential for hydroelectricity due to its steep slopes, fast-flowing rivers (like the Ganga, Yamuna, Sutlej, Chenab, and Teesta), and high rainfall. States like Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Jammu & Kashmir have major hydroelectric projects (e.g., Bhakra Nangal, Tehri, Nathpa Jhakri).

Statement 2 – Correct: Eastern Uttar Pradesh and Bihar cannot effectively utilize this potential because the Himalayan stretch north of them lies in Nepal, not within India. Therefore, the river flow becomes plain and gentle by the time it enters these states, reducing hydropower potential.

Q66. With reference to ‘Isotopes’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Atoms with identical atomic numbers but different atomic mass numbers are known as isotopes.
2. Protium, Deuterium and Tritium are isotopes of carbon.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer:  (b) 

Explanation:

Isotopes are atoms of the same element having the same atomic number (number of protons) but different mass numbers (due to varying neutrons).

Protium, Deuterium, and Tritium are isotopes of Hydrogen, not Carbon.

Q67. Match List -I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Committees of Constituent Assembly)

1. Union Constitution Committee
2. Rules of Procedure Committee
3. Drafting Committee
4. Fundamental Rights Sub-committee

List – II (Chairman of Committees)

1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
2. J.B. Kripalani
3. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Code:

A B C D

(a) 1 4 3 2

(b) 1 2 3 4

(c) 2 1 3 4

(d) 4 1 3 2

Answer: (d) 4 1 3 2

Explanation:

Committee (List I)	Chairman (List II)	Details
A. Union Constitution Committee	Jawaharlal Nehru (4)	Dealt with structure and powers of the Union Government.
B. Rules of Procedure Committee	Dr. Rajendra Prasad (1)	Framed the working procedures for the Constituent Assembly.
C. Drafting Committee	Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (3)	Tasked with preparing the final draft of the Constitution.
D. Fundamental Rights Sub-committee	J.B. Kripalani (2)	Worked under the Advisory Committee chaired by Sardar Patel.

Q68. With reference to ‘earthworms’, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. Earthworms improve soil fertility and are known as farmer’s friends.
2. Earthworms have two pairs of hearts. 

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation: 

Statement 1 – Correct: Earthworms are called “farmer’s friends” because they improve soil fertility. Their burrowing loosens the soil, and their castings enrich it with nitrogen, phosphorus, and humus — enhancing aeration and water retention.

Statement 2 – Incorrect: Earthworms do not have two pairs of hearts. They have five pairs (10 total) of aortic arches, which act like simple hearts to pump blood.

Q69. With reference to ‘Atal Tunnel’ which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. This tunnel is the world’s longest highway tunnel.
2. This tunnel is built in the Pir Panjal range of Himalayas.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Atal Tunnel (9.02 km) is not the world’s longest highway tunnel, but the longest at an altitude above 10,000 ft.

Statement 2 is correct: It is built under the Rohtang Pass in the Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas, providing all-weather connectivity between Manali and Lahaul-Spiti.

Q70. Which of the following archaeological sites related to Indus Valley civilization are situated in present day Uttar Pradesh ?

1. Market
2. Rakhigarhi
3. Hulas

Select the correct answer from the code  given below:

Code:

(a) Only 3

(b) Only 1

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (d) 1 and 3

Explanation:

Geographical spread of IVC: The Indus Valley Civilization, also called the Harappan Civilization, flourished around 3300–1300 BCE across the northwestern part of South Asia, covering present-day Pakistan and western India. Sites in Uttar Pradesh like Hulas (near Ghaghara) and Market/Alamgirpur represent the easternmost extent of this civilization.

Hulas site: Excavated by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), Hulas shows evidence of late Harappan settlements, including pottery, beads, and mud-brick structures. The site highlights cultural continuity and interactions between the IVC and local cultures of eastern India.

Market / Alamgirpur site: Alamgirpur, in Meerut district, UP, is a small Harappan settlement dated to 2600–1900 BCE. Findings include terracotta artifacts, beads, and copper tools, indicating trade and cultural practices similar to core Harappan sites like Mohenjo-Daro and Harappa.

Significance of UP sites:

• These sites extend the known boundaries of the Indus Valley Civilization eastward.
• They help understand the spread of urban planning, trade networks, and material culture beyond the Indus basin.

Exclusion of Rakhigarhi:

• Though Rakhigarhi in Haryana is one of the largest IVC sites, it lies outside Uttar Pradesh. Hence, it is not part of this question’s correct answer.

Q71. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Padmavibhushan Fields 2025) List – II (Awardee 2025)

1. Trade and Industry 1. ShriLakshminarayana Subramaniam
2. Literature and Education 2. Mr. Osamu Suzuki
3. Medicine 3. Shri M. T. Vasudevan Nair
4. Art 4. Shri D. Nageshwar Reddy

Code:

A B C D

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 3 2 4 1

(c) 3 2 1 4

(d) 2 3 1 4

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

From the official Padma Awards 2025 list:

• Trade & Industry → Shri Osamu Suzuki 
• Literature & Education → Shri M. T. Vasudevan Nair
• Medicine → Shri D. Nageshwar Reddy
• Art → Shri Lakshminarayana Subramaniam 

Q72. Which of the following events took place in the year 1911?

1. Partition of Bengal revoked
2. Transfer of capital from Calcutta to Delhi
3. Lucknow pact between Congress and Muslim League

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 3

(b) Only 1

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2

Explanation:

Partition of Bengal (1905–1911): The British initially partitioned Bengal in 1905 for administrative convenience, splitting it into East Bengal and West Bengal. This move triggered protests led by the Indian National Congress and the Swadeshi Movement. Due to sustained political agitation, the British revoked the partition in 1911, restoring Bengal’s unity.

Transfer of capital to Delhi (1911): The decision was announced during the Delhi Durbar of 1911, attended by King George V. Reasons included Delhi’s central location, historical significance as the Mughal capital, and strategic considerations. New Delhi was subsequently planned and developed under architects Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker.

Lucknow Pact (1916) – not in 1911: This was a political agreement between Congress and the Muslim League to present a united front for constitutional reforms. It involved joint electorates with reserved seats for Muslims and marked a milestone in Hindu-Muslim political cooperation. Since it occurred in 1916, it is not relevant for the year 1911.

Q73. Match List – I with List II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Finance Commission) List – II (Chairman)

1. Eleventh 1. Dr. C. Rangarajan
2. Twelfth 2. Dr. Y. V. Reddy
3. Thirteenth 3. Prof. A. M. Khusro
4. Fourteenth 4. Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar

Code:

A B C D

(a) 2 3 4 1 

(b) 1 3 4 2

(c) 3 1 4 2

(d) 3 2 1 4 

Answer: C

Explanation:

• 11th Finance Commission (2000–2005) → Chairman: Prof. A. M. Khusro
• 12th Finance Commission (2005–2010) → Chairman: Dr. C. Rangarajan 
• 13th Finance Commission (2010–2015) → Chairman: Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar 
• 14th Finance Commission (2015–2020) → Chairman: Dr. Y. V. Reddy

Q74. Which of the following Programmes/Schemes is/are NOT included in meeting the objectives of National Education Policy 2020?

1. ULLAS
2. DIKSHA
3. Bharat Nirman Programme

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 3

(b) Only 1

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (a) Only 3

Explanation:

ULLAS aims to reduce school dropouts and improve learning outcomes; aligns with NEP 2020 objectives of access, equity, and quality.

DIKSHA provides digital infrastructure for teacher training, e-content, and blended learning; supports technology-enabled education under NEP 2020.

Bharat Nirman Programme focuses on rural infrastructure (roads, housing, irrigation, electrification); not related to education objectives.

NEP 2020 emphasizes holistic, multidisciplinary learning, equity, inclusion, and improved learning outcomes.

ULLAS and DIKSHA directly contribute to NEP goals; Bharat Nirman does not.

Correct answer: Only 3 → Bharat Nirman Programme.

Q75. The (Global Financial Stability Report is released by which among the following?

