OPSC OCS Answer Key 2025 ( Prelims) with Detailed Explanation

Table of Contents

The Odisha Public Service Commission (OPSC) conducted the Odisha Civil Services (OCS) Preliminary Examination 2025 successfully on 12th October 2025 (Sunday) across multiple centres in Odisha under Advertisement No. 07 of 2024-25 for 200 Group A and Group B vacancies.

After the completion of the exam, StudyIQ has released the unofficial OPSC OCS Answer Key 2025 with detailed explanations for both Paper 1 (General Studies I) and Paper 2 (General Studies II – CSAT).

These answer keys help candidates analyze their performance, verify responses, and estimate their scores before the official OPSC answer key is published.

OPSC OCS Answer Key 2025 ( Prelims) with Detailed Explanation

Match List – I with List – II and select from Code:

List – I (Name) List – II (Activities)

a) Madhusudan Das 1) Leader of Khurda Rebellion
b) Buxi Jagabandhu 2) Founder of Utkal Sammilani
c) Fakir Mohan Senapati 3) Pioneer of Modern Odia literature
d) Krushna Chandra Gajapati 4) Played Key role in Odisha’s separate province formation

Code:

(a) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4

(b) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4

(d) a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Correct matching of prominent Odia leaders with their activities:

Madhusudan Das → Founder of Utkal Sammilani (2): He played a pivotal role in the socio-political unification of Odia-speaking areas and advocated for a separate Odisha province.
Buxi Jagabandhu → Leader of Khurda Rebellion (1): Led the 1817-1818 revolt against the British East India Company in Khurda.
Fakir Mohan Senapati → Pioneer of Modern Odia literature (3): Renowned for his literary works that modernized Odia prose and highlighted social issues.
Krushna Chandra Gajapati → Played key role in Odisha’s separate province formation (4): Instrumental in the creation of Odisha as a separate province in 1936.
Correct answer: (b) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4.

What does NISAR stand for?

(a) NASA-ISRO Space and Aeronautics Research

(b) NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar

(d) NASA International Satellite for Advanced Research

Answer: B

Explanation:

NISAR stands for NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar.

It is a joint Earth observation mission by NASA and ISRO designed to study Earth’s surface changes, including ecosystems, natural hazards, and ice-sheet dynamics.
NISAR uses dual-frequency synthetic aperture radar (L-band and S-band) to provide high-resolution imaging regardless of day/night or weather conditions.
This mission enhances climate research, disaster monitoring, and ecosystem management, marking a significant collaboration between India and the USA.
Correct answer: (b) NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar.

Consider the contributions and challenges of the Services Sector in India:
The Services sector is the largest contributor to India’s GDP and has been the primary driver of economic growth in recent decades.
Despite its large share in GDP, the services sector’s share in total employment is significantly lower than that of agriculture.
The growth in services has often been termed “jobless growth” in the formal sector, leading to a rise in informal service sector’s employment.
Digitalization and the rise of the IT/ITeS sector have further solidified India’s position as a global service hub, but the benefits are not uniformly distributed across the workforce.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) All of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:

All four statements regarding India’s Services Sector are correct.

The services sector contributes the largest share of GDP, over 50%, and has been the main driver of India’s economic growth since the 1990s.
Despite its GDP dominance, employment in services is much lower than in agriculture, showing a structural imbalance.
The phenomenon of “jobless growth” refers to high output growth in formal services (IT, finance, telecommunications) with limited employment generation, while informal services absorb more low-skilled workers.
Digitalization and IT/ITeS expansion have strengthened India’s global service presence, but benefits are unevenly distributed geographically and across skill levels.
Correct answer: (d) All of the above.

Consider the following statements marked as Assertion (a) and Reason (R), and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Assertion (a): In central and southern Odisha, the Proterozoic era is represented by the Eastern Ghats Granulite Belt, which consists of khondalite, charnockite, migmatite, anorthosite and alkaline rocks.

Reason (R): These rock formations are linked to the mineralisation of bauxite, manganese, graphite, and gemstones.

(a) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A

(b) Both A and R are true, but R does not correctly explain A

(d) A is false, but R is true.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but R does not correctly explain A.

The Eastern Ghats Granulite Belt (EGGB) in central and southern Odisha is of Proterozoic age and contains khondalite, charnockite, migmatite, anorthosite, and alkaline rocks, confirming geological complexity.
Rocks in EGGB are linked to mineral deposits like bauxite, manganese, graphite, and gemstones, but this mineralization is a result of secondary geological processes rather than being the defining reason for the presence of the rock types listed.
Correct answer: (b) Both A and R are true, but R does not correctly explain A.

Match List – I with List – II and Select the correct answer while using the Code given below:

List – I (Leader) List – II (Organisation)

a) M. C. Raja 1) All India Depressed Classes League
b) Jagjivan Ram 2) All India Depressed Classes Congress
c) B.R. Ambedkar 3) All India Depressed Classes Association
d) Mahatma Gandhi 4) All India Harijan Sangh

Code:

(a) 3 2 4 1

(b) 3 1 2 4

(d) 4 2 1 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Correct matching of leaders with their respective Dalit/Harijan organizations:

M. C. Raja → All India Depressed Classes Association (3)
Jagjivan Ram → All India Depressed Classes League (1)
B.R. Ambedkar → All India Depressed Classes Congress (2)
Mahatma Gandhi → All India Harijan Sangh (4)
These organizations aimed at upliftment of marginalized communities through political mobilization, social reform, and advocacy.
Correct answer: (b) 3 1 2 4.

The Ganjam Plates of Madhav Raja II of the Shailodhbhava dynasty provide valuable information about which aspect of early Medieval Odisha’s history?

(a) The generalogy and territorial extent of the Shailodhbhava rulers.

(b) The maritime trade networks of the Shailodhbhavas with South east Asia

(d) The diplomatic relations between the Shailodhbhavas and the Gupta Empire

Answer: A

Explanation:

The Ganjam Plates of Madhav Raja II of the Shailodhbhava dynasty provide crucial evidence regarding the genealogy, administrative structure, and territorial extent of the dynasty in early medieval Odisha.

These copper plates, discovered in the Ganjam region, mention the rulers’ lineage, confirming their dominion over parts of coastal and interior Odisha.
They highlight the political organization, royal titles, and religious affiliations of the Shailodhbhavas, who were patrons of Shaivism.
The plates thus serve as an important epigraphic source for reconstructing the early medieval history of Odisha.
Correct answer: (a) The genealogy and territorial extent of the Shailodhbhava rulers.

Which of the following statements about the Asia Cup cricket tournament is NOT correct?

1) The Asia Cup is a cricket tournament played among the Asian group of nations.

2) The Asia Cup is organised by the Asian Cricket Council.

3) The Asia Cup was first held in the year 1984.

4) The first Asia Cup cricket tournament was played in Colombo, Sri Lanka.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 4 only

Answer: D

Explanation:

The Asia Cup is indeed a cricket tournament played among Asian nations, organized by the Asian Cricket Council (ACC).

It was first held in 1984, but the inaugural tournament was played in Sharjah, UAE, not Colombo, Sri Lanka.
The UAE hosted it as the headquarters of the Asian Cricket Council were based there.
The Asia Cup alternates between ODI and T20 formats, depending on the upcoming ICC events.
Thus, the statement “The first Asia Cup was played in Colombo, Sri Lanka” is incorrect.
Correct answer: (d) 4 only.

Match List – I (Sub divisions of Himalayas) with List – II (Characteristics) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (sub divisions of Himalayas) List-II (characteristics)

(a) Trans-Himalaya 1. Known for hill stations like Shimla, Mussoorie

(b) Greater Himalaya 2. Composed of unconsolidated sediments forming foothills

(d) Siwaliks 4. Contain Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga

Codes:

(a) 1 4 2 3

(b) 3 2 1 4

(d) 3 4 1 2

Answer: D

Explanation:

(a) Trans-Himalaya – includes Karakoram, Ladakh, and Zaskar ranges (3).
(b) Greater Himalaya – contains Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga, the world’s highest peaks (4).
(c) Lesser Himalaya – known for hill stations like Shimla, Mussoorie, formed by metamorphic rocks (1).
(d) Siwaliks – consist of unconsolidated sediments, forming the foothills of the Himalayas (2).

The correct sequence is: a–3, b–4, c–1, d–2.
Correct answer: (d) 3 4 1 2.

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Rajya Sabha?

It is a permanent body and cannot be dissolved.
One-third of its members retire every two years.
The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
It can be dissolved by the President during a National Emergency.

Options:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2, and 3 about the Rajya Sabha are correct.

The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body; it cannot be dissolved like the Lok Sabha.
However, one-third of its members retire every two years, ensuring continuity in functioning.
The Vice President of India serves as the ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha and presides over its sessions.
The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved even during a National Emergency; hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
Correct answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3 only

Who fought the Battle of Talikota?
(a) Harihara I
(b) Devaraya II
(c) Krishna Deva Raya
(d) Rama Raya

Answer: D

Explanation:

The Battle of Talikota (1565) was fought between the Vijayanagara Empire, led by Rama Raya, and the combined forces of the Deccan Sultanates—Ahmadnagar, Bijapur, Golconda, Bidar, and Berar.

The battle resulted in the defeat of the Vijayanagara Empire and the destruction of Hampi, marking the decline of the empire.
This battle is one of the most decisive in South Indian history.
Correct answer: (d) Rama Raya.

The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) functions under:
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Cabinet Secretariat
(d) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)

Answer: B

Explanation:

The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).

NDMA was established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005 to formulate policies, plans, and guidelines for disaster management.
The Prime Minister serves as the Chairperson of NDMA.
The authority coordinates responses, mitigation, and capacity-building measures across states.
Correct answer: (b) Ministry of Home Affairs.

India’s first OECM (Other Effective area-based Conservation Measure) recognition was awarded for which reason?
(a) Ex-situ conservation of orchids
(b) Sacred groves with endemic fauna
(c) Biodiversity management in community forests
(d) Coral reef mapping

Answer: C

Explanation:

India’s first OECM (Other Effective area-based Conservation Measure) recognition was granted for biodiversity management in community forest.

OECMs are areas that achieve effective conservation of biodiversity outside officially designated protected areas like national parks or sanctuaries.
India’s first OECM site was Arunachal Pradesh’s community-managed forests, recognized for local conservation efforts and sustainable resource use.
This recognition promotes the role of local and indigenous communities in biodiversity protection.
It supports the global target under the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (30×30 target).
Correct answer: (c) Biodiversity management in community forests.

Who commissioned the construction of the rock-cut Jain Monasteries on Udayagiri Hills?
(a) Ashoka
(b) Chandra Gupta Maurya
(c) Kharavela
(d) Bindusara

Answer: C

Explanation:

The rock-cut Jain Monasteries at Udayagiri Hills in Odisha were commissioned by King Kharavela of the Chedi dynasty in the 1st century BCE.

Kharavela, known from the Hathigumpha inscription, was a patron of Jainism and promoted religious tolerance.
The Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves were excavated as dwellings for Jain monks.
The inscriptions depict Kharavela’s achievements, architecture, and the cultural glory of ancient Kalinga.
These caves are significant for studying early Indian rock-cut architecture and Jain art.
Correct answer: (c) Kharavela.

Which of the following statements about Tropical Evergreen Forests in India are NOT correct?

They are confined only to the Eastern Ghats of India
The trees shed their leaves simultaneously during the dry summer season.
They are found in regions receiving rainfall above 200 cm.
Ebony, mahogany, and rosewood are common species.
(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

Answer: B

Explanation:

India’s first OECM (Other Effective area-based Conservation Measure) recognition was granted for biodiversity management in community forests.

OECMs are areas that achieve effective conservation of biodiversity outside officially designated protected areas like national parks or sanctuaries.
India’s first OECM site was Arunachal Pradesh’s community-managed forests, recognized for local conservation efforts and sustainable resource use.
This recognition promotes the role of local and indigenous communities in biodiversity protection.
It supports the global target under the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (30×30 target).
Correct answer: (c) Biodiversity management in community forests.

What is the Surya Heliophysics Foundation Model?
(a) A planetary rover
(b) An AI model to forecast solar activity
(c) An Earth observation satellite
(d) A spacecraft

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Surya Heliophysics Foundation Model is an AI-based predictive model developed to forecast solar activity.

It aims to understand and predict solar phenomena such as sunspots, solar flares, and coronal mass ejections.
These solar events can affect satellite communications, GPS systems, and power grids on Earth.
The model uses advanced machine learning algorithms trained on solar observational data.
It helps improve space weather forecasting and protect technological infrastructure from solar disturbances.

Arrange the religious institutions established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in chronological order:
a) Unitarian Committee
b) Vedanta College
c) Atmiya Sabha
d) Brahmo Samaj
(a) d, a, b, c
(b) c, a, b, d
(c) b, d, c, a
(d) a, c, b, d

Answer: B

Explanation:

The institutions established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in chronological order are:

Atmiya Sabha (1815) – A discussion circle promoting monotheism and social reforms.
Unitarian Committee (1821) – Established in collaboration with English reformers to promote rational religious thought.
Vedanta College (1825) – Set up to combine Western and Indian philosophy in education.
Brahmo Samaj (1828) – A socio-religious reform movement advocating monotheism, against idolatry and casteism.
Correct chronological order: (c, a, b, d)
Correct answer: (b) c, a, b, d.

Consider the following statements concerning India’s Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):

India’s MPI uses health, education and standard of living as dimensions, aligning with the global MPI methodology.
The MPI is published by NITI Aayog using data primarily from the National Family Health Survey (NFHS).
The Global MPI is released annually by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
India’s MPI includes indicators such as nutrition, school attendance and access to clean cooking fuel, among others.

Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:

India’s Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) assesses poverty based on multiple deprivations rather than income alone.
It includes three dimensions: health, education, and standard of living — in line with the global MPI.
Published by NITI Aayog, the index uses data from the National Family Health Survey (NFHS).
The Global MPI is jointly released by UNDP and Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
Indicators cover nutrition, years of schooling, child mortality, sanitation, electricity, and clean cooking fuel access.
Correct answer: (d) All of the above.

The “One Health” approach in public policy refers to:
(a) Integrating traditional and modern health systems
(b) Linking human, animal and environmental health to prevent pandemics
(c) Making public and private hospitals work jointly
(d) Telemedicine expansion to rural areas

Answer: B

Explanation:

The “One Health” approach recognizes the interconnection between human, animal, and environmental health.
It promotes collaborative efforts across sectors like veterinary science, public health, and environmental management.
It aims to prevent and control zoonotic diseases (like COVID-19, avian flu, rabies) thatcan spread between animals and humans.
The approach supports global health security by addressing antimicrobial resistance and food safety issues.
It encourages integrated surveillance systems to monitor health risks across species.
Correct answer: (b) Linking human, animal and environmental health to prevent pandemics.

Which of the following statements about the Odisha Integrated Irrigation Project for Climate Resilient Agriculture (OIIPCRA) is NOT correct?

OIIPCRA is jointly funded by the Government of Odisha and the World Bank.
The project aims to improve irrigation infrastructure and promote climate-resilient farming practices in selected districts.
It primarily focuses on large-scale dam construction to increase irrigation potential in coastal Odisha.
The project supports farmer training, capacity building and the introduction of climate-smart agricultural technologies.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 4 only

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Odisha Integrated Irrigation Project for Climate Resilient Agriculture (OIIPCRA) is co-funded by the Government of Odisha and the World Bank.
The project’s objective is to enhance climate resilience through improved water management and agricultural productivity.
It covers several districts, focusing on small-scale irrigation, watershed development, and capacity building of farmers.
It does not focus on large-scale dam construction; instead, it emphasizes micro-irrigation and community-based water management.
It promotes climate-smart technologies like soil moisture conservation and crop diversification.
Correct answer: (c) 3 only.

Who is the author of the book “Baidehisha Bilasa”?
(a) Hari Charan Deva
(b) Sisu Sankar Das
(c) Upendra Bhanja
(d) Harihar Kabi

Answer: C

Explanation:

The book “Baidehisha Bilasa” is one of the masterpieces of Odia literature written by Upendra Bhanja.
It is a classical poetic work known for its ornate style and rich use of metaphors and similes.
Upendra Bhanja, known as Kavi Samrat, was a celebrated poet of medieval Odisha.
The poem is based on the story of Sita’s exile, drawing from the Ramayana.
His other works include Labanyabati and Rasalila.
Correct answer: (c) Upendra Bhanja.

Which of the following statements about Biosphere Reserves in India are NOT correct?

Great Nicobar is one of the designated biosphere reserves.
Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is spread over Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
There are no biosphere reserves in the Himalayan region.
Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only

Answer: a

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve is a designated biosphere reserve located on the Great Nicobar Island, which is part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Statement 2 is correct. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is India’s first biosphere reserve and is spread across the states of Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
Statement 4 is correct. The Sundarbans National Park, which forms the core area of the Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve, was recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1987. The entire Sundarban Biosphere Reserve was later recognized by UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme in 2001.
The incorrect statement is 3. There are no biosphere reserves in the Himalayan region.

The Mission Karmayogi launched by the Government of India is aimed at:
(a) Skill development for unemployed youth
(b) Capacity building and competency development of civil servants
(c) Leadership training for Panchayati Raj officials
(d) Military training for disaster response

Answer: b

Explanation

Official Name: Mission Karmayogi is formally known as the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB).
Primary Objective: Launched by the Union Cabinet in 2020, its central goal is to create a future-ready civil service with the right attitude, skills, and knowledge for New India.
Focus: It shifts the human resource management approach from a “rules-based” system to a “roles-based” one, matching civil servants’ competencies to the requirements of their posts.
Digital Platform: The mission uses a comprehensive digital learning platform called iGOT-Karmayogi to provide training modules and resources to civil servants across the country.
Outcomes: By focusing on behavioral, functional, and domain-specific competencies, Mission Karmayogi aims to enhance public service delivery and improve citizen interaction with the government.

In India, the ‘Threatened Species Recovery Programme’ under NBAP targets species that are:
(a) Locally extinct but globally common
(b) Keystone species across agro-ecological zones
(c) Species with narrow geographic range and declining population
(d) Genetically engineered but endangered

Answer: c

Explanation:

The correct answer is that the Threatened Species Recovery Programme under the National Biodiversity Action Plan (NBAP) targets species with a narrow geographic range and declining population.

The program, initiated in 2008-09 under the Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats (IDWH) scheme, focuses on conserving critically endangered species and their habitats. These species often have limited ranges and are experiencing significant population declines. Examples include the Hangul, Snow Leopard, and Jerdon’s Courser.

Here is an analysis of why the other options are incorrect:

(a) Locally extinct but globally common: This does not describe the target species. The program specifically focuses on critically endangered species, which by definition are at extremely high risk of global extinction.
(b) Keystone species across agro-ecological zones: While some keystone species may be included, the program is not limited to them. The focus is on critically endangered status, not necessarily a species’ disproportionate impact on its ecosystem. The program includes both keystone species like the Asiatic Lion and others like the Edible Nest Swiftlet.
(d) Genetically engineered but endangered: The program deals with naturally occurring wildlife and does not target genetically engineered species. The core focus is on conserving natural, critically endangered species

Which Mughal Emperor appointed the first separate Subahdar of Odisha, and in which year did Odisha become a separate Subah?
(a) Akbar, 1593
(b) Aurangzeb, 1658
(c) Shahjahan, 1628
(d) Jahangir, 1607

Answer: d

Solution:

Initially, under Emperor Akbar’s reign, Odisha was conquered and became part of the Bengal Subah by 1593.
However, Akbar’s successor, Jahangir (1605-1627), decided to establish Odisha as an independent Subah with its own governor, or Subahdar.
This separation occurred in 1607.
The first Subahdar appointed to Odisha was Hashim Khan, who served from 1607 to 1611

Match these summits to their host cities:
(List – I) Organizations (List – II) Locations
a) G7 (2025) 1) Kananaskis
b) NATO (2025) 2) The Hague
c) SCO (2024) 3) Islamabad
d) G20 Summit (2025) 4) Johannesburg
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) a-1 b-2 c-3 d-4
(b) a-2 b-3 c-4 d-1
(c) a-1 b-3 c-4 d-2
(d) a-3 b-2 c-1 d-4

Answer: a

Solution

G7 (2025)

Location: Kananaskis, Alberta, Canada.
Dates: June 15–17, 2025.
Host: Canadian Prime Minister Mark Carney.
Note: This was Canada’s turn to hold the G7 Presidency.

NATO (2025)

Location: The Hague, Netherlands.
Dates: June 24–25, 2025.
Host: The Netherlands hosted the alliance’s annual summit for the first time.

SCO (2024)

Location: Islamabad, Pakistan.
Dates: October 15–16, 2024.
Host: Pakistan, under Prime Minister Shehbaz Sharif, hosted the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Council of Heads of Government (CHG) meeting.

G20 Summit (2025)

Location: Johannesburg, South Africa.
Dates: November 22–23, 2025.
Host: South Africa holds the G20 Presidency from December 1, 2024, to November 30, 2025

The El Nino phenomenon is associated with:
(a) Weakening of monsoon in India
(b) Strengthening of monsoon in India
(c) No effect on the monsoon in India
(d) Only winter rains in India

Answer: a

Explanation

El Niño refers to the unusual warming of sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean.
This warming disrupts global atmospheric circulation patterns, including the trade winds that influence the Indian monsoon.
Typically, El Niño causes a weakening of the monsoon winds, which leads to reduced rainfall and drier conditions in many parts of India during the southwest monsoon season.
Historically, a significant number of drought years in India have coincided with El Niño events.

However, it’s important to note that the relationship is complex, and other factors, such as the Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD), can influence the severity of El Niño’s impact. A positive IOD, for instance, can sometimes help offset the negative effects of El Niño, potentially leading to normal or even above-normal rainfall in some regions despite the presence of El Niño.

Which country did India defeat in both men’s and women’s Kho Kho World Cup 2025 finals?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Nepal
(d) Pakistan

Answer: c

Solution:

India defeated Nepal in both the men’s and women’s Kho Kho World Cup 2025 finals. India won the men’s final with a score of 54-36 and the women’s final with a score of 78-40 against Nepal.
The 2025 Kho Kho World Cup was the first edition of the tournament and was held in New Delhi, India. India’s men’s and women’s teams emerged as the champions of the inaugural event

Match the following:
List – I (Authors) List – II (Books)

A L Basham a) India as a secular state
Donald E Smith b) The wonder that was India
Rudolph & Rudolph c) Government and politics of India
WH Morris Jones d) In pursuit of Lakshmi
Choose the Correct Codes:
(a) b a d c
(b) a c b d
(c) d b a c
(d) d c b a

Answer: a

Solution:

The correct matching of authors to their books is:

A L Basham: b) The wonder that was India
Donald E Smith: a) India as a secular state
Rudolph & Rudolph: d) In pursuit of Lakshmi
WH Morris Jones: c) Government and politics of India

The 15th Finance Commission recommended a health grant architecture focusing on:
(a) Health cess consolidation into GST
(b) States’ debt takeover by Centre
(c) Universal health premium
(d) Urban/rural health infrastructure and primary health care strengthening

Answer: d

Explanation

The 15th Finance Commission made specific recommendations for health grants totaling ₹70,051 crore for local governments for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26.
These grants were designed to strengthen health systems, particularly at the primary healthcare level, addressing critical gaps in both rural and urban areas.
Key interventions targeted by the grants include:
- Support for diagnostic infrastructure at primary healthcare facilities in rural and urban areas.
- Construction of buildings for Sub-Centres (converting them into Health & Wellness Centres), Primary Health Centres (PHCs), and Community Health Centres (CHCs) in rural areas.
- Conversion of rural PHCs and Sub-Centres into Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs).
- Establishment of Block Public Health Units (BPHUs) in rural areas.
- Establishment of Urban Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs).
The grants also support strengthening local governments and Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in delivering primary healthcare services.
The Commission suggested that states should allocate over 8% of their budgets to health by 2022, with two-thirds of the total health expenditure focusing on primary healthcare.
It also emphasized flexibility in centrally sponsored health schemes, suggesting they focus on outcomes rather than inputs, and recommended establishing an All India Medical and Health Service

The Chola navy was known for its expedition against:
(a) Cambodia and Laos
(b) Vietnam
(c) Indonesia and Sri Lanka
(d) Maldives

Answer: C

Solution:

Expeditions against the Srivijaya Empire (modern Indonesia): In 1025 CE, Rajendra I launched a major naval campaign against the Srivijaya Empire, which controlled the crucial Malacca Strait. The Chola fleet captured and sacked several key ports and cities in Sumatra and the Malay Peninsula, including Kadaram (present-day Kedah in Malaysia). This was done to secure and protect Chola trade routes to China.
Conquest of Sri Lanka: Rajaraja I initiated the conquest of Sri Lanka, and his son Rajendra I completed it. The Chola navy played a crucial role in transporting troops to the island and capturing the northern and eventually southern parts of the Sinhalese kingdom.

The PM Gati Shakti – National Logistics Policy targets:
(a) Achieving net-zero carbon emissions in urban transport
(b) Integrating road, rail, port, and airport infrastructure for faster goods movement
(c) Promoting bullet train corridors
(d) Increasing domestic shipbuilding industry

Answer: b

Explanation

The PM Gati Shakti initiative, also known as the National Master Plan for Multi-modal Connectivity, was launched to create a comprehensive and integrated infrastructure development framework.
Its primary objective is to break down silos between government departments and promote coordinated planning and synchronized implementation of projects related to roads, railways, ports, airports, and waterways.
This integration aims to enhance logistics efficiency, reduce transportation costs, and improve the speed of goods and services movement across the country. The policy’s vision is to make India a global manufacturing hub and reduce logistics costs from a high percentage of GDP to global benchmarks

What differentiates India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) from the NAPCC?
(a) It targets only renewable energy
(b) It provides sector-specific deep decarbonization roadmaps
(c) It replaces all earlier missions
(d) It excludes forestry

Answer: b

Comparison of LT-LEDS and NAPCC

Feature	Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS)	National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)
Year Launched	2022	2008
Scope	A comprehensive and long-term strategy outlining pathways towards India’s 2070 net-zero target. It is formulated under the Paris Agreement.	A framework of eight key missions covering various aspects of climate change adaptation and mitigation.
Approach	Provides specific, detailed roadmaps for deep decarbonization across different sectors, such as electricity, transport, industry, and urban planning.	Offers broader guidance through eight missions, such as the National Solar Mission and the Green India Mission, with less specific decarbonization pathways.
Focus	Primarily focuses on achieving India’s net-zero target by 2070 and addresses the decarbonization of hard-to-abate sectors like steel and cement.	Focuses more on energy efficiency, renewable energy promotion, and conservation efforts, without specific deep decarbonization pathways.
Implementation	Serves as a “living document” that guides strategic, long-term policy-making towards net-zero.	Initiated a set of specific missions that led to programs and achievements in renewable energy and efficiency.

Mustard Gas is:
(a) Uranium hexafluoride
(b) Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane
(c) 2,2′-dichlorodiethylsulfide
(d) Diethylsulphoxide

Answer: C

Explanation

Mustard gas, also known as sulfur mustard, is a chemical weapon. Its chemical name is bis(2-chloroethyl) sulfide or 2,2′-dichlorodiethylsulfide.
The chemical formula is C₄H₈Cl₂S, which corresponds to the structure of 2,2′-dichlorodiethylsulfide.

Read the following statements and choose the correct alternative in respect of settlement geography of the world

Statement-1: In humid tropical regions, rural settlements often take the form of compact villages.

Statement-2: Isolated farmsteads are more common in the densely populated rice-growing regions of Asia.

Statement-3: Physical barriers like mountains and deserts can lead to clustered settlements in limited habitable pockets.

Statement-4: Settlement morphology is linked to agricultural systems and land ownership patterns.

(a) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct, and Statement 4 is incorrect.

(b) Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct, and Statement 2 is incorrect.

(d) Statement 3 is correct, and Statements 1, 2 and 4 are incorrect.

Answer: b

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Compact settlements are often found in humid tropical regions, especially in fertile alluvial plains and river valleys, due to factors like the need for security, social cohesion, or the availability of a centralized water source.
Statement 3 is correct. Physical barriers such as mountains, deserts, and forests limit the amount of habitable land. This forces people to settle in favorable, often small, pockets, leading to clustered or compact settlement patterns.
Statement 4 is correct. The morphology, or physical layout, of a settlement is strongly influenced by the type of agriculture practiced and the patterns of land ownership. For example, large landholdings might lead to more dispersed settlements, while small, fragmented holdings can lead to clustered ones

The basic foundation of global economic governance in the post-second World War was laid by various institutional frameworks. Which of the following combinations is correct?
a) IMF, World Bank, GATT
b) IMF, World Bank, Asian Development Bank
c) World Bank, GATT, BRICS
d) Asian Development Bank, IMF, IBRD

Options:

(a) a and b

(b) a, b and c

(d) a, b, c and d

Answer: a

Correct Statements

Statement a) IMF, World Bank, GATT is correct because these three institutions were central to the post-WWII international economic order. The IMF and the World Bank were created at the 1944 Bretton Woods Conference, and the GATT was established shortly after in 1947 to regulate international trade.

Incorrect Statements

Statement b) IMF, World Bank, Asian Development Bank is incorrect. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) was founded in 1966, more than two decades after the initial post-war institutional setup.
Statement c) World Bank, GATT, BRICS is incorrect. BRICS is a contemporary political and economic bloc that was formed in 2009 and is not part of the original post-war institutional frameworks.
Statement d) Asian Development Bank, IMF, IBRD is incorrect. This statement includes the Asian Development Bank (ADB), which was not a post-WWII institution. The IBRD (International Bank for Reconstruction and Development) is the original name of the World Bank, so while it is a correct post-WWII institution, its combination with the ADB makes the statement incorrect as a whole

With respect to inflation in the Indian context, consider the following statements:
Retail inflation, measured by the Consumer Price Index (CPI), is the primary metric used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for monetary policy formulation.
Core inflation includes volatile components like food and fuel prices, providing a more stable measure of underlying inflationary pressures.
Supply-side factors, such as monsoons affecting agricultural output and global crude oil prices, play a significant role in India’s inflation dynamics.
Headline inflation refers to the total inflation in an economy, including volatile components such as food and energy prices.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) All of the above

Answer: b

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) adopted the Consumer Price Index (CPI) as its primary measure for inflation targeting and monetary policy formulation in 2014, based on the recommendations of the Urjit R. Patel Committee.
Statement 3 is correct. Inflation in India is significantly influenced by supply-side factors. These include monsoons affecting agricultural output and global crude oil prices, which can lead to volatility in food and fuel prices, respectively.
Statement 4 is correct. Headline inflation is the total inflation figure for an economy. It is measured by an index that includes all components, such as the volatile prices of food and energy.

Why other options are incorrect

The incorrect statement is 2. Core inflation includes volatile components like food and fuel prices, providing a more stable measure of underlying inflationary pressures.

This statement is factually incorrect because core inflation, by definition, excludes the volatile components of food and fuel prices. Its purpose is to provide a more stable measure of underlying inflationary trends by filtering out short-term price shocks.

A Committee was constituted to formulate fundamental duties after the emergency in 1976. It was headed by which of the following personalities?

(a) VC Shukla

(b) DK Barooah

(d) Sanjeeva Reddy

Answer: c

Solution:

The committee constituted to formulate fundamental duties after the emergency in 1976 was headed by (c) Sardar Swaran Singh.

Key facts about the Swaran Singh Committee

Background: During the internal emergency (1975–1977), the Congress Party, under Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, established the committee to recommend amendments to the Constitution.
Recommendations: The committee recommended incorporating a separate chapter on fundamental duties to remind citizens of their responsibilities to the nation.
Implementation: Based on the committee’s recommendations, the government enacted the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, which added Part IV-A to the Constitution, containing ten Fundamental Duties.

Wave like character of an electron is proved by:

(a) The ionization of an atom

(b) The flow of electrons in a metal wire

(d) The diffraction pattern of electrons scattered from a crystalline solid

Answer: d

Explanation

The wave-like character of an electron is a core concept of wave-particle duality, first theorized by Louis de Broglie.
The first experimental proof of this theory was the Davisson-Germer experiment in 1927.
In this experiment, a beam of electrons was directed at a nickel crystal. The scattered electrons formed a diffraction pattern on a screen, which is a phenomenon characteristic of waves.
The existence of this diffraction pattern, which is similar to how X-rays are diffracted by crystals, provided conclusive evidence that electrons behave as waves under certain conditions.

Match List-I with List II and choose the correct answer from the Code given below:

List – I (Nationalist Women)

a) Sarojini Naidu
b) Usha Mehta
c) Aruna Asaf Ali
d) Dr. Lakshmi Swaminathan

List – II (Their Activities)

1) A leader of the underground movement

2) Joined Azad Hind Fauz

3) Led the Salt Satyagraha in Dharsana

4) Operated Secret radio during Quit India movement

Code:

(a) 4 2 3 1

(b) 3 4 1 2

(d) 3 2 4 1

Answer: b

Solution:

Here is the correct matching:

a) Sarojini Naidu → 3) Led the Salt Satyagraha in Dharsana. Following Mahatma Gandhi’s arrest during the Salt Satyagraha in 1930, Sarojini Naidu took over the leadership of the movement and led the raid on the Dharsana Salt Works in Gujarat.
b) Usha Mehta → 4) Operated Secret radio during Quit India movement. Usha Mehta is renowned for establishing and running the “Congress Radio,” an underground radio station that broadcasted messages during the Quit India Movement of 1942.
c) Aruna Asaf Ali → 1) A leader of the underground movement. Aruna Asaf Ali was a prominent leader during the Quit India Movement, famously hoisting the tricolor flag at the Gowalia Tank Maidan. She subsequently went underground to evade arrest and led clandestine activities.
d) Dr. Lakshmi Swaminathan → 2) Joined Azad Hind Fauz. Dr. Lakshmi Swaminathan, popularly known as Captain Lakshmi, was a medical doctor who joined Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose’s Indian National Army (INA) and became a prominent figure in the all-women Rani of Jhansi Regiment.

The 2025 Cambodia – Thailand border conflict was primarily triggered by:

(a) Disputes on Oil and gas resources in the Gulf of Thailand.

(b) Historical disputes over Preah Vihear Temple and the surrounding territory.

(d) Trade War.

Answer: B

Explanation:

The term seamless web with reference to the interconnectedness of different parts of Indian Constitution was used by which of the following authors?

(a) Granville Austin

(b) K.C. Wheare

(d) A.V. Dicey

Answer: A

Explanation:

The phrase “seamless web” describing the interconnectedness of the Indian Constitution was used by Granville Austin, an eminent scholar of Indian constitutional history, to highlight how various provisions, fundamental rights, and directive principles are interrelated to form a coherent legal and governance framework.

Correct answer: (a) Granville Austin.

Which of the following combinations are correct with regarding the social welfare policies and the year in which it was introduced.

(a) PM POSHAN : 2021

(b) Right to Education : 2009

(d) PM Awaas Yojana : 2015

Options:

(a) a, b, c and d

(b) c, a, d and b

(d) d, c, a and b

Answer: A

Explanation:

M POSHAN (formerly Mid-Day Meal Scheme) – updated as PM POSHAN in 2021.
Right to Education (RTE) Act – enacted in 2009 providing free and compulsory education to children aged 6–14 years.
Ayushman Bharat – launched in 2018, providing health insurance coverage and promoting health and wellness centers.
Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana (PMAY) – launched in 2015 to provide affordable housing to the urban and rural poor.
Correct answer: (a) a, b, c and d.

With reference to the challenges of urbanization in India, consider the following statements:
Rapid urbanization often leads to strain on existing infrastructure such as housing, sanitation, water supply, and transportation.
The growth of informal settlements (slums) is a common consequence of unplanned urbanization due to unaffordable formal housing.
Urban areas typically experience higher rates of unemployment compared to rural areas, leading to increased pressure on social services.
Smart Cities Mission aims to promote sustainable and inclusive cities by applying “smart” solutions and leveraging technology.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C

Explanation:

Rapid urbanization in India creates multiple challenges:

Strain on infrastructure such as housing, sanitation, water supply, and transport due to increasing population density.
Growth of informal settlements or slums arises from unaffordable formal housing and unplanned urban expansion.
Urban areas generally have better employment opportunities than rural areas; higher unemployment in cities is not typical, so statement 3 is incorrect.
Smart Cities Mission addresses urban challenges by promoting sustainable, inclusive, and technology-driven solutions.
Correct answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only.

Who was the founder of the Lingayat sect?

(a) Appar

(b) Basava

(d) Abhinava

Answer: B

Explanation:

Lingayat sect:

Founded by Basava, a 12th-century social reformer and philosopher in Karnataka.
Advocated monotheism, social equality, and rejection of caste hierarchy.
Correct answer: (b) Basava.

Tarkunde Report is related to which of the following?

(a) Electoral Reforms

(b) Centre State Relations

(d) Educational Reforms

Answer: A

Explanation:

Related to Electoral Reforms in India.
It provided recommendations to strengthen electoral processes, transparency, and reduce malpractices.
Correct answer: (a) Electoral Reforms.

The CAMPA funds are prioritized for activities that involve:

(a) Mining clearance proposals

(b) Community-managed wind farms

(d) River-interlinking project evaluations

Answer: C

Explanation:

CAMPA funds are intended for environmental and forest-related activities, specifically for compensatory afforestation, eco-restoration, and forest management projects. Mining or infrastructure projects are not the primary focus.

The Dyarchical system of government was introduced by which of the following measures?

(a) Government of India Act, 1909

(b) Government of India Resolution 1918

(d) Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: c

Explanation:

Dyarchical system introduced under the Government of India Act, 1919:

It divided provincial subjects into “Transferred” (handled by Indian ministers) and “Reserved” (handled by British governors).
This was a key step toward limited self-governance in provinces.

Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar:

(a) Glucose

(b) Maltose

(d) Fructose

Answer: C

Explanation:

Sucrose does not have a free aldehyde or ketone group, so it cannot reduce Fehling’s or Benedict’s solution.
Glucose, maltose, and fructose are reducing sugars.
Correct answer: (c) Sucrose.

Which of the following statements about World Cultural Realms are NOT correct?
Occidental Realm: Includes Western Europe, North America, Australia, and New Zealand; shares Greco-Roman heritage, Christianity and industrial development.
Indie Realm: Centered in India; shaped by Hinduism, Buddhism and related cultural traditions.
Islamic Realm: Restricted solely to the Arabian Peninsula, excluding North Africa and Southeast Asia.
Sino-Japanese Realm: Comprises China, Japan, Korea, and Vietnam; influenced by Confucianism, Buddhism, and Taoism.
Sub-Saharan African Realm: Unified by Bantu linguistic roots and indigenous beliefs, with significant Islamic and Christian presence.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 5

Answer: C

Explanation:

Islamic Realm statement is incorrect because it is not restricted to the Arabian Peninsula; it also includes North Africa, West Asia, and parts of Southeast Asia.

Other realms’ descriptions are correct.

Which of the following statements about the CM-KISAN scheme of Odisha are NOT correct?
Livelihood support under the scheme is provided exclusively to large landholding farmers.
Input support is given to farmers for cultivation.
Krishi Vidya Nidhi Yojana under CM-KISAN aims to promote agricultural education among farmers’ children.
The scheme is designed to be progressive and inclusive in nature.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Answer: A

Explanation:

Incorrect statement: Livelihood support is not exclusive to large landholding farmers; the scheme is progressive and inclusive.

Input support, agricultural education promotion, and inclusivity are correct features.

Arrange the following committees in a chronological order:
a) N.N. Vohra Committee
b) Rajinder Sachar Committee
c) D.S. Kothari Committee
d) Raja. J. Chelliah Committee

Choose the correct answer:

(a) a, b, c and d

(b) c, d, a and b

(d) a, c, b and d

Answer: B

Explanation:

D.S. Kothari Committee – Education reforms (1964)
Raja J. Chelliah Committee – Tax reforms (1991)
N.N. Vohra Committee – Governance issues (2000s)
Rajinder Sachar Committee – Socio-economic conditions of minorities (2005)
Correct chronological order: c, d, a, b

Which of the followings is not a dye:

(a) Alizarin

(b) Fluorescein

(d) Anthranilic acid

Answer: D

Explanation:

Alizarin is a natural dye derived from madder roots.
Fluorescein is a synthetic dye used in textiles and biological staining.
Phenolphthalein acts as a pH indicator (also a dye in some contexts).
Anthranilic acid is an aromatic amine used in synthesis of dyes but is not itself a dye.
Correct answer: (d) Anthranilic acid.

Consider the following statements regarding the Odisha Industrial Infrastructure Development Corporation (IDCO):
IDCO was established as a statutory corporation by the Government of Odisha in 1981.
It serves as the nodal agency for providing industrial infrastructure and land for industrial and infrastructure projects across the state.
The corporation’s objectives include the development of industrial estates, IT parks and other industrial complexes.
IDCO’s functions do not include land acquisition or the creation of a land bank for major and mega projects.
The corporation facilitates private-sector participation and provides project construction services.

Which of the statements given above is NOT correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 4 only

(d) 3 and 5 only

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statements regarding Odisha Industrial Infrastructure Development Corporation (IDCO):

True: Established in 1981 as a statutory corporation.
True: Serves as nodal agency for industrial infrastructure and land.
True: Objectives include developing industrial estates, IT parks, and industrial complexes.
False: IDCO does include land acquisition and creating a land bank for major and mega projects.
True: Facilitates private-sector participation and provides project construction services.
Incorrect statement: 4 only
Correct answer: (b) 4 only.

Consider the following statements with regard to the Comptroller Auditor General.
a) The office of CAG has been modelled on the basis of Advocate General under the Government of India Act, 1919.
b) CAG is the impartial head of the audit and account system of India.
c) CAG can be removed by the President on the grounds of ‘proven misbehaviour’.
d) The term of office of CAG shall be six years from the date on which he assumes office.

Choose the correct answer:

(a) a and b

(b) a and c

(d) a, b, c and d

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statements regarding Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:

True: CAG is the impartial head of audit and accounts of India.
False: CAG cannot be removed by the President on mere grounds of misbehaviour; removal is on the same grounds as a Supreme Court judge.
False: Term of office is 6 years or up to age 65, whichever is earlier, not strictly 6 years.
False: The office is modeled on the Auditor General under the Government of India Act, 1935, not 1919.
Correct combination of true statements: b and d
Correct answer: (c) b and d.

Under which Mughal Emperor was the office of Muhtasib (Censor of Public Morals) instituted in Odisha?

(a) Shahjahan

(b) Aurangzeb

(d) Humayun

Answer: B

Explanation:

The office of Muhtasib (Censor of Public Morals) was instituted in Odisha under Aurangzeb.
The Muhtasib was responsible for regulating market practices, morals, and public conduct, ensuring compliance with Islamic law.
Aurangzeb’s reign emphasized religious orthodoxy and moral policing, which included monitoring commerce, hygiene, and public morality in Mughal provinces, including Odisha.
Correct answer: (b) Aurangzeb.

Who was the first Leader to Move a resolution in the Central Legislative Assembly demanding the Unification of all Odia speaking tracts into a separate province?

(a) Madhusudan Das

(b) Gopa bandhu Das

(d) Nil Kantha Das

Answer: A

Explanation:

The first leader to move a resolution in the Central Legislative Assembly demanding the unification of all Odia-speaking tracts into a separate province was Madhusudan Das.
He is famously known as the “Utkal Gourab” for championing Odisha’s statehood.
His efforts laid the foundation for the Odisha Province formation in 1936 by unifying Odia-speaking regions spread across Bihar, Bengal, and Madras Presidencies.
Correct answer: (a) Madhusudan Das.

Consider the following statements:
The Inter-State Council (ISC) was set up under Article 263 of the Constitution.
Punchhi Commission recommended the establishment of the Inter-State Council.
The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of the Inter-State Council.
It discusses matters of common interests and suggests policies for better coordination.

Choose the correct codes:

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statements about the Inter-State Council (ISC):
True: The ISC was set up under Article 263 of the Constitution to facilitate coordination between the Union and the states.
True: It discusses matters of common interest and recommends policy measures for harmonious federal relations.
False: The Union Home Minister is not the Chairman; the Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the ISC.
False: While Punchhi Commission recommended strengthening ISC, it did not originally establish it.
Correct codes: (a) 1 and 4.

Which climate initiative specifically supports Himalayan glacial monitoring?

(a) ICAP

(b) National Mission on Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem

(d) Bharat Clean Energy Mission

Answer: B

Explanation:

National Mission on Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem specifically supports Himalayan glacial monitoring.

Launched under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC), it focuses on conservation and sustainable management of Himalayan ecosystems, including glaciers, rivers, forests, and biodiversity.
The mission aims to assess climate change impacts, conduct glacial retreat studies, and promote adaptive measures for local communities.
It includes research, monitoring, and policy formulation to protect fragile high-altitude ecosystems.
Correct answer: (b) National Mission on Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem.

Which of the following statements about the global industrial pattern is NOT correct?
Japan, Germany, and the USA are leaders in automobile production.
India and Bangladesh are major centres for textile and garment industries.
South Korea and Taiwan are known for shipbuilding and heavy machinery.
Canada and Australia are primarily known for heavy industry rather than resource-based industries.

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 4 only

Answer: D

Explanation:

The incorrect statement about the global industrial pattern is that Canada and Australia are primarily known for heavy industry rather than resource-based industries.

In reality, Canada and Australia are resource-rich nations, specializing in mining, agriculture, and raw material exports rather than heavy industrial production.
Other statements are correct:
- Japan, Germany, USA → Automobile production
- India and Bangladesh → Textiles and garments
- South Korea and Taiwan → Shipbuilding and heavy machinery
Correct answer: (d) 4 only.

Which of the following was the first major administrative measure taken by the Congress Ministry formed in Odisha under Hare Krushna Mahtab on 23 April 1946?

(a) Abolition of Zamindari Settlements

(b) Release of political prisoners

(d) Introduction of Compulsory primary education

Answer: B

Explanation:

The first major administrative measure taken by the Congress Ministry in Odisha under Hare Krushna Mahtab (23 April 1946) was the release of political prisoners.

This step was part of the post-independence administrative reforms to restore political goodwill and address nationalist demands.
Other measures like abolition of Zamindari, salt law repeal, and primary education were implemented later under state policies.
Correct answer: (b) Release of political prisoners.

Which of the following best defines the concept of Pareto Optimality?

(a) A situation where everyone is equally well-off

(b) A situation where no one can be made better off without making someone else worse off

(d) A situation where the government redistributes resources equally

Answer:- (b)

Explanation

Pareto optimality describes a state where no more resources can be allocated to improve one person’s or objective’s outcome without making at least one other person’s or objective’s outcome worse.
It is a concept of efficiency used in economics, social sciences, and multi-objective optimization, where the set of all such solutions is known as the Pareto front.
A solution is Pareto optimal if it is “non-dominated,” meaning it cannot be improved without negatively affecting another objective.

Consider the following statements:
a) Under Article 124(4) of the Indian Constitution, a Supreme Court Judge can be impeached.
b) The ground for impeachment of a Judge pertains to ‘incapacity and proven misbehavior’.
c) A minimum of 100 MPs are required to initiate the impeachment motion in the Lok Sabha.
d) The President can pardon the Judge.

Which of the following statements are INCORRECT?

(a) a and b

(b) c only

(d) a, c and d

Answer:- Wrong Options (answer should be last statement (d) which is not in any options).

Explanation

Under Article 124(4) of the Indian Constitution, a Supreme Court Judge can be impeached. A Supreme Court judge can be removed from office by an order of the President, following a motion passed by both Houses of Parliament. This process is outlined in Article 124(4) of the Constitution.
The ground for impeachment of a Judge pertains to ‘incapacity and proven misbehavior’. The Constitution specifies that a judge can be removed only on these two grounds. The terms, however, are not defined in the Constitution, and their interpretation is based on judicial pronouncements and parliamentary discussion.
A minimum of 100 MPs are required to initiate the impeachment motion in the Lok Sabha. The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, requires a motion to be signed by at least 100 Lok Sabha members or 50 Rajya Sabha members to be submitted to the presiding officer of the respective House. The presiding officer then has the discretion to either admit or refuse the motion.
The President can pardon the Judge, is incorrect. The President of India’s pardoning power under Article 72 applies to individuals convicted of an offense after judicial proceedings, not to judges removed through the legislative impeachment process. Impeachment is a parliamentary procedure, not a judicial one. The other statements are correct.

Consider the following statements regarding Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and their indicators:
The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015, comprises 17 SDGs and 169 targets.
SDG 1 targets poverty ending in all its forms everywhere, using indicators like the proportion of people living below the national poverty line.
The “leave no one behind” principle is central to the SDGs, emphasizing disaggregated data collection to identify vulnerable groups.
Sustainable Consumption and Production (SCP) is primarily addressed under SDG 14, focusing on efficient resource use and reducing waste.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) All of the above

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, adopted by all UN Member States in 2015, includes 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and 169 targets aimed at ending poverty, protecting the planet, and ensuring prosperity for all by 2030. The SDGs are a universally applicable framework for global development, grounded in human rights.
Goal 1 of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG 1) is to “End poverty in all its forms everywhere” by 2030. One key indicator used to measure progress towards this goal is the “proportion of the population living below the national poverty line”. This measure is broken down by factors like sex, age, and location to provide a detailed picture of who is being affected.
The “leave no one behind” (LNOB) principle is the central promise of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), requiring data collection to be disaggregated by categories like age, gender, and income to identify and address the needs of vulnerable groups.
Sustainable Consumption and Production (SCP) is primarily addressed under Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 12. SDG 14 focuses on conserving and sustainably using the oceans, seas, and marine resources.

Section 4 of the RTI Act states that the obligations of public authorities to maintain records and publish information within ___ days from the enactment of the Act.

(a) 120

(b) 30

(d) 10

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

Section 4 of the RTI Act states that public authorities must publish specific information within 120 days from the enactment of the Act.
This initial publication is a mandatory requirement, with the expectation that the information be updated annually thereafter.

Consider the following statements about the Ramsar sites in India:
A Ramsar site is declared based on its ecological importance and biodiversity richness.
Chilika Lake was the first Indian site to be added to the Ramsar list.
As of 2023, India has more than 75 Ramsar sites.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

A Ramsar site is a wetland designated as being of international importance under the Ramsar Convention, based on nine specific criteria.
- Criterion 1: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it contains a representative, rare, or unique example of a natural or near-natural wetland type found within the appropriate biogeographic region.
- Criterion 2: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered species or threatened ecological communities.
- Criterion 3: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports populations of plant and/or animal species important for maintaining the biological diversity of a particular biogeographic region.
- Criterion 4: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports plant and/or animal species at a critical stage in their life cycles, or provides refuge during adverse conditions.
- Criterion 5: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 20,000 or more waterbirds.
- Criterion 6: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of waterbird.
- Criterion 7: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports a significant proportion of indigenous fish subspecies, species or families, life-history stages, species interactions and/or populations that are representative of wetland benefits and/or values and thereby contributes to global biological diversity.
- Criterion 8: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it is an important source of food for fishes, spawning ground, nursery and/or migration path on which fish stocks, either within the wetland or elsewhere, depend.
- Criterion 9: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of wetland-dependent non-avian animal species.
The criteria emphasize the site’s importance for conserving biological diversity, supporting specific species, and containing unique wetland types.
A wetland must meet at least one of these criteria to be designated.
Chilika Lake and Keoladeo National Park were both designated as the first Indian sites to be added to the Ramsar list in 1981. They were recognized together as the initial Ramsar sites in India.
At the end of 2023, India had a total of 75 Ramsar sites
- The total number of sites remained at 75 from early 2023 through the end of the year.
Five more sites were added in January 2024, bringing the total to 80.
A further increase in June 2025 brought the total to 91 sites.

The writ of Mandamus is issued:

(a) To release a person from illegal detention

(b) To transfer a case from a lower court to a higher court

(d) To question the legality of a person holding a public office

Answer:- (c)

Explanation

A writ of mandamus is issued by a higher court to compel a public authority, official, or lower court to perform a mandatory legal duty that they have failed or refused to do.
The term “mandamus” means “we command” in Latin, and this judicial order ensures that public bodies and individuals fulfill their public functions and legal obligations.

Consider the following statements about Samudrayaan Mission:

1) The development of the Samudrayaan Mission will enhance India’s capability in Nuclear Submarine Development

2) Samudrayaan Mission aims to develop a self-propelled manned Submersible.

3) Samudrayaan Mission aims to explore deep oceans up to 6000 meters.

4) Samudrayaan Mission aims to boost marine tourism.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 4 only

Answer:- (b)

Explanation

The main objective of the Samudrayaan mission is to

develop and deploy a self-propelled, manned submersible, the Matsya 6000, capable of carrying three humans to a depth of 6,000 meters for deep-sea exploration.
The mission also aims to build technological capabilities for deep-sea mining, survey marine biodiversity, and contribute to understanding ocean climate change.

Which of the following statements regarding India’s aquaculture policies is/are correct?
The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) aims to enhance fish production and boost exports.
The Coastal Aquaculture Authority regulates aquaculture activities in brackish water and coastal areas.
The National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB) is responsible for promoting modern aquaculture practices.
The FAO’s Code of Conduct for Responsible Fisheries is legally binding in India.

(a) 1,2, and 3 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) aims
- to develop and modernize India’s fisheries sector to enhance fish production and productivity,
- modernize the value chain, and generate employment and
- income for fishers and fish farmers.
- The scheme also focuses on ensuring the socio-economic security of those involved in the sector and strengthening the regulatory framework.
The Coastal Aquaculture Authority (CAA) regulates aquaculture activities in coastal and brackish water areas in India.
- Established by the Coastal Aquaculture Authority Act, 2005, it promotes responsible coastal aquaculture to prevent environmental damage and protect local livelihoods.
- The Authority registers and regulates coastal aquaculture farms, which cultivate aquatic life like shrimp and fish in controlled environments, and also oversees allied activities such as hatcheries and nucleus breeding centers.
The National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB) is responsible for promoting modern aquaculture practices and enhancing fish production through a variety of schemes.
- It supports intensive aquaculture, coastal aquaculture, and mariculture, among other activities, and works to develop infrastructure, increase fish productivity, and coordinate fishery development efforts across the country.
The FAO’s Code of Conduct for Responsible Fisheries is not legally binding in India, but India has committed to adhering to its principles and has incorporated many of them into its national policies.

What is the time limit provided for making a complaint under the Prevention of Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013 (POSH)?

(a) 14 days

(b) One month

(d) Three months

Answer:- (d)

Explanation

Under the Prevention of Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013 (POSH) Act, a complaint must be filed within three months of the incident, or within three months of the last incident if there were a series of incidents.
The Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) can extend this time limit by a further three months for valid reasons, making the maximum possible time to file a complaint six months.

Consider the following statements about endemic species in India:
Endemic species are restricted to a specific geographical location.
The Nilgiri Tahr is endemic to the Western Ghats.
Endemic species always fall under the IUCN Critically Endangered category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

Endemic species are plants or animals that are found only in a specific geographical area and nowhere else in the world.
- This can include a small region, an island, a continent, or a specific habitat like a mountain range.
- Examples include Asiatic lions in India’s Gir Forest and lemurs on the island of Madagascar.
The Nilgiri tahr is endemic to the Western Ghats mountain range in southern India, primarily found in the states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
- These endangered mountain ungulates are found in the high-altitude grasslands and shola forests of this region.
Endemic species do not always fall under the IUCN Critically Endangered category.
- While endemic species are often more vulnerable due to their limited range, they can be listed in other IUCN Red List categories, such as Vulnerable or Endangered, or not be considered threatened at all, depending on their specific population size and other risk factors.

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is mentioned in which part of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Part VII

(b) Part XIII

(d) Part IX

Answer:- (c)

Explanation

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is mentioned in Part XIV of the Indian Constitution, specifically within Articles 315 to 323.
This part is titled “Services Under the Union and the States” and establishes the framework for the UPSC and state public service commissions.

Consider the following statements about delimitation and its implications in India:
Delimitation is the process of redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and state assembly constituencies to represent changes in population.
The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and its orders have the force of law and cannot be challenged in any court.
The primary objective of delimitation is to ensure that all constituencies have roughly equal populations, thereby upholding the principle of “one person, one vote.”
The current delimitation exercise is based on the 2001 Census, with the next one mandated after the first census following 2026.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) All of the above

Answer:- (d)

Explanation

Delimitation is the process of redrawing the boundaries of Lok Sabha and state assembly constituencies to accurately reflect changes in population, with the goal of ensuring “one person, one vote, one value”.
The exercise is carried out by an independent Delimitation Commission, whose final orders have the force of law and cannot be challenged in court.
The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and its orders have the force of law.
India’s current delimitation exercise is based on the 2001 Census, with the total number of Lok Sabha seats frozen until the first census following 2026.

Which British Governor – General of India formally annexed Odisha into the British empire?

(a) Warren Hastings

(b) Lord Cornwallis

(d) Lord Dalhousie

Answer:- (c)

Explanation

Lord Wellesley was the British Governor-General who formally annexed Odisha into the British Empire during the Anglo-Maratha Wars in the early 19th century.
The formal annexation of what was then known as Orissa occurred in stages, with parts being brought under British control in the years leading up to 1805.

Which one among the following does not match properly the Noble Prize category with its 2024 laureate?

(a) Peace – Narges Mohammadi

(b) Literature – Han Kang

(d) Physics – John Hopfield & Geoffrey Hinton

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

The 2024 Nobel Peace Prize, an international peace prize established according to Alfred Nobel’s will, was awarded to Nihon Hidankyo (the Japan Confederation of A- and H-Bomb Sufferers Organizations), for their activism against nuclear weapons, assisted by victim/survivors (known as Hibakusha) of the atomic bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki in 1945.
- The Nobel Peace Prize for 2023 was awarded to the imprisoned Iranian human rights advocate Narges Mohammadi. More than 20 years of fighting for women’s rights made her a symbol of freedom and standard-bearer in the struggle against the Iranian theocracy.
Rest options are correctly matched.

Who made history as the first Black man to win the Oscar for Best Costume Design at the 97th edition of the Academy Awards?

(a) Paul Tazewell

(b) Olivier Persin

(d) Sean Baker

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

Paul Tazewell made history as the first Black man to win the Oscar for Best Costume Design at the 97th Academy Awards for his work on Wicked.
His win was a groundbreaking moment, following other historic wins for Black designers, such as Ruth E. Carter.

Arrange the following texts in the chronological order of composition:
a) Brihadaranyaka upanishad
b) Manusmriti
c) Arthashastra
d) Milinda Panha

(a) a – b – c – d

(b) b – c – a – d

(d) a – c – b – d

Answer:- (d)

Explanation

The texts are arranged in the following chronological order based on their widely accepted periods of composition:

Brihadaranyaka Upanishad:- This is one of the oldest Upanishads, with scholars dating its composition to the 7th–6th centuries BCE.
Arthashastra:- While traditionally attributed to the Mauryan period (c. 4th century BCE), scholars suggest that the text as we know it today was likely composed, expanded, and redacted between the 2nd century BCE and 3rd century CE. The text’s earliest layer, however, may be older.
Manusmriti:- The Manusmriti is a legal text dated by scholars to have been composed between the 2nd century BCE and 3rd century CE.
Milinda Panha:- This Buddhist text is dated to sometime between 100 BCE and 200 CE. It records a dialogue between the Indo-Greek king Menander (late 2nd century BCE) and a Buddhist sage.

Consider the following statements about India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs):

1) India has committed to reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 45% by 2030 from 2005 levels.

2) India aims to achieve about 50% cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030.

3) India’s updated NDC is linked to the Panchamrit announcement made at COP26.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:- (d)

Explanation

India has committed to reducing its GDP’s emission intensity by 45% by 2030, relative to 2005 levels.
This is a key part of its updated Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) under the Paris Agreement, submitted in August 2022.
This target is one of five main environmental commitments, along with achieving 50% cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030 and reaching net-zero emissions by 2070.
India’s updated Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) is directly linked to the “Panchamrit” pledges made at COP26. The updated NDC formalizes some of the Panchamrit promises as enhanced climate targets for the period up to 2030, including achieving about 50% of cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel sources and a 45% reduction in GDP’s emission intensity by 2030.

Who has been appointed as India’s new Deputy National Security Adviser as of August 2025?

(a) Rajinder Khanna

(b) T. V. Ravichandran

(d) Pankaj Kumar Singh

Answer:- (c)

Explanation

As of August 2025, former Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) Director General Anish Dayal Singh has been appointed as India’s Deputy National Security Adviser (NSA).
He will focus on internal security affairs and report to the National Security Advisor, Ajit Doval.
Other Deputy NSAs: India’s team of Deputy NSAs also includes former diplomat Pawan Kapoor and retired IPS officer T. V. Ravichandran.

Match the following:

Day United Nations Events

a) 3 March 1) World Wildlife Day
b) 7 April 2) World Health Day
c) 3 May 3) World Press Freedom day
d) 20 June 4) World Refugee day

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) a-1 b-2 c-3 d-4

(b) a-2 b-3 c-4 d-1

(d) a-3 b-2 c-1 d-4

Answer:- (a)

Explanation

- World Wildlife Day:- On 20 December 2013, the Sixty-eighth session of the United Nations General Assembly decided to proclaim 3 March as World Wildlife Day to celebrate and raise awareness of the world’s wild fauna and flora.
- World Health Day:– It is celebrated annually and each year draws attention to a specific health topic of concern to people all over the world. The date of 7 April marks the anniversary of the founding of WHO in 1948.

World Press Freedom day:- The United Nations General Assembly declared May 3 to be World Press Freedom Day or just World Press Day, observed to raise awareness of the importance of freedom of the press and remind governments of their duty to respect and uphold the right to freedom of expression enshrined under Article 19 of the 1948 Universal Declaration of Human Rights and marking the anniversary of the Windhoek Declaration, a statement of free press principles put together by African newspaper journalists in Windhoek in 1991.

World Refugee day:- World Refugee Day is an international day organised every year on 20 June by the United Nations. It is designed to celebrate and honour refugees from around the world. The day was first established on 20 June 2001, in recognition of the 50th anniversary of the 1951 Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees.

What was the official theme of the 38th National Games?

(a) Fit India

(b) Sustainable Olympics

(d) Eco-Sports Initiative

Answer:- (c)

Explanation

The 38th National Games had an official theme of “Green Games,” which emphasized sustainability and eco-friendly practices.
Another theme, “Sankalp Se Shikhar Tak” (From Resolution to Zenith), was also announced, focusing on the idea of achieving high goals through determination and hard work.

Match List – I with List – II and select from Code:

List – I (Colonial Policies/events)

a) Permanent Settlement (1793)
b) British Reorganization after Maratha defeat
c) Imposition of Bengali
d) Slavery Abolition (1843)
e) Simon Commission

List – II (Impact on Odisha)

Aggravated economic distress of Odisha peasants
Led to the inclusion of Odia speaking tracts under different presidencies
Caused resentment and fueled Odia linguistic identity movement
Enacted by Lord Ellenborough in Odisha
Petitioned by Krushna Chandra Gajapati for separate province

Code:

(a) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-5

(b) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4, e-5

(d) a-5, b-3, c-4, d-2, e-1

Answer: A

Explanation:

Permanent Settlement (1793) → Aggravated economic distress of Odisha peasants (1): The British introduced a fixed land revenue system, which burdened peasants in Odisha, worsening economic hardship.
British Reorganization after Maratha defeat → Led to inclusion of Odia speaking tracts under different presidencies (2): After defeating Marathas, the British reorganized territories, splitting Odia-speaking regions among Bengal, Madras, and Central Provinces.
Imposition of Bengali → Caused resentment and fueled Odia linguistic identity movement (3): The attempt to impose Bengali as administrative language in Odisha led to protests and rise of Odia linguistic nationalism.
Slavery Abolition (1843) → Enacted by Lord Ellenborough in Odisha (4): The formal abolition of slavery in Odisha was implemented under Governor-General Lord Ellenborough.
Simon Commission → Petitioned by Krushna Chandra Gajapati for separate province (5): During the Simon Commission era, leaders like Krushna Chandra Gajapati petitioned for a separate Odisha province.
Correct answer: (a) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-5

Match List – I (Indian Rivers) with List – II (Their Tributaries) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List-I (Indian Rivers)

(a) Chambal

(b) Cauvery

(d) Godavari

List-II (Tributaries)

Bhima
Noyyal
Banas
Manjra

Codes:

(a) 2 1 3 4

(b) 3 2 1 4

(d) 3 4 2 1

Answer: B

Explanation:

Chambal → Banas (3): Chambal River, a tributary of Yamuna, receives water from Banas River.
Cauvery → Noyyal (2): Noyyal is a tributary of the Cauvery in Tamil Nadu.
Krishna → Bhima (1): Bhima is a major tributary of Krishna River flowing through Maharashtra and Karnataka.
Godavari → Manjra (4): Manjra is a tributary of Godavari in Telangana/Maharashtra region.
Correct code: (b) 3 2 1 4

Match List – I (Rivers of Odisha) with List – II (Their Tributaries) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List-I (Rivers of Odisha)

(a) Mahanadi

(b) Brahmani

(d) Subarnarekha

List-II (Tributaries)

Sankha
Raru
Ong
Deo

Codes:

(a) 2 1 3 4

(b) 3 2 1 4

(d) 3 4 2 1

Answer: C

Explanation:

Mahanadi → Ong (3): Ong is a tributary of Mahanadi in Odisha.
Brahmani → Sankha (1): Sankha River joins Brahmani forming a significant part of its catchment.
Baitarani → Deo (4): Deo River is a tributary of Baitarani River.
Subarnarekha → Raru (2): Raru is a tributary of Subarnarekha River.
Correct code: (c) 3 1 4 2

Who were the first to issue gold coins in India?

(a) Kushans

(b) Sakas

(d) Indo Greeks

Answer: D

Explanation:

Indo-Greeks were the first in India to issue gold coins, around 2nd century BCE.
They introduced coins with portraits of kings and Greek inscriptions, influencing subsequent coinage in India.
Kushans and Sakas issued gold coins later, while Parthians also had limited circulation in northwest India.
Correct answer: (d) Indo Greeks

The Department of Social Justice and Empowerment (DoSJE) recently signed an MoU with which organisation to enhance public awareness about social justice schemes?

(a) Ministry of Defence

(b) National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)

(d) Central Vigilance Commission

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Department of Social Justice and Empowerment (DoSJE) signed an MoU with National Legal Services Authority (NALSA).
The objective is to enhance public awareness about social justice schemes, legal aid, and rights of marginalized communities.
NALSA provides free legal services and works to ensure access to justice for weaker sections, including Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, women, and children.
The collaboration helps in disseminating information about government welfare schemes and legal remedies.
Correct answer: (c) National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)

Match the initiative with its year of launch:

Scheme

a) Ayushman Bharat
b) National Skill Development Mission
c) MGNREGS
d) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana

Year

1) 2006

2) 2018

3) 2015

4) 2014

Options:

(a) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4

(b) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

(d) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2

Answer: A

Explanation:

Ayushman Bharat → 2018 (2): National health protection scheme providing health coverage to economically vulnerable families.
National Skill Development Mission → 2015 (3): Launched to promote skill development and vocational training across India.
MGNREGS → 2006 (1): Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme providing 100 days of wage employment in rural areas.
Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana → 2014 (4): Financial inclusion initiative to provide bank accounts, credit, and insurance to all citizens.
Correct matching: (a) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4

Match the following Rajput rulers with their notable battles or events:
a) Rana Sanga 1) Battle of Haldighati
b) Maharana Pratap 2) Battle of Khanwa
c) Rao Chandra Sen 3) Struggle against Akbar
d) Raja Man Singh 4) Conquest of Odisha

(a) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4

(b) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4

(d) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Rana Sanga → Battle of Khanwa (2): Rana Sanga, the ruler of Mewar, fought against Babur in the Battle of Khanwa (1527) but was defeated.
Maharana Pratap → Battle of Haldighati (1): Maharana Pratap resisted Akbar’s expansion; the Battle of Haldighati (1576) is his most notable conflict.
Rao Chandra Sen → Struggle against Akbar (3): Rao Chandra Sen is known for resisting Mughal expansion in his region.
Raja Man Singh → Conquest of Odisha (4): Raja Man Singh, a general under Akbar, led campaigns including the conquest of Odisha.
Correct answer: (a) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4

Consider the following statements regarding the structural transformation of the Indian economy:
India’s economic growth since the 1990s has been primarily led by the services sector, with a relatively smaller contribution from manufacturing.
The “Make in India” initiative aims to increase the manufacturing sector’s share in GDP to 25% and create 100 million additional jobs by 2022.
Despite rapid economic growth, the share of the agricultural sector in India’s GDP has consistently declined, while its share in employment remains significant.
The phenomenon of “premature deindustrialization” in India refers to the services sector growing rapidly without a strong manufacturing base.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) All of the above

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1: True. Since the 1990s, India’s growth has been services-led, with IT, telecom, and finance contributing more than manufacturing.
Statement 2: Partially true but outdated; the Make in India initiative targets increasing manufacturing share to 25% by 2025–26, not 2022.
Statement 3: True. Agricultural GDP share has declined (~17–18%), yet employment in agriculture remains high (~40–42%), reflecting structural dualism.
Statement 4: True. Premature deindustrialization occurs when services expand without a strong manufacturing base, limiting job creation and industrialization.
Therefore, statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
Correct answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4

Which one of the following Article of Indian constitution provides that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India?

(a) Article 131

(b) Article 141

(d) Article 145

Answer: B

Explanation:

Article 141 states that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India.
This ensures uniformity of judicial decisions and maintains the authority of the Supreme Court as the apex court.
Article 131 deals with original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in disputes between states or between Union and states.
Article 144 directs all authorities to act in aid of the Supreme Court.
Article 145 deals with the rules of procedure and powers of the Supreme Court.
Correct answer: (b) Article 141

Which of the following statements about G-20 is NOT correct?

(a) The G20 was established in 1999.

(b) USA hosted the first G20 Summit of leaders in 2008.

(d) Chile is a member of G20.

Answer: D

Explanation:

G20 was established in 1999 to bring together major economies for global economic cooperation.
The first G20 leaders’ summit was hosted by USA in 2008 following the global financial crisis.
The presidency rotates annually among member countries.
Chile is not a member of the G20; it has been a permanent guest in some summits but not a member.
Correct answer: (d) Chile is a member of G20

The foundational ideology of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was inspired by:

(a) Italian nationalist movement and the works of Mazzini

(b) Leninist Communism and the Russian Revolution

(d) Irish freedom struggle and Sinn Fein Movement

Answer: A

Explanation:

The HSRA, founded in 1928 by Chandrashekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh, and others, aimed at complete independence from British rule through revolutionary methods.
Its ideology was inspired by the Italian nationalist movement and the works of Giuseppe Mazzini, who advocated for a united, independent nation through revolutionary action.
The HSRA combined nationalism with socialist principles, focusing on social justice, anti-imperialism, and the empowerment of the masses.
While later influenced by Marxist ideas, the foundational framework drew directly from Mazzini’s model of revolutionary nationalism rather than Leninist or Irish movements.
Correct answer: (a) Italian nationalist movement and the works of Mazzini

Which of the following fundamental rights is available only to Indian citizens and not to foreigners?

(a) Right to Equality before Law (Article 14)

(b) Freedom of Speech and Expression (Article 19)

(d) Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)

Answer: B

Explanation:

Article 19 guarantees freedom of speech and expression, right to assemble peacefully, form associations, move freely, reside, and practice any profession.
This right is restricted to Indian citizens; foreigners do not enjoy it.
Article 14 (Equality before law), Article 20 (protection in respect of conviction for offences), and Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) are available to all persons, including foreigners, within India.
Correct answer: (b) Freedom of Speech and Expression (Article 19)

Match List – I (Geological Structure) with List – II (Economic Importance) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List-I (Geological Structure) List-II (Economic Importance)

(a) Siwalik Hills 1. Coal, Mica, and Uranium Resources

(b) Deccan Traps 2. Black cotton soils, Sugarcane agriculture

(d) Chhota Nagpur Plateau 4. Rich in Iron ore deposits

Codes:

(a) 2 1 3 4

(b) 3 2 1 4

(d) 3 4 2 1

Answer: C

Explanation:

Siwalik Hills → Fossil-rich sedimentary deposits (3): Siwalik Hills are known for vertebrate fossils and sedimentary rocks.
Deccan Traps → Black cotton soils, Sugarcane agriculture (2): Deccan volcanic basalt rocks give rise to fertile black soils suitable for cotton and sugarcane.
Singhbhum Craton → Coal, Mica, Uranium resources (1): Rich in mineral deposits, including iron, uranium, mica, and copper.
Chhota Nagpur Plateau → Rich in Iron ore deposits (4): Known as India’s mineral hub, especially for iron ore.
Correct code: (c) 3 2 4 1

What is the Global Hunger Index 2023, India ranks at which position globally?

(a) 105

(b) 107

(d) 115

Answer: C

Explanation:

India’s Global Hunger Index 2023 rank is 111 out of 121 countries.
The index measures undernourishment, child stunting, child wasting, and child mortality.
India has improved in some indicators but still faces challenges in child nutrition and food security.
Correct answer: (c) 111

Consider the following statements regarding ecological pyramids:
In a parasitic food chain, the pyramid of numbers is always upright.
Pyramids of biomass are always inverted in marine ecosystems.
Pyramids of energy are never inverted.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

In parasitic food chains, the pyramid of numbers is not always upright; it can be inverted depending on host-parasite ratios.
Pyramids of biomass in marine ecosystems are often inverted because the biomass of producers (phytoplankton) is less than that of primary consumers (zooplankton) at any given time.
Pyramids of energy are never inverted, as energy flow decreases at successive trophic levels due to the second law of thermodynamics.
Correct answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:
He is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
He has the right to participate in proceedings of Parliament but without voting rights.
He must have qualifications equivalent to that of a Supreme Court judge.
His remuneration is fixed by the Parliament through a law under Article 148 of the constitution

Options:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: A

Explanation:

The Attorney General of India (AGI) is the highest law officer of the country, providing legal advice to the Government of India and representing it in the Supreme Court.
Statement 1: Correct. The AGI is appointed by the President under Article 76(1) and holds office during the pleasure of the President, meaning the term is not fixed.
Statement 2: Correct. The AGI has the right to participate in Parliament proceedings (both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) to provide legal opinions when required, but does not have voting rights.
Statement 3: Correct. The AGI must be qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court, i.e., he must have at least 10 years of experience as an advocate of a High Court or be a distinguished jurist, as per Article 76(1).
Statement 4: Incorrect. The remuneration of the AGI is not fixed by Parliament through law, but is determined by the President and may be revised from time to time.
Correct answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only.

Which of the following statements about the Chenab Rail Bridge is correct?

1) It is a Cable-stayed bridge.

2) The Chenab Rail Bridge is taller than the Eiffel Tower.

3) It is a part of the Golden Quadrilateral Railway Project.

4) It is the world’s highest Railway arch bridge.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 3 only

(d) 2 and 4

Answer: D

Explanation:

The Chenab Rail Bridge is taller than the Eiffel Tower, making it the world’s highest railway arch bridge.
It is not a cable-stayed bridge; it is an arch bridge.
It is part of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link Project, not the Golden Quadrilateral.
Correct answer: (d) 2 and 4

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched regarding Schedules of the Indian Constitution?

(a) 6th Schedule – Languages recognized by the Constitution

(b) 7th Schedule – Division of powers between Union and States

(d) 9th Schedule – Tribal Areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram

Answer: B

Explanation:

6th Schedule: Deals with administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, not languages.
7th Schedule: Correctly defines the division of powers between Union and State through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
8th Schedule: Lists the languages recognized by the Constitution, not land reforms.
9th Schedule: Protects certain laws from judicial review, not specifically tribal areas.
Correct answer: (b) 7th Schedule – Division of powers between Union and States

Which category under the IUCN classification is not directly recognized in the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972?

(a) Critically Endangered

(b) Vulnerable

(d) Extinct in the Wild

Answer: C

Explanation:

IUCN categories include Critically Endangered, Vulnerable, Endangered, Extinct in the Wild, etc.
Endemic refers to species native to a specific region, not a threat category.
Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, recognizes categories like Schedule I, II, etc., corresponding to threat levels, not “Endemic.”
Correct answer: (c) Endemic

Acetylsalicylic acid is known as:

(a) Oil of wintergreen

(b) Aspirin

(d) Paracetamol

Answer: B

Explanation:

Acetylsalicylic acid is the chemical name for Aspirin, a widely used drug for pain relief, fever reduction, and anti-inflammatory purposes.

(a) Oil of wintergreen – Methyl salicylate, used topically, not the same as acetylsalicylic acid.
(b) Aspirin – Correct. Acetylsalicylic acid is its chemical name.
(c) Ibuprofen – A different non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID).
(d) Paracetamol – Chemically N-acetyl-p-aminophenol, not acetylsalicylic acid.

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