Gujarat Judiciary 2025 Solved Question Paper

The Gujarat Judicial Service (GJS) Prelims Exam 2025 was held successfully by the Gujarat High Court on June 29, 2025. It is an objective-type (MCQ-based) elimination test as the initial part of the selection process for Civil Judge posts, for which 212 vacancies were advertised.

The examination consisted of two papers: Paper 1 on Law (100 questions, 100 marks, 2 hours) dealing with a comprehensive array of criminal and civil laws, recent amendments to principal acts such as the IPC, CrPC, and Indian Evidence Act, and Paper 2, Test of Gujarati Language (50 questions, 50 marks, 30 minutes). A negative marking of 0.33 marks for every wrong answer existed on both papers, and the candidates had to achieve at least 50% of the overall marks to be eligible for the Mains exam. The question paper was presented in both English and Gujarati. Read this article to get the Gujarat Judiciary 2025 Solved Question Paper to evaluate your performance.

Q 1. Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act (Section 116 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023) provides for the presumption regarding the Legitimacy of a child born within
(A) 240 days after the dissolution of marriage, the mother remaining unmarried
(B) 260 days after the dissolution of marriage, the mother remaining unmarried
(C) 280 days after the dissolution of marriage, the mother remaining unmarried
(D) 300 days after the dissolution of marriage, the mother remaining unmarried
Answer – c

Q 2. As per section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court may refer the dispute to
(A) Arbitration
(B) Mediation
(C) Lok Adalat
(D) All of the above
Answer – d

Q3. As per section 96 of the Code of Civil Procedure, an appeal is not maintainable against decree
(A) which is ex parte in nature
(B) which is consent decree
(C) which is preliminary decree and final decree is yet to be passed
(D) where value of subject matter of suit exceeds Ten thousand Rupees
Answer – b

Q4. Hon’ble Supreme Court in which of the following cases has held that daughter’s right to be a coparcener is retroactive?
(A) Shreya Vidyarthi V/s. Ashok Vidhyarthi
(B) Vineeta Sharma V/s. Rakesh Sharma & Anr.
(C) Vinny Parmvir Parmar V/s. Parmvir Parmar
(D) Gurupad V/s. Hira Bai
Answer – b

Q5. The requirement of pre-litigation mediation u/s. 12A of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 is ……….. in nature.
(A) arbitrary
(B) directory
(C) mandatory
(D) None of the above
Answer – c

Q 6. A contingent contract to do or not to do anything if an uncertain future event happens:
(A) becomes voidable when the event becomes impossible
(B) remains valid even if the event becomes impossible
(C) It is a contract void ab initio
(D) becomes void when the event becomes impossible
Answer – d

Q 7. What is the full form of UNESCO?
(A) United Nations Education, Science and Culture Organization
(B) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
(C) United Nations Educational, Social and Culture Organization
(D) United Nations Economic, Social and Culture Organization
Answer – b

Q8. Under which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, the procedure for execution of a warrant forwarded outside jurisdiction is provided?
(A) Section 78
(B) Section 80
(C) Section 81
(D) Section 83
Answer – a

Q9. The principle of Res Judicata applies to:
(A) Suit
(B) Execution proceedings
(C) Bail Application
(D) Both (A) & (B)
Answer – d

Q 10. Which provision of the Indian Evidence Act provides for the admissibility of electronic records?
(A) Section 63
(B) Section 65B
(C) Section 66A
(D) Section 67A
Answer – b

Q 11. “Actus Dei Nemini Facit Injuriam” means:
(A) The crime carries the person
(B) An act of God does injury to no one
(C) A person can not be held responsible for act of another
(D) Impossible act
Answer – b

Q 12. In which of the following mortgages, possession of property is delivered to the mortgagee?
(A) Simple mortgage
(B) Usufructuary mortgage
(C) Mortgage by deposit of title deeds
(D) None of the above
Answer – b