1. International Monetary Fund
2. World Economic Forum
3. World Bank

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

(a) Only 3

(b) Only 1

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation: 

The Global Financial Stability Report (GFSR) is published twice a year by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). It assesses global financial markets, identifies vulnerabilities in the international financial system, and provides policy recommendations.

The World Economic Forum releases the Global Competitiveness Report, while the World Bank issues the Global Economic Prospects.

Q76. Suez canal connects which of the following?

1. Atlantic Ocean
2. Red Sea
3. Mediterranean Sea
4. Indian Ocean

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 2 and 3

Explanation:

Suez Canal connects the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea. It provides a direct maritime route between Europe and Asia without navigating around Africa.

It does not connect the Atlantic Ocean or the Indian Ocean directly.

The canal is a crucial international waterway for global trade, especially for oil and container shipping.

Correct answer: (d) 2 and 3 → Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea.

Q77. The Appiko Movement is associated with which of the following Indian States ?

1. Uttarakhand
2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Kerala

4.Karnataka

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 4

(b) Only 1

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 3 and 4

Answer: (a)

Explanation:
The Appiko Movement originated in Karnataka in 1983 in the Uttara Kannada district. It was inspired by the Chipko Movement of Uttarakhand. Local villagers hugged trees to prevent deforestation caused by commercial logging. The movement was led by Pandurang Hegde and aimed at forest conservation and sustainable use of natural resources.

Q78. Iron dome missile defence system belongs to which of the following countries?

1. France
2. United States of America
3. Israel

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 3

(b) Only 1

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Only 3

Explanation:

The Iron Dome missile defence system was developed by Israel. It is designed to intercept and destroy short-range rockets and artillery shells fired from distances of 4 to 70 km. The system became operational in 2011 and has been widely used for protecting civilian areas in Israel. Although the USA has provided funding and technical support, the system is Israeli in origin. France is not associated with the Iron Dome.

Correct answer: (a) Only 3 → Israel.

Q79. With reference to lichens, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Lichens are very good indicators of pollution.
2. Lichens grow well in polluted areas. 

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (B)

Explanation: 

Statement 1 is Correct — Lichens are excellent bioindicators of air pollution, especially sulphur dioxide (SO₂) and other airborne pollutants. Their sensitivity helps scientists monitor air quality.

Statement 2 is Incorrect — Lichens do not grow well in polluted areas; they thrive only in clean, unpolluted environments with fresh air.

Q80. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): India has a Parliamentary system of Government.

Reason (R): In India, the executive is responsible to the legislature.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) (A) is false, but (R) is TRUE

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Assertion (A) and Reason (R) is true

In India, the executive is responsible to the legislature. In a parliamentary system, the executive (Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister) is collectively responsible to the legislature. This accountability to the legislature is the defining feature of a parliamentary system.

Therefore, both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) correctly explains (A).

• Correct answer: (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Q81. With reference to ‘Carrying Capacity of Environment’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

• Rate of resource extraction should remain above the rate of resource generation.

• Generation of waste should remain within the absorption capacity of environment.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (c) Only 2

Explanation:

The concept of carrying capacity of the environment dictates that resource extraction must not exceed the rate of resource generation; otherwise, resources get depleted. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Generation of waste should remain within the assimilative capacity of the environment to prevent pollution and degradation. Statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, only the second statement is correct.

 

82. Match List–I (Ruler) with List–II (Dynasty)

List–I (Ruler)	List–II (Dynasty)
A. Mahendravarman I	1. Rashtrakuta
B. Kadungon	2. Pallava
C. Amoghavarsha I	3. Chola
D. Rajaraja I	4. Pandya

Codes:
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 2 4 3 1

Answer: (a) 2 4 1 3

Explanation:

Mahendravarman I – Pallava ruler (590–630 CE).

Kadungon – Revived the Pandya dynasty in the 6th century CE.

Amoghavarsha I – Famous ruler of the Rashtrakuta dynasty.

Rajaraja I – Great Chola ruler who expanded the empire.

 

Q83. Match List–I with List–II (Highest Peak in State)

List–I (State)	List–II (Highest Peak)
A. Tamil Nadu	1. Dhupgarh
B. Rajasthan	2. Doddabetta
C. Nagaland	3. Guru Shikhar
D. Madhya Pradesh	4. Saramati

Codes:
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 3 2 1 4

Answer: (b) 2 3 4 1

Explanation:

• Doddabetta – Highest peak in Tamil Nadu (Nilgiri Hills).
• Guru Shikhar – Highest peak in Rajasthan (Aravalli Range).
• Mount Saramati – Highest peak in Nagaland.
• Dhupgarh – Highest peak in Madhya Pradesh (Satpura Range).

Q84. Assertion-Reason: Babur and Mughal Language

Assertion (A): Babur wrote Tuzk-e-Babri in Chagatai Turki.
Reason (R): Turki was the official language of the Mughal Court.

Options:
(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Explanation:

Babur wrote his autobiography Tuzk-e-Babri (Baburnama) in Chagatai Turki, his native tongue. Hence, (A) is true. However, Persian was the official language of the Mughal Court, not Turki. Therefore, (R) is false.

 

Q85. With reference to Lifestyle for the Environment (LiFE), which of the following statements is/are correct?

• It was launched in June 2022.

• Its idea was proposed at the COP 25 in Madrid, Spain.

Select the correct answer:
(a) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (b) Only 1

Explanation:

LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment) was launched globally on June 5, 2022 by PM Narendra Modi. The concept was proposed at COP26 in Glasgow (November 2021), not COP25 in Madrid. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

 

Q86. Assertion Reason (National Integration Council)

Assertion (A): The concept of National Integration involves political, economic, social, cultural, and psychological dimensions and inter-relation between them.

Reason (R): The National Integration Council was constituted in 1961 on the principle of ‘Unity in Diversity’.

Options:
(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: (c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)**

Explanation:

National Integration is a broad concept that encompasses political, social, economic, cultural, and psychological aspects.

The National Integration Council (NIC) was established in 1961 to promote unity, based on the motto ‘Unity in Diversity’.

Both statements are true, but (R) does not explain (A) directly.

 

Q87. Chronological order of programmes

• Food for Work Programme

• Community Development Programme

• Training for Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM)

• Drought Prone Area Programme

Options:
(a) 2, 4, 1, 3
(b) 4, 2, 1, 3
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1
(d) 2, 4, 3, 1

Answer: (d) 2, 4, 3, 1

Explanation:

Community Development Programme – Launched in 1952, it marked the beginning of planned rural development in India.

Drought Prone Area Programme (DPAP) – Introduced in 1973–74 to tackle recurring droughts.

Training for Rural Youth for Self Employment (TRYSEM) – Started in 1979 to provide technical skills to rural youth.

Food for Work Programme – Launched in 2004 to generate rural employment through public works.

Hence, the chronological order is 2 → 4 → 3 → 1.

 

Q88. Which of the following prepared the Annual Groundwater Quality Report 2024?

• Central Pollution Control Board

• Central Water Commission

• Central Groundwater Board

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) Only 3
(b) Only 1
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Only 3

Explanation:

Annual Groundwater Quality Report 2024 is prepared and released by Central Ground Water Board (CGWB), under the Ministry of Jal Shakti.

Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) monitors surface water and air quality, while Central Water Commission (CWC) handles water resource management.

Thus, only the CGWB issues this report.

 

Q89. With reference to the ‘ozone layer’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

• Ozone layer shields the surface of the Earth from the ultraviolet radiations from the Sun.

• Ozone depletion has been linked to chlorofluorocarbons.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Ozone layer, located in the stratosphere, protects life on Earth by absorbing harmful UV-B and UV-C radiation.

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other ozone-depleting substances (ODS) cause the breakdown of ozone molecules, leading to ozone depletion.

Both statements correctly describe the function and threat to the ozone layer.

 

Q90. As per the India State of Forest Report 2023, which of the following districts in Uttar Pradesh had forest cover over more than 20% of their total area?

• Bahraich

• Chandauli

• Shravasti

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) Only 3
(b) Only 1
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2

Explanation:

As per India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023, Bahraich and Chandauli districts in Uttar Pradesh recorded over 20% forest cover relative to their geographical area.

Shravasti has less than 20% forest cover.

Hence, the correct answer is (c) Bahraich and Chandauli.

 

Q91. Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order.

• Acquisition of Awadh by the British

• Ilbert Bill Controversy

• Indigo Revolt

• Second Anglo-Afghan War

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) 3, 1, 2, 4
(b) 1, 3, 2, 4
(c) 1, 3, 4, 2
(d) 3, 1, 4, 2

Answer: (c) 1, 3, 4, 2

Explanation:

Acquisition of Awadh by the British – 1856, under Lord Dalhousie’s Doctrine of Lapse, shortly before the 1857 Revolt.

Indigo Revolt – Took place in 1859–60 in Bengal against European planters.

Second Anglo-Afghan War – Occurred between 1878–1880 during Lord Lytton’s tenure.

Ilbert Bill Controversy – Happened in 1883–84 under Lord Ripon, concerning judicial equality for Indians.

Therefore, the correct chronological sequence is 1 → 3 → 4 → 2.

 

Q92. Which of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with only one other district of Uttar Pradesh?

• Lalitpur

• Saharanpur

• Sonbhadra

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) All 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) Only 2 and 3

Answer: (b) Only 1

Explanation:

Lalitpur is almost surrounded by Madhya Pradesh, except for a small corridor in the north adjoining Jhansi, making it the only UP district that shares its boundary with just one other UP district.

Saharanpur shares borders with Muzaffarnagar and Shamli (UP) and other states — Haryana, Uttarakhand, and Himachal Pradesh.

Sonbhadra borders Mirzapur and Chandauli within UP and multiple other states (MP, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar).

Hence, only Lalitpur fits the condition.

 

Q93. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

(Railway Zone)	(Headquarter)
1. Northern Railway	New Delhi
2. North Eastern Railway	Gorakhpur
3. South Eastern Railway	Cuttack

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) Only 3
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) Only 2 and 3

Answer: (c) Only 1 and 2

Explanation:

Northern Railway – Headquarters at New Delhi.

North Eastern Railway – Headquarters at Gorakhpur.

South Eastern Railway – Headquarters at Kolkata (Garden Reach), not Cuttack.

Hence, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

 

Q94. Assertion-Reason

Assertion (A): Investment in human capital yields returns in the future.
Reason (R): Education and health make people more productive.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation:

Investment in human capital — through education, skills, and health — yields future returns such as higher productivity, income, and economic growth.

Education and health enhance people’s productivity, which directly explains why investment in human capital yields future returns.

Hence, both statements are true, and (R) correctly explains (A).

 

Q95. With reference to the ‘Joint Sitting of Parliament’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

• Article 109 of the Constitution of India provides for the Joint Sitting of Parliament.

• A Joint Sitting of Parliament may be called to pass a Constitution Amendment Bill.

Options:
(a) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Only 2

Answer: (a) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• The Joint Sitting of Parliament is provided under Article 108, not Article 109. Article 109 deals with Money Bills.
• Constitution Amendment Bills cannot be passed via a joint sitting; they require a two-thirds majority in both Houses (Article 368).
• Therefore, both statements are incorrect.

Q96. With reference to the World Bank and International Monetary Fund, which of the following statements is/are correct?

• World Bank and International Monetary Fund were set up together and are popularly known as Bretton Woods Twins.

• Headquarters of International Monetary Fund and World Bank are located at Washington D.C. and New York respectively.

Options:
(a) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (b) Only 1

Explanation:

• World Bank and IMF were established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference and are collectively called the Bretton Woods Twins.
• Both the IMF and World Bank headquarters are in Washington D.C.; the statement about New York is incorrect.
• Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Q97. Match List–I with List–II and choose the correct answer

List – I (Lok Sabha)
A. 11th Lok Sabha
B. 12th Lok Sabha
C. 14th Lok Sabha
D. 17th Lok Sabha

List – II (Lok Sabha Speaker)

• Om Birla

• P.A. Sangma

• Somnath Chatterjee

• G.M.C. Balayogi

Codes:
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 3 2 4 1

Answer: (c) 2 4 3 1

Explanation:

Matching List–I with List–II:

• A → 2 (11th Lok Sabha → P.A. Sangma)
• B → 4 (12th Lok Sabha → G.M.C. Balayogi)
• C → 3 (14th Lok Sabha → Somnath Chatterjee)
• D → 1 (17th Lok Sabha → Om Birla)

Q98. Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana comes under which of the following?

• Ministry of Corporate Affairs

• Ministry of Rural Development

• Ministry of Finance

Options:
(a) Only 3
(b) Only 1
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Only 3

Explanation:

• Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) is a flagship scheme of the Ministry of Finance, managed through the Department of Financial Services.
• It does not fall under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs or Ministry of Rural Development.

Q99. Which of the following two are the major constituents of Bio-gas?

• Methane

• Butane

• Carbon dioxide

• Carbon monoxide

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3

Explanation:

• The two major constituents of bio-gas are methane (CH₄) and carbon dioxide (CO₂).
• Typical composition: 50–75% methane, 25–50% carbon dioxide, with trace amounts of other gases.
• Butane and carbon monoxide are not significant constituents of bio-gas.

Q100. Who among the following Indian novelists and journalists is/are part of the five-member jury for the 2026 International Booker Prize?

• Natasha Brown

• Kiran Desai

• Nilanjana S. Roy

• Rajni Chauhan

Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) 3 and 4
(b) Only 1
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 3

Answer: (d) Only 3

Explanation:

• Nilanjana S. Roy, an Indian novelist and journalist, is confirmed as a member of the 2026 International Booker Prize jury.
• Natasha Brown is a British novelist and the chair of the jury, not Indian.
• Kiran Desai and Rajni Chauhan are not listed as jury members for 2026.
• Hence, only Nilanjana S. Roy is correct.

Q101. Who among the following resigned from the Viceroy’s Executive Council, saddened by the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?

1. Chettur Sankaran Nair  
2. Ishwari Prasad  
3. Muhammad Shafi  
4. Iqbal Narain Gurtu  

Select the correct answer from the code given below :  

Code :  

(a) Only 4  

(b) Only 1  

(c) 2 and 3  

(d) 3 and 4  

Answer: (b) Only 1  

Explanation:

Chettur Sankaran Nair was a distinguished Indian lawyer, jurist, and politician, who served on the Viceroy’s Executive Council during British rule.

Jallianwala Bagh Massacre of 1919, in which British troops under General Dyer fired on an unarmed gathering in Amritsar, killing hundreds, caused widespread outrage across India.

Nair, deeply perturbed by this brutal incident, resigned from the Viceroy’s Executive Council as a protest against colonial repression and moral injustice.

His resignation was symbolic, highlighting the ethical and political dilemma faced by Indian members of the colonial administration.

Nair’s stance reflected the growing nationalist sentiment and rejection of British authoritarianism post-World War I.

His action inspired other Indian leaders and emphasized the moral responsibility of Indian representatives to oppose oppressive policies, contributing indirectly to the intensification of the freedom struggle.

The other options—Muhammad Shafi, Ishwari Prasad, and Iqbal Narain Gurtu—did not resign over this incident, making Chettur Sankaran Nair uniquely significant in this context.

This event also illustrated the broader disillusionment of moderate leaders with British reforms, marking a turning point where moral protest became a tool for political resistance.

Q102. Which of the following districts is/are part of the Devipatan Division in Uttar Pradesh?

1. Basti  
2. Bahraich  
3. Balrampur  

Select the correct answer from the code given below :  

Code :  

(a) Only 3  

(b) Only 1  

(c) Only 1 and 2  

(d) Only 2 and 3  

Answer: (d) Only 2 and 3  

Explanation:

Devipatan Division is one of the administrative divisions in Uttar Pradesh, established to improve governance and decentralize administration.

Bahraich and Balrampur are officially part of Devipatan Division, along with Shravasti district. Basti, however, belongs to the Basti Division.

The division was created to manage administrative tasks such as law and order, revenue collection, and local development more effectively.

Bahraich is strategically important due to its border with Nepal, making it significant for trade, security, and cultural interactions.

Balrampur is historically known for its rich cultural heritage and as a center of education and agriculture.

The inclusion of only Bahraich and Balrampur as part of Devipatan Division reflects the accurate political-geographical mapping of Uttar Pradesh.

Q103. Consider the following Election Reforms in India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from earliest to the last.

1. Voters photo identity card  
2. Electronic voting machine  
3. Voter verifiable paper audit trail  
4. NOTA  

Select the correct answer from the code given below :  

Code :  

(a) 1, 2, 4, 3  

(b) 2, 1, 4, 3  

(c) 2, 1, 3, 4  

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4  

Answer: (c) 2, 1, 3, 4 

Explanation:

Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs): Introduced in 1998 to modernize voting and reduce electoral fraud.

Voter Photo Identity Cards (Voter ID): Rolled out in 2003 to ensure voter authenticity and prevent duplicate voting.

Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT): Introduced in 2013, VVPAT allows voters to verify their vote electronically, enhancing transparency.

NOTA (None of the Above): Introduced in 2013 to give voters the option to reject all candidates if none are suitable.

This chronological order shows the evolution of Indian electoral reforms aimed at increasing transparency, voter confidence, and accountability in elections.

Q104. With reference to Global Environment Facility, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was established in 1991.  
2. Only the developed countries are donors to it.  

Select the correct answer from the code given below :  

Code :  

(a) Neither 1 nor 2  

(b) Only 1  

(c) Only 2  

(d) Both 1 and 2  

Answer: (b) Only 1 

Explanation:

The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established in 1991 to provide financial assistance for environmental projects worldwide.

It primarily focuses on biodiversity, climate change, international waters, land degradation, and chemicals management.

GEF finances projects in developing countries to promote sustainable development while addressing global environmental challenges.

Both developed and developing countries can participate, but developed nations are typically major donors, while developing nations are the primary recipients of funding.

The statement that only developed countries are donors is partially true, but GEF also allows contributions from other countries and international institutions.

GEF works closely with the United Nations, World Bank, and other organizations to co-finance environmental initiatives globally.

The facility has played a crucial role in implementing international environmental conventions such as the UNFCCC, CBD, and UNCCD.

Thus, the establishment year (1991) is correct, but the donor restriction to developed countries alone is inaccurate.

Q105. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

List – I (Sustainable Development Goals) | List – II (Area of Goal)

1. Goal 1  | 1. Clean water and sanitation  
2. Goal 3  | 2. Quality education  
3. Goal 4  | 3. To end poverty in all forms  
4. Goal 6  | 4. Good health and well-being  

Code :  

(a) 3 4 2 1  

(b) 4 3 2 1  

(c) 4 3 1 2  

(d) 3 4 1 2  

Answer: (a) 3 4 2 1  

Explanation:

Goal 1 (No Poverty): Aims to eradicate extreme poverty and ensure social protection for the vulnerable population.

Goal 3 (Good Health and Well-being): Seeks to reduce mortality, combat diseases, and ensure access to healthcare services.

Goal 4 (Quality Education): Focuses on inclusive and equitable quality education and lifelong learning opportunities.

Goal 6 (Clean Water and Sanitation): Ensures access to safe drinking water, sanitation, and hygiene for all.

These goals are part of the 17 SDGs adopted by the UN in 2015 to achieve sustainable development globally by 2030.

Correct mapping helps in understanding the priorities and thematic focus of each SDG.

Knowledge of SDGs is essential for civil service exams, international development studies, and policymaking contexts.

 

Q106. Global Wage Report 2024-25 was released by which of the following organisation?

1. International Labour Organisation  
2. World Bank  
3. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development  

Select the correct answer from the code given below :  

Code :  

(a) Only 3  

(b) Only 1  

(c) 1 and 2  

(d) 2 and 3  

Answer: (b) Only 1

Explanation:

​​The Global Wage Report is a flagship publication of the ILO, providing insights into wage trends, inequality, and labor market dynamics globally.

The 2024-25 report focuses on wage growth, gender pay gaps, minimum wages, and the impact of economic shocks on employment.

ILO uses data from multiple countries to assess comparative wages, labor productivity, and social protection mechanisms.

The report serves as a critical tool for governments, policymakers, and labor organizations to formulate fair wage policies.

World Bank and International Bank for Reconstruction and Development do not release this report, making ILO the sole authority.

 

Q107. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Port) | List – II (State)

1. Paradeep    | 1. Tamil Nadu  
2. Tuticorin   | 2. Kerala  
3. Kakinada    | 3. Odisha  
4. Alappuzha   | 4. Andhra Pradesh  

Code :  

(a) 3 4 2 1  

(b) 1 3 4 2  

(c) 1 3 2 4  

(d) 3 1 2 4

Answer: (a) 3 4 2 1  

Explanation:  

Paradeep Port: Major port in Odisha, handles bulk cargo, iron ore, and coal shipments.

Tuticorin Port (V.O. Chidambaranar Port): Located in Tamil Nadu, important for trade in minerals, salt, and coal.

Kakinada Port: Andhra Pradesh port handling rice, fertilizers, and petroleum products.

Alappuzha Port: Kerala port, primarily inland navigation and coir product exports.

Correct port-state mapping is crucial for geography, trade, and infrastructure-related questions. These ports play key roles in India’s maritime economy and regional development strategies.

Q108. Which of the following gases is/are lighter than air?

1. Hydrogen chloride  
2. Sulfur dioxide  
3. Helium  

Select the correct answer from the code given below :  

Code :  

(a) Only 3  

(b) Only 1  

(c) 1 and 2  

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) Only 3  

Explanation:  

The density of air at standard conditions is approximately 1.225 kg/m³.

Helium: Atomic mass 4 g/mol, significantly lighter than nitrogen (28 g/mol) and oxygen (32 g/mol), making it buoyant in air.

Hydrogen chloride (HCl): Denser than air (36.5 g/mol) → sinks in air.

Sulfur dioxide (SO₂): Denser than air (64 g/mol) → sinks in air.

Gases lighter than air, like helium, are used in balloons, airships, and scientific applications.

Knowledge of gas densities is essential for physics, chemistry, and environmental studies.

Q109. “Swavalambini”, a women entrepreneurship programme for the North-East is launched by which of the following ministries?

1. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship  
2. Ministry of Women and Child Development  
3. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises  

Select the correct answer from the code given below :  

Code :  

(a) Only 3  

(b) Only 1  

(c) 1 and 2  

(d) 2 and 3  

Answer: (b)  

Explanation:

Swavalambini: Initiative to empower women in North-East India through entrepreneurship, skill development, and financial literacy.

Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship: Focuses on providing skill training, incubation, and capacity-building programs.

The program targets self-reliance, income generation, and employment opportunities for women in remote and underserved areas.

Provides mentorship, access to credit, and market linkages for women-led enterprises.

Such programs are vital for inclusive economic growth and social development in the North-East region.

Q110. Arrange the following in chronological order of their rule and select the correct answer from the code given below.

1. Bajirao I  
2. Balaji Bajirao  
3. Balaji Vishwanath  
4. Madhav Rao I  

Code :  

(a) 3, 1, 4, 2  

(b) 1, 3, 4, 2  

(c) 1, 3, 2, 4  

(d) 3, 1, 2, 4

Answer: (d) 3, 1, 2, 4

Explanation:

Balaji Vishwanath (1713–1720): First Peshwa under Chhatrapati Shahu, laid administrative and political foundations of the Peshwa system.

Bajirao I (1720–1740): Expanded Maratha influence in North India, known for military campaigns and strategic brilliance.

Balaji Bajirao (Nana Saheb) (1740–1761): Continued Peshwa legacy but faced setbacks like the Third Battle of Panipat (1761).

Madhav Rao I (1761–1772): Restored Maratha power after Panipat, strengthened administration and fiscal reforms.

Chronology highlights the evolution of Maratha political authority and administrative reforms over the 18th century.

Understanding the sequence is important for history, polity, and UPSC-level questions related to Maratha governance.

Q111. Which of the following languages is/are NOT included in the Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution? 

1. Nepali 
2. Dogri 
3. Bodo 
4. Bhojpuri 

Select the correct answer from the code given below 

Code: 

(a) Only 4 

(b) Only 1

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 3 and 4 

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the recognized languages of India. As of now, 22 languages are included.

• Nepali – Included 
• Dogri – Included 
• Bodo – Included 
• Bhojpuri – Not included 

So, the language NOT in the Eighth Schedule is Bhojpuri.

Q112. With reference to ‘Silver articles’, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. Silver articles turn black after some time when exposed to air. 
2. It happens due to the coating of silver sulphide. 

Select the correct answer from the code given below 

Code: 

(a) Neither 1 nor 2 

(b) Only 1 

(c) Only 2 

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: d

Explanation:

Silver articles turn black on exposure to air – This is true. The blackening is a common phenomenon observed in silver objects over time.

Reason – formation of silver sulphide (Ag₂S) – This is also true. The black coating forms because silver reacts with sulfur compounds (mainly hydrogen sulfide, H₂S) in the air, forming silver sulfide, which appears black.

So both statements are correct.

Q113.  With reference to Delhi Government’s Bio-decomposer and Spray Programme’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 

1. The Bio-decomposer solution is provided free of cost to farmers to help convert stubble into manure. 
2. The Bio-decomposer solution is prepared using a mix of several fungi. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Code: 

(a) Neither 1 nor 2 

(b) Only 1 

(c) Only 2 

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation: 

The Delhi Government’s Bio-decomposer and Spray Programme provides bio-decomposer solutions free of cost to farmers to help them convert crop stubble into manure, reducing stubble burning.

The bio-decomposer solution is made using a mix of multiple fungi that help break down the paddy or wheat stubble into compost naturally.

Q114. Which of the following is/are a Financial Committee of Parliament in India ? 

1. Public Accounts Committee 
2. Estimate Committee 
3. Committee on Public Undertakings 

Select the correct answer from the code given below: 

Code: 

(a) All 1, 2 and 3 

(b) Only 1 

(c) Only 1 and 2 

(d) Only 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

The Financial Committees of Parliament in India are tasked with examining government expenditures, budgets, and the efficiency of public undertakings. Let’s analyze each of the committees mentioned:

Public Accounts Committee (PAC) – It examines the accounts of the government and ensures that public money is used properly.

Estimates Committee –It examines the budget estimates and suggests economies and improvements in efficiency.

Committee on Public Undertakings (COPU) –It examines the reports and accounts of public sector undertakings.

All three are indeed Financial Committees of Parliament.

Q115. Which of the following countries is/are NOT a member of the Gulf Cooperation Council?

1. Bahrain 
2. Iran 
3. Iraq 
4. Qatar

Select the correct answer from the code given below 

Code:  

(a) 3 and 4 

(b) Only 1 

(c) 2 and 3 

(d) Only 3

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) is a political and economic alliance of six countries in the Arabian Peninsula:

• Bahrain
• Kuwait
• Oman
• Qatar
• Saudi Arabia
• United Arab Emirates

Q116.  With reference to ‘Human Development Index’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 

1. The UNDP published its first Human Development Report in 1990, which had a Human Development Index. 
2. The first team that developed the Human Development Index was led by Mahbub-ul-Haq and S. Priesner. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

Code: 

(a) Neither 1 nor 2 

(b) Only 1 

(c) Only 2 

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: d

Explanation:

Statement 1: “The UNDP published its first Human Development Report in 1990, which had a Human Development Index.”  This is correct. The first Human Development Report (HDR) was indeed published by the UNDP in 1990, and it introduced the Human Development Index (HDI) as a measure to assess human development beyond just income.

Statement 2: “The first team that developed the Human Development Index was led by Mahbub-ul-Haq and S. Priesner.” This is also correct. Pakistani economist Mahbub-ul-Haq and Indian economist Amartya Sen were key in conceptualizing the HDI, with S. Priesner assisting in the technical formulation. Mahbub-ul-Haq is often credited as the main leader of the team.
So, both statements are correct.

Q117.  Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched? 

•  National Voters – 25 January Day (India)

•  Constitution Day– 27 January(India) 

•  Human Rights – 29 January Day (World)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code: 

(a) Only 3 

(c) 1 and 2 

(b) Only 1 

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

National Voters Day (India) – Celebrated on 25th January

Constitution Day (India) – Celebrated on 26th November, not 27th January

Human Rights Day (World) – Celebrated on 10th December, not 29th January 

So, the pairs that are NOT correctly matched are 2 and 3.

Q118. Consider the following and arrange them in the correct chronological order. 

1. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation 
2. Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission 
3. Jal Jeevan Mission 
4. National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy 

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code::

(a) 4, 2, 1, 3 

(b) 4, 2, 3, 1

(c) 2, 4, 1, 3

(d) 2, 4, 3, 1

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) – Launched in 2015.

Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) – Launched in 2005.

Jal Jeevan Mission – Launched in 2019.

National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy – Launched in 2007.

Now, arranging them in chronological order of launch:

JNNURM (2005) → National Urban Housing and Habitat Policy (2007) → AMRUT (2015) → Jal Jeevan Mission (2019)

Q119. Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched ?

(Pass)  (State/Union Territory) 

1. Lipulekh -Ladakh
2. Nathu La -Sikkim
3. Bomdila – Arunachal Pradesh
4. Shipki La – Himachal Pradesh

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 2, 3 and 4

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 1 and 2

(d) Only 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Explanation: 

Lipulekh – Ladakh: Lipulekh Pass is on the India–Nepal–China (Tibet) border in Uttarakhand, not Ladakh. So this is incorrect.

Nathu La – Sikkim: Nathu La is a pass in Sikkim. This is correct.

Bomdila – Arunachal Pradesh: Bomdila is a town in Arunachal Pradesh. This is correct.

Shipki La – Himachal Pradesh: Shipki La is a pass in Himachal Pradesh, on the India–China border. This is correct.

Q120. With reference to ‘Ecosystem’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Green plants in the terrestrial ecosystem capture about 1% of energy of the sunlight that falls on their leaves.
2. Around 10% of organic matter reaches to the next higher level of consumers.

Select the correct answer from the code given below

Code:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (d) 

Explanation:

Statement 1: Green plants in the terrestrial ecosystem capture about 1% of energy of the sunlight that falls on their leaves. This is correct. Only about 1% of sunlight energy that falls on green leaves is actually captured through photosynthesis and converted into chemical energy. The rest is reflected, transmitted, or lost as heat.
Statement 2: Around 10% of organic matter reaches the next higher level of consumers. Correct: This refers to the 10% law of energy transfer in ecosystems. Roughly 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next higher level, as most energy is lost as heat, used in metabolism, or not consumed. 

Both statements are correct.

Q121. Which of the following enzymes is/are released in the stomach for protein digestion ?

1. Chymotrypsin
2. Trypsin
3. Pepsin

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 3

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 2

(d) Only 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation: Protein digestion begins in the stomach and continues in the small intestine. The enzymes responsible for breaking down proteins differ based on the site of secretion.

Pepsin – Stomach enzyme: Secreted in the stomach by chief cells as an inactive form called pepsinogen. It is activated by hydrochloric acid (HCl) present in the gastric juice. Pepsin breaks down proteins into smaller peptides.

Trypsin – Small intestine enzyme: Secreted by the pancreas as trypsinogen and activated in the small intestine by enterokinase. Functions in the duodenum, not in the stomach.

Chymotrypsin – Small intestine enzyme: Also secreted by the pancreas as chymotrypsinogen and activated by trypsin in the small intestine.

 

Q122. Match List – I with List II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I (Iron-ore Mines) List – II (State)

1. Gurumahisani 1. Jharkhand
2. Bailadila 2. Karnataka
3. Noamundi 3. Odisha
4. Kudremukh 4. Chhattisgarh

Code:

A B C D

(a) 4 3 1 2

(b) 3 4 1 2

(c) 3 4 1 2

(d) 4 3 1 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Gurumahisani – Odisha: Located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha. It was the first iron ore mine to be developed in India (in 1910 by Tata Steel). Hence, A → 3.

Bailadila – Chhattisgarh: Located  in the Dantewada district of Chhattisgarh. Famous for its high-grade hematite iron ore deposits.  Hence, B → 4.

Noamundi – Jharkhand: Located in the West Singhbhum district of Jharkhand. A major iron ore mining center operated by Tata Steel. Hence, C → 1.

Kudremukh – Karnataka: Situated in the Chikkamagaluru district of Karnataka. Known for its magnetite ore and formerly operated by Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Limited (KIOCL). Hence, D → 2.

Q123. Which of the following countries is/are NOT a member of the ‘Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Co-operation (BIMSTEC)’?

1. Thailand
2. Nepal
3. Bhutan
4. Indonesia

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 4

(c) 2 and 3

(b) Only 1

(d) 1 and 4

Answer: (a)

Explanation: 

BIMSTEC was established in 1997 with the goal of promoting regional cooperation in areas such as trade, technology, energy, and transport among countries bordering the Bay of Bengal. It serves as a bridge between South Asia and Southeast Asia.

Current BIMSTEC member countries (7):

1. Bangladesh
2. Bhutan
3. India
4. Myanmar
5. Nepal
6. Sri Lanka
7. Thailand

Q124. Which of the following sites were obtained by the British East India Company under the Treaty of Sugauli in 1816?

1. Kathmandu
2. Shimla
3. Ranikhet
4. Nainital

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) Only 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 2

(b) Only 1

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

Explanation

Treaty of Sugauli, signed in 1816, concluded the Anglo-Nepalese War (or Gurkha War) and forced the Kingdom of Nepal (the Gorkhas) to cede a significant portion of its territory to the British East India Company.

Territories Ceded: The key territories ceded by Nepal included:

All territories west of the Kali River: This vast region included the areas known as Garhwal and Kumaon.

The entire Terai region (lowlands) between the rivers Kali and Rapti.

Territories in the east, including the area of Sikkim.

Hill Stations Acquired

The regions of Garhwal and Kumaon that were ceded were strategically important and possessed the hill country where several prominent British hill stations were later established.

Shimla: Located in the hills above the Sutlej River, this area was under Nepalese influence and was ceded to the British, who would later develop Shimla into their summer capital of British India.

Ranikhet: Located in the Kumaon region, which was ceded under the treaty. It was later developed as a major cantonment and hill station.

Nainital: Also located in the Kumaon region, which was ceded to the British. It was quickly developed into a popular colonial town.

Q125. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Poverty line differs across time and countries.

Reason (R): The basic needs of people vary across regions and overtime.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: B

Explanation:

Assertion (A): The poverty line is not uniform across the world or over time. It differs across countries because the cost of living, income levels, and price structures vary. It changes over time as inflation, development, and consumption patterns evolve. Hence, Assertion (A) is true.

Reason (R):The basic needs—such as food, clothing, shelter, healthcare, and education—are not constant everywhere.They vary depending on climatic conditions, social norms, economic development, and technological progress.As societies develop, people’s definition of a “minimum acceptable standard of living” rises. bHence, Reason (R) is true.

Since the difference in poverty lines directly results from varying basic needs across regions and time, (R) correctly explains (A).

Q126. Consider the tenure of the following Presidents of India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from earliest to the last.

• Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

• K R Narayanan

• A P J Abdul Kalam

• R Venkatarama

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code: 

(a) 4, 1, 3, 2 

(b) 1, 4, 3, 2 

(c) 1, 4, 2, 3

(d) 4, 1, 2, 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

Neelam Sanjiva Reddy (1977–1982): He was the 6th President of India. Known for being elected unopposed, the only President to have this distinction. His term: 1977 to 1982.

1992. Venkataraman (1987–1992): Served as the 8th President of India. Before becoming President, he was the Vice President of India (1984–1987). His term: 1987 to 1992.
1993. R. Narayanan (1997–2002): The 10th President of India and the first Dalit President. Known for his academic background and diplomatic experience. His term: 1997 to 2002.
1994. P. J. Abdul Kalam (2002–2007): The 11th President of India, popularly known as the “People’s President.” Renowned scientist and “Missile Man of India.” His term: 2002 to 2007.

Q127. With reference to ‘Uttar Pradesh’, which of the following statements is/are correct? 

1. Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer of potato in the country. 
2. The Government of India has approved for establishment of South Asia Regional Centre of International Potato Centre at Aligarh. 

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

• Neither 1 nor 2

• Only 1

• Only 2

• Both 1 and 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Uttar Pradesh ranks first in India in the production of potatoes, contributing around 30–35% of the total national output. Major potato-producing districts include Agra, Farrukhabad, Kannauj, Firozabad, and Etawah. The favorable alluvial soil and climatic conditions make it ideal for potato cultivation.

Statement 2 is incorrect:  The Government of India approved the establishment of the South Asia Regional Centre of CIP at Modipuram (Meerut), not Aligarh. It operates under the ICAR–Central Potato Research Institute (CPRI), Shimla, to promote potato-based innovations in South Asia.

Q128.  Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I List – II

(Schedule) (Subject)

• 7th Schedule 1. Languages

• 8th Schedule 2. Disqualification on ground of defection

• 9th Schedule 3. Union, State and Concurrent lists

• 10th Schedule 4. Validation of certain acts/regulations

Code:

A B C D

• 3 1 4 2

• 4 2 1 3

• 3 1 2 4

• 2 3 4 1

Answer: A

Explanation:  7th Schedule – Union, State and Concurrent Lists: The 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution defines the division of powers between the Union and the States. It contains three lists:

Union List – subjects on which only Parliament can legislate.

State List – subjects on which only State Legislatures can legislate.

Concurrent List – subjects on which both can legislate.
Hence, A → 3.

8th Schedule – Languages: The 8th Schedule lists the official languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Initially, there were 14 languages, and now there are 22 languages after various amendments.
Hence, B → 1.
9th Schedule – Validation of Certain Acts/Regulations: The 9th Schedule was added by the First Constitutional Amendment (1951). It was intended to protect land reform laws and other legislation from being challenged in courts for violating Fundamental Rights.
Hence, C → 4.

10th Schedule – Disqualification on Grounds of Defection

The 10th Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment (1985), deals with the anti-defection law. It provides grounds for disqualifying members of Parliament and State Legislatures if they defect from one political party to another.
Hence, D → 2.

Q129. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). 

Assertion (A): Generally an alloy of lead and tin is used as a material of the fuse wire. 

Reason (R): Alloy of lead and tin has a higher melting point than copper and aluminium. 

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true 

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) 

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) 

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: D

Explanation:

Assertion (A): It is true that an alloy of lead and tin (commonly known as solder) is used for making fuse wires. Fuse wires are designed to melt quickly and break the circuit when excessive current flows, preventing damage to electrical devices. Hence, Assertion (A) is correct.

Reason (R): The melting point of the lead–tin alloy is lower, not higher, than that of copper or aluminium. Lead–tin alloy melts at around 180°C–250°C, Copper melts at 1083°C, and aluminium at 660°C. The low melting point of the alloy ensures that it melts easily when current exceeds safe limits — making it suitable for fuse wires. Hence, Reason (R) is false.

Q130. Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

(Day) (Date)

• International Ozone Day 16 September

• World Environment Day 5 June

• World Wildlife Day 22 March

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

• Only 3

• Only 1

• 1 and 3

• 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

International Ozone Day: Observed on 16 September every year. Marks the signing of the Montreal Protocol (1987), aimed at protecting the ozone layer by phasing out ozone-depleting substances.

World Environment Day: Celebrated on 5 June annually. Established by the United Nations in 1972 during the Stockholm Conference on Human Environment. It promotes global awareness and action for environmental protection.

World Wildlife Day: Observed on 3 March, marking the adoption of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) in 1973. It raises awareness about global wildlife conservation.

Q131. Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

(City) (River)

• Budapest Danube

• Cologne Rhine

• New Orleans Missouri

• Hyderabad Paleru

(India)

Select the correct answer from the code given below: 

Code :

(a) Only 3 and 4 

(b) Only 1 and 2 

(c) Only 1, 2 and 3 

(d) Only 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation:

Budapest – Danube: The Danube River flows through Budapest, the capital of Hungary. The river divides the city into Buda and Pest, lying on opposite banks.

Cologne – Rhine: Cologne (Köln) is a major city in Germany situated on the banks of the River Rhine.

New Orleans – Missouri. New Orleans is located on the Mississippi River, not the Missouri. The Missouri River is a major tributary of the Mississippi but does not flow through New Orleans.

Hyderabad (India) – Paleru. Hyderabad lies on the banks of the Musi River, a tributary of the Krishna River. The Paleru River flows in Khammam district of Telangana, not through Hyderabad.

 

Q132.  Which of the following is/are NOT a dimension of food security? 

1. Availability 
2. Accessibility 
3. Affordability 
4. Accountability

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) Only 4 

(b) Only 1 

(c) 1 and 2 

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation: Food security means that all people, at all times, have physical, social, and economic access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food to meet their dietary needs for an active and healthy life. The three key dimensions of food security are:

Availability – Ensuring that food is physically present in sufficient quantity through production, storage, imports, or aid.

Accessibility – Ensuring that individuals have adequate access (economic and physical) to food resources.

Affordability (or Stability/Utilization) – Ensuring that food is affordable and nutritionally adequate for everyone and that its supply is stable over time.

Q133. Four Buddhist Councils were held at the following places. Arrange them in the correct chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below:

• Vaishali

• Rajagriha

• Kundalvana

• Pataliputra

Code:

• 2, 1, 3, 4

• 1, 2, 3, 4

• 1, 2, 4, 3

• 2, 1, 4, 3

Answer: D

Explanation: 

The Buddhist Councils were convened to preserve, compile, and interpret the teachings of Lord Buddha after his Mahaparinirvana.

• First Buddhist Council – Rajagriha (Rajgir)
  • Year: 483 BCE (shortly after Buddha’s death)
  • Patron: King Ajatashatru
  • Presided by: Mahakassapa (Mahakashyapa)
  • Purpose: Compilation of Buddha’s teachings — Vinaya Pitaka and Sutta Pitaka.
• Second Buddhist Council – Vaishali
  • Year: Around 383 BCE
  • Patron: King Kalasoka
  • Presided by: Sabakami Thera
  • Purpose: To settle disputes regarding monastic discipline (Vinaya rules).
• Third Buddhist Council – Pataliputra
  • Year: Around 250 BCE
  • Patron: Emperor Ashoka
  • Presided by: Moggaliputta Tissa
  • Purpose: To purify the Sangha by expelling corrupt monks and to compile the Abhidhamma Pitaka.
• Fourth Buddhist Council – Kundalvana (Kashmir)
  • Year: 1st century CE
  • Patron: King Kanishka (Kushan dynasty)
  • Presided by: Vasumitra and Ashvaghosha
  • Purpose: Compilation of Mahayana scriptures.

Hence, the chronological order is:  Rajagriha → Vaishali → Pataliputra → Kundalvana

Q134. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). 

Assertion (A): The Himalayas form source of several large perennial rivers. 

Reason (R): The higher ranges of Himalayas are snow covered throughout the year.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true 

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) 

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) 

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: B

Explanation

Assertion (A): The Himalayas are the source of several large perennial rivers such as the Ganga, Indus, Brahmaputra, Yamuna, and Sutlej.  These rivers flow throughout the year, providing a continuous supply of water for agriculture, drinking, and hydroelectric power generation. Hence, (A) is true.

Reason (R): The higher ranges of the Himalayas—especially the Himadri and Himachal ranges—remain snow-covered year-round. The melting of glaciers and snowfields during warmer months provides a steady source of water, feeding these perennial rivers.  Hence, (R) is true, and it directly explains the reason for (A).

Q135. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). 

Assertion (A): India’s success is critical for the global success of Sustainable Development Goals. 

Reason (R): India accounts for nearly one-sixth of the total world population. Select the correct answer from the code given below:

• (A) is false, but (R) is true 

• Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) 

• Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) 

• (d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: B

Explanation:

Assertion (A): The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) aim to end poverty, protect the planet, and ensure prosperity for all by 2030. India’s success in achieving these goals is vital for global progress, as the country represents a significant share of the world’s population, economy, and biodiversity.  Hence, (A) is true.

Reason (R):  India is home to nearly one-sixth of the global population (about 17–18%), making it the most populous country in the world as of 2023. Therefore, global SDG targets — whether on poverty eradication, clean energy, gender equality, or climate action — cannot be achieved without India’s active participation and success. Hence, (R) is true and it correctly explains (A).

Q136. Pushkar Kumbh Mela 2025 was held in May 2025 in which of the following State(s)? 

1. Rajasthan 
2. Uttar Pradesh 
3. Uttarakhand 

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

• Only 3

• Only 1

• 1 and 2

• 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

The Pushkar Kumbh Mela 2025 was a sacred Hindu pilgrimage that occurred in Mana village, Uttarakhand, from May 15 to May 26, 2025. Held at Keshav Prayag, the confluence of the Alaknanda and Saraswati rivers, it drew thousands of Vaishnavite devotees, especially from South India, seeking spiritual purification and liberation. The event was notable for its spiritual significance during the Jupiter-Gemini alignment and its role in fostering connections between North and South Indian traditions.  

Q137. With reference to Panchayati Raj Institutions in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 

1. Tenure of Panchayati Raj Institutions shall be of 5 years. 
2. In Panchayati Raj Institutions, out of the seats reserved, 1/4 of the seats shall be reserved for women belonging to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe. 

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) Neither 1 nor 2 

(b) Only 1 

(c) Only 2 

(d) Both 1 and 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 243E of the Indian Constitution, every Panchayat shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting. If dissolved earlier, elections must be conducted within six months.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 243D(3), not less than one-third (1/3) of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat are reserved for women, including those belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

Q138. Which among the following is/are NOT a Social indicator of poverty? 

1. Illiteracy 
2. Safe drinking water 
3. Job opportunities 
4. Size of the house 

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) Only 4 

(b) Only 1 

(c) 1 and 2 

(d) 3 and 4

Answer: D

Explanation:

Social indicators of poverty reflect the quality of life and access to basic human needs, not economic variables like income or employment.

Social indicators include:

• Illiteracy 
• Lack of safe drinking water 
• Poor health facilities
• High infant mortality rate
• Malnutrition

Not social indicators:

• Job opportunities  → This is an economic indicator, not a social one.
• Size of the house  → This is a physical or material indicator, not directly a social one.

Q139. Which of the following is/are NOT a cold ocean current?

1. Agulhas current 
2. Brazil current 
3. Humboldt current 
4. California current

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

• 3 and 4

• 1 and 2

• 1 and 3

• 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

• Agulhas Current – A warm ocean current flowing southward along the east coast of Africa (from Mozambique to the southern tip of Africa). It carries warm waters from the Indian Ocean, influencing the climate of southeastern Africa.
• Brazil Current – A warm ocean current flowing southward along the eastern coast of South America, starting from the equatorial Atlantic region down to the subtropical zones.
• Humboldt (Peru) Current – A cold ocean current flowing northward along the west coast of South America. It brings cold, nutrient-rich water that supports one of the world’s richest fishing grounds.
• California Current – A cold ocean current flowing southward along the western coast of North America. It moderates the coastal climate and supports marine life.

Q140. Which of the following pairs is/are NOT correctly matched?

(Acid) (Acid found in)

1. Lactic acid Curd
2. Tartaric acid Grapes
3. Acetic acid  Potato

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

• Only 3

• Only 1

• 1 and 2

• 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

• Lactic acid – Curd: Curd is formed by the fermentation of milk by lactic acid bacteria (Lactobacillus). The bacteria convert lactose (milk sugar) into lactic acid, giving curd its sour taste.
• Tartaric acid – Grapes: Tartaric acid is a natural organic acid found in grapes, tamarind, and bananas. It contributes to the tart flavor of these fruits.
• Acetic acid – Potato: Acetic acid is the main component of vinegar, not found in potatoes. Potatoes mainly contain starch and citric acid traces, but no acetic acid naturally.

Q141. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). 

Assertion (A): The territories of the Sultanate could be broadly divided into two parts – the Khalsa and the Jagirs. 

Reason (R): The Jagirs comprised of the land under the control of the State.

Select the correct answer from the code given below: 

Code:

(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (А)

(d)  (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: D

Explanation:

Assertion (A): During the Delhi Sultanate period, the territory was broadly divided into two administrative categories:

Khalsa (or Crown land): Land whose revenue was collected directly by the central government for the Sultan’s treasury.

Jagir: Land assigned to nobles or officers (known as iqtadars or jagirdars) in lieu of their services.
Thus, the division between Khalsa and Jagir is historically accurate.
Hence, Assertion (A) is true.

Reason (R): The statement that “Jagirs comprised the land under the control of the State” is incorrect. In reality, Khalsa was the land directly under State control, not Jagir. Jagir lands were granted temporarily to officers, who collected revenue from the peasants and maintained troops, but the Sultan retained ownership of the land. Hence, Reason (R) is false.

Q142. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). 

Assertion (A): Directive Principles are important for economic, social and political functions in a Modern Democratic State. 

Reason (R): The core objectives of Directive Principles is to establish economic and social democracy. 

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code: 

(a) (A) is false, but (R) is trùe 2 

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) 

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) 

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Assertion (A): The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs), enshrined in Part IV (Articles 36–51) of the Indian Constitution, aim to guide the State in promoting economic, social, and political justice. They form the foundation of welfare governance and ensure that India progresses towards a modern democratic state based on equality and justice. Hence, Assertion (A) is true.

Reason (R): The core objective of the DPSPs is to establish economic and social democracy as envisioned by the framers of the Constitution, especially Dr. B. R. Ambedkar. While Fundamental Rights ensure political democracy, Directive Principles aim to achieve social and economic democracy by addressing issues like poverty, inequality, education, health, and workers’ rights. Hence, Reason (R) is also true.

Since the Directive Principles’ importance (A) directly stems from their objective of establishing economic and social democracy (R), (R) correctly explains (A).

Q143.  Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). 

Assertion (A): Sustainable development should take place without damaging the environment and development in the present time should not compromise with the needs of the future generations. 

Reason (R): Agenda 21 was signed by world leaders in 1995. 

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Code: 

(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true 

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) 

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) 

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: D

Explanation

Assertion (A): The statement correctly defines the concept of sustainable development, which means meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
This definition was given by the Brundtland Commission (1987) and is widely accepted as the foundation of global sustainability efforts. Hence, Assertion (A) is true.

• Reason (R): The Agenda 21 is a comprehensive action plan for sustainable development adopted at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the Earth Summit, held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in 1992, not in 1995. Hence, Reason (R) is false.

Q144. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I List II

(Mission) (Date of Launch)

• Chandrayaan-3 1. 02 September 2023

• Aditya L1 2. 17 February 2024

• INSAT-3DS 3. 14 July 2023

• RLV-LEX-01 4. 02 April 2023

Code:

A B C D

• 3 1 2 4

• 1 3 2 4

• 1 3 4 2

• 3 1 4 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

Chandrayaan–3 – 14 July 2023: Launched by ISRO from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota. Successfully landed on the Moon’s south pole on 23 August 2023, making India the first country to do so. Matched with 3.

Aditya–L1 – 02 September 2023: India’s first solar mission to study the Sun’s corona and solar winds. Placed in a halo orbit around Lagrange Point–1 (L1), about 1.5 million km from Earth. Matched with 1.

INSAT–3DS – 17 February 2024: A meteorological satellite launched aboard GSLV-F14.It enhances weather forecasting, disaster warnings, and environmental monitoring. Matched with 2.

RLV–LEX–01 – 02 April 2023: Refers to the Reusable Launch Vehicle–Landing Experiment by ISRO. Conducted at Challakere, Karnataka, marking a successful autonomous runway landing of a winged body. Matched with 4.

Q145. With reference to the ‘Indian Ocean’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

• It was called by the Ancient Greeks as the Erythraean Sea. 

• It is spread on either side of the equator.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

• Neither 1 nor 2

• Only 1

• Only 2

• Both 1 and 2

Answer: D

Explanation: 

Statement 1 is correct: The Ancient Greeks referred to the Indian Ocean (particularly the northwestern part) as the Erythraean Sea. The name appears in the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, a Greek navigational text (1st century CE) describing trade routes connecting the Red Sea, Arabian Sea, and Indian subcontinent.

Statement 2 is correct: The Indian Ocean extends both north and south of the Equator, covering tropical, subtropical, and temperate zones. The Equator passes through the middle of the ocean, making it present on both hemispheres.

 

Q146. Consider the following sources of world water supply and arrange them in descending order. 

1. Oceans 
2. Rivers 
3. Polar ice and Glaciers 
4. Ground water 

Select the correct answer from the code given below: 

Code: 

(a) 1, 2, 4, 3 

(c) 1, 3, 4, 2 

(b) 1, 4, 3, 2 

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: C

Explanation: The distribution of Earth’s water is highly uneven. The vast majority of water is found in oceans, followed by polar ice and glaciers, groundwater, and then rivers and lakes.

The approximate distribution is as follows:

• Oceans: 97.2% of total water.
• Polar ice and Glaciers: 2.15%.
• Groundwater: 0.63%.
• Rivers and Lakes: 0.02%.

Thus, in descending order (from maximum to minimum): Oceans > Polar ice & Glaciers > Groundwater > Rivers

Q147. Which of the following pair is/are NOT correctly matched ? (Dam) 

(Dam) (River

1. Baglihar Dam – Chenab
2. Pandoh Dam – Ravi 
3. Srisailam Dam – Tungabhadra 

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

• Only 3

• Only 1

• 1 and 2

• 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation: 

Baglihar Dam – Chenab River: Located in Ramban district, Jammu and Kashmir. Built on the Chenab River as a hydroelectric project.

Pandoh Dam – Beas River (not Ravi): Situated in Mandi district, Himachal Pradesh. Constructed on the Beas River to divert water to the Sutlej River through the Beas–Sutlej Link Project.

Srisailam Dam – Krishna River (not Tungabhadra): Located in Andhra Pradesh, spanning the Krishna River. It is one of the largest hydroelectric and irrigation dams in South India.

 

Q148. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). 

Assertion (A): India is the second largest mobile gaming market in the world. 

Reason (R): There are more than 950 million internet users in India. 

Select the correct answer from the code given below: 

Code: 

(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true 

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) 

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) 

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: B

Explanation:

Assertion is correct: The United States is the largest mobile gaming market in the world by revenue, followed by China and Japan. While India is the second largest by number of downloads, with approximately 590 million gamers, it ranks lower in terms of revenue due to a greater reliance on free-to-play models and less in-app spending compared to other major markets. 

Q149. Who among the following had won the International Booker Prize in 2025? 

1. Banu Mushtaq 
2. Deepa Bhasthi 
3. Sanjay Chauhan 

Select the correct answer from the code given below: 

Code: 

(a) Only 3 

(b) Only 1 

(c) 1 and 2 

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Explanation

Banu Mushtaq and Deepa Bhasthi have won the International Booker Prize 2025 for Heart Lamp, the first collection of short stories to win the prize

 

Q150. With reference to ‘Vice-President of India’, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 

1. The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 
2. Vice-President is a member of the Rajya Sabha. 

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Code:

• Neither 1 nor 2 

• Only 1

• Both 1 and 2 

• Only 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Article 64).

Statement 2 is incorrect: However, he is not a member of the Rajya Sabha or any House of Parliament (Article 66(2)); if a member is elected Vice-President, their seat becomes vacant.