Q 13. Specific relief can be granted for-
(A) enforcing individual civil rights
(B) enforcing penal laws
(C) both civil rights and penal laws
(D) neither civil rights nor penal laws
Answer – a

Q14. Can a minor draw, endorse, deliver and negotiate instruments under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?
(A) Yes so as to bind all parties including himself
(B) No
(C) Yes so as to bind all parties except himself
(D) None of the above
Answer – c

Q 15. What does Section 4 of The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 deal with?
(A) Penalty for domestic violence
(B) Information to Protection Officer and exclusion of liability of informant
(C) Procedure for obtaining protection orders
(D) Powers of the magistrate
Answer – b

Q 16. In a valid contract, what from the following, comes first?
(A) enforceability
(B) acceptance
(C) promise
(D) proposal
Answer – d

Q 17. Police Officer of which of the following rank can enter, search etc. a gaming-house?
(A) Constable
(B) Head Constable
(C) Assistant Sub-Inspector
(D) Sub-Inspector
Answer – d

Q 18. What is meaning of ‘lex loci’?
(A) Law of the land
(B) Sovereignty is essential for enacting laws
(C) Law of the forum
(D) Crown has supreme authority
Answer – a

Q 19. What cannot be transferred as per the Transfer of Property Act?
(A) Ownership of immovable property
(B) Ownership of movable property
(C) Mortgage of immovable property
(D) A mere right to sue
Answer – d

Q 20. The Company’s profits were low and they were forced to staff.
(A) lisp off
(B) lay off
(C) lay on
(D) rely of
Answer – b

Q 21. Sec. 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, speaks about
(A) transfer lis pendente lite
(B) fraudulent transfer
(C) part-performance
(D) None of the above
Answer – a

Q 22. Who was the first female judge of the Supreme Court of India?
(A) Sujata Manohar
(B) Fathima Beevi
(C) Ruma Pal
(D) Ranjana Desai
Answer – b

Q 23. What is the penalty for tampering with computer source documents under the Information Technology Act, 2000?
(A) Imprisonment up to 3 years or fine or both
(B) Imprisonment up to 5 years or fine or both
(C) Imprisonment up to 7 years or fine or both
(D) Imprisonment for life
Answer – a

Q24. Where in a suit for specific performance of a contract, the plaintiff has not claimed compensation in the plaint, the court shall allow him to amend the plaint for including a claim for such compensation-
(A) not after the filing of the written statement
(B) not after the framing of the issues
(C) not after the completion of plaintiff’s evidence
(D) at any stage of the proceeding,
Answer – d

Q 25. Which of the following is not a void marriage under Hindu Marriage Act?
(A) Either party has a spouse living at the time of the marriage
(B) The parties are within the degrees of prohibited relationship
(C) The parties are sapindas of each other
(D) The bride was below eighteen years of age at the time of marriage
Answer – d

Q 26. Under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, a witness may be cross-examined to shake his credit?
(A) Section 140
(B) Section 142
(C) Section 144
(D) Section 146
Answer – d

Q 27. Which section of the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969, deals with the compulsory registration of births and deaths?
(A) Section 8
(B) Section 14
(C) Section 16
(D) Section 21
Answer – a

Q 28. Which section of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with offence of criminal breach of trust?
(A) Section 314
(B) Section 315
(C) Section 316
(D) Section 317
Answer – c

Q 29. Which section of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 deals with the General rules of succession in the case of males?
(A) Section-6
(B) Section-7
(C) Section-8
(D) Section-9
Answer – c

Q30. A transfer of ownership in exchange for a price paid or promised or part-paid and part-promised is called
(A) exchange
(B) lease
(C) part-performance
(D) sale
Answer – d

Q 31. Part IV of the Constitution of India provides –
(A) Citizenship
(B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) Directive Principles of State Policy
Answer – d

Q 32. Where is the headquarter of NABARD?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Chennai
Answer – b

Q33. A, by putting X in fear of grievous hurt, dishonestly induces X to sign or affix his seal to a blank paper and deliver it to A. X signs and delivers the paper to A. Which offence A has committed
(A) Theft
(B) Extortion
(C) Robbery
(D) Snatching
Answer – b

Q 34. Under The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, who can file a’ complaint of domestic violence?
(A) Only married women
(B) Only unmarried women
(C) Any woman who is in a domestic relationship
(D) Only women with children
Answer – c

Q35. Under which section of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, can a person be released on probation of good conduct?
(A) Section 3
(B) Section 4
(C) Section 5
(D) Section 6
Answer – b

Q 36. What does Section 15 of The Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, deal with?
(A) Preliminary assessment into heinous offences by Board
(B) Adoption of children
(C) Constitution of Juvenile Justice Board
(D) Child welfare Committee
Answer – a

Q 37. Which section of The Information Technology Act, 2000, deals with the punishment for identity theft?
(A) Section 66B
(B) Section 66C
(C) Section 66D
(D) Section 66E
Answer – b

Q 38. What does Section 18 of The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, specify?
(A) Power to grant residence orders
(B) Penalty for breaching protection orders
(C) Procedure for counseling
(D) Powers to pass protection orders
Answer – d

Q39. An agreement in restraint of trade is _
(A) valid
(B) voidable
(C) void
(D) unenforceable
Answer – c

Q 40. The government can also present its case
(A) with
(B) through
(C) by
(D) None of the above
Answer – b

Q 41. Under which section of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 is the definition of a “child in conflict with the law” provided?
(A) Section 2(12)
(B) Section 2(13)
(C) Section 2(14)
(D) Section 2(15)
Answer – b

Q 42. If UNDERSTAND is coded as 1234567823, how will START be coded ?
(A) 67857
(B) 83243
(C) 56781
(D) 73652
Answer – a

Q43. What is the punishment for giving false information under Section 217 of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?
(A) Imprisonment for a term upto 6 months, or fine, or both
(B) Imprisonment for a term upto 1 year, or fine, or both
(C) Imprisonment for a term upto 2 years, or fine, or both
(D) Imprisonment for a term upto 3 years, or fine, or both
Answer – b

Q 44. Which of these is an example of cloud computing service?
(A) Google Drive
(B) Internet Explorer
(C) Notepad
(D) Calculator
Answer – a

Q 45. When substituted service of summons can be claimed?
(A) Defendant is keeping away to avoid service of summons
(B) Summons can not be served in ordinary way
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer – c

Q 46. What does Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deal with?
(A) Burden of proof
(B) Relevancy of facts
(C) Interpretation clause
(D) Admissions
Answer – c

Q 47. A woman married under Muslim Law is entitled to obtain a decree for the dissolution of her marriage if the whereabout of her husband have not been known for a period of ……
(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 7 years
Answer – c

Q 48. Provision of Closure of Defence and passing of Judgement in case of failure to present written statement within the time permitted or fixed by the Court, is provided in
(A) Order 8 Rule 2 of CPC
(B) Order 8 Rule 8 of CPC
(C) Order 8 Rule 10 of CPC
(D) Order 9 Rule 7 of CPC
Answer – c

Q 49. What does Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure code, 1973 (Section 173 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023) deal with?
(A) Arrest without a warrant
(B) Information relating to commission of a cognizable offence
(C) Power 10 grant bail
(D) Powers of the magistrate
Answer – b

Q 50. What does Section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (Section 183 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023) deal with?
(A) Recording of confessions and statements
(B) Arrest without a warrant
(C) Procedure for conducting trials
(D) Bail
Answer – a

Q 51. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I
A. Habeas Corpus
B. Mandamus
C. Qua Warranto
D. Certiorari
List-II
1. Violation of natural justice
2. Unlawful arrest and detention
3. Exercise of power without jurisdiction
4. Non-performance of public duty
(A) A-1: B-4: C-3: D-2
(B) A-1: B-3 : C-4: D-2
(C) A-2: B-3: C-4: D-1
(D) A-2: B-4: C-3: D-1
Answer – d

Q 52. Doccine of adverse possession has been evolved as per mandate of
(A) Section 27 of Limitation Act
(B) Section 29 of Limitation Act
(C) Section 53A of Transfer of Property Act
(D) Section 25 of Limitation Act
Answer – a

Q 53. What does Section 136 of the Indian Evidence Act (Section 141 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023) deal with?
(A) Judge to decide as to admissibility of evidence
(B) Cross-examination of a witness
(C) Re-examination of a witness
(D) Leading questions
Answer – a

Q 54. Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India guarantees freedom of speech and expression to
(A) all citizens of India
(B) all Indians and foreigners
(C) only persons above 21 years of age
(D) only persons who have attained 60 years of age
Answer – a

Q 55. X shoots an arrow targeting the left eye of Y, which hits the right eye of Y, due to which Y loses the vision of his right eye. X has committed an offence punishable under section of the Indian Penal Code.
(A) 324
(B) 326
(C) 325
(D) 326 A
Answer – b

Q56. The statement made under Section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (Section 180 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023) before the Police Officer …
(A) need not be reduced into writing by the Police Officer
(B) needs to be signed by the person making the statement
(C) need not be signed by the person making the statement
(D) None of the above
Answer – c

Q 57. International Court of Justice is located at
(A) The Hague, Netherlands
(B) New York, U.S.A.
(C) Washington D.C., U.S.A.
(D) Geneva, Switzerland
Answer – a

Q 58. The concept of ‘abetment’ is defined under which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code?
(A) Section 107
(B) Section 109
(C) Section 111
(D) Section 113
Answer – a

Q 59. The reserve fund is –
(A) invested
(B) lend
(C) advanced
(D) devoted
Answer – a

Q60. If a cheque is returned with an endorsement “Refer to Drawer” does it attract penal provisions under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) It attracts provisions of Indian Penal Code
(D) None of the above
Answer – b

Q 61. The presumption under section 139 of the Negotiable Instruments Act is in favour of
(A) drawer of cheque
(B) drawee of cheque
(C) holder of cheque
(D) None of the above
Answer – c

Q 62. Next number in series 4,9,20,43….
(A) 90
(B) 96
(C) 85
(D) 95
Answer – a

Q 63. What does Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (Section 187 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023) deal with?
(A) Bail in non-bailable cases
(B) Power of the police to release on bail
(C) Remand of an accused in police or judicial custody by the magistrate
(D) Execution of a warrant
Answer – c

Q 64. What does Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act (Section 6 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023) deal with?
(A) Estoppel
(B) Admission
(C) Confession
(D) Motive, preparation and previous or subsequent conduct
Answer – d

65. Which section of The Information Technology Act, 2000, is declared as ultra vires by the Supreme Court in the judgement of Shreya Singhal V/s. Union of India?
(A) 66
(B) 67
(C) 66-A
(D) 67-A
Answer – c

Q 66. Under which section of The Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956, is the definition of “prostitution” provided?
(A) Section 2(f)
(B) Section 2(c)
(C) Section 2(d)
(D) Section 2(e)
Answer – a

Q 67. Under the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, what is the procedure for releasing an offender on probation?
(A) An offender has to apply for probation
(B) An offender has to serve a minimum sentence before being considered for
probation
C) Court may release the offender on probation after considering the case
(D) None of the above
Answer – c

Q 68. As per the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, the maximum amount of fine imposed by the Court of a Magistrate of the First Class shall not exceed:
(A) Rs. 10000
(B) Rs. 25000
(C) Rs. 50000
(D) Rs. 100000
Answer – c

Q 69. Which of these acts define the expression ‘penetrative sexual assault’?
(A) Indian Penal Code, 1860
(B) The Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956
(C) The Indecent Representation of Woman (Prohibition) Act, 1986
(D) The Protection of Children from Sexual offences Act, 2012
Answer – d

Q 70. No suit under section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 shall be brought after the expiry of ………. from the date of dispossession.
(A) one month
(B) two months
(C) three months
(D) six months
Answer – d

Q71. Which of the following sections of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 clearly postulates that the judicial authority before which an action was brought in the matter was competent to refer the parties to arbitration?
(A) Section 6
(B) Section 7
(C) Section 8
(D) Section 9
Answer – c

Q 72. Actionable claim means:
(A) A claim to any debt secured by mortgage of immovable property
(B) A claim to any debt secured by pledge of movable property
(C) A claim to any debt secured by hypothication of movable property
(D) None of the above
Answer – d

Q 73. The provisions regarding “Interim measures” ordered by Court are found in which of these section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
(A) Section 16
(B) Section 17
(C) Section 9
(D) Section 34
Answer – c

Q 74. Under what circumstances does provision of Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act apply?
(A) When the person giving information is an accused and is in police custody.
(B) When the person is neither in police custody nor an accused
(C) When the person giving information is an accused but not in police custody.
(D) When the person giving information is in police custody but not an accused.
Answer – a

Q 75. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right under the Constitution of India?
(A) Right to assemble peacefully
(B) Right to property
(C) Right to move freely throughout the country
(D) All of the above
Answer – b

Q 76. Where in the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, any reference is made to a reasonable time, the question of what is a reasonable time is ….
(A) a period of one year
(B) a period of six months
(C) a period of 30 days
(D) a question of fact
Answer – d

Q77. Under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, can a magistrate issue a search warrant for persons wrongfully confined?
(A) Section 94
(B) Secton 95
(C) Section 96
(D) Section 97
Answer – d

Q 78: What does RAM stand for?
(A) Read Access Memory
(B) Random Access Memory
(C) Real Application Memory
(D) Remote Access Memory
Answer – b

Q 79. Section-5 of the Limitation act does not apply to:
(A) Suits
(B) Appeal
(C) Revision
(D) None of the above
Answer – a

Q80. Any man who monitors the use by a woman of the internet, e-mail or any other form of electronic communication, commits under Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 the offence of
(A) Sexual harassment
(B) Voyeurism
(C) Stalking
(D) None of the above
Answer – c

Q 81. The doctrine of ‘double jeopardy’ in Article 20(2) of the Constitution of India means
(A) one can be prosecuted several times for the same offence
(B) no one can be prosecuted and punished more than once for the same offence
(C) no person accused of any offence can be compelled to be a witness against
himself
(D) one can be prosecuted more than once but punished only once
Answer – b

Q 82. In the famous case of Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala, the Hon’ble Supreme Court:
(A) held that the Fundamental Rights cannot be amended
(B) upheld the unlimited power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution to
any extent.
(C) established the Basic Structure doctrine, limiting the Parliament’s power to
amend the Constitution.
(D) declared that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution.
Answer – c

Q 83. Under section 81 of Gujarat Prohibition Act, penalty for abetment is?
(A) Same as for the principle offence
(B) Imprisonment of up to 2 years and fine
(C) Imprisonment of up to 10 years or fine
(D) Imprisonment of up to 5 years or fine
Answer – a

Q 84. Which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with restoration of suit?
(A) Order-6
(B) Order-8
(C) Order-9
(D) Section-148
Answer – c

Q 85. Which one of the following statements does not come under the definition of ‘Complaint’ under Section 2(d) of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 [Section 2(h) of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023]?
(A) Complaint is an oral or a written allegation
(B) It is to be made only to the magistrate
(C) It is related to some person known or unknown who has committed an offence
(D) Police report made after investigation which discloses the commission of a
cognizable offence
Answer – d

Q 86. Under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, “business” includes
(A) every trade
(B) profession
(C) occupation
(D) All of the above
Answer – d

Q 87. Agency gets terminated upon death of Principal or Agent except where –
(A) it is an agency coupled with interest
(B) agent is related with the Principal
(C) agent is residing outside India
(D) Both (B) & (C)
Answer – a

Q 88. A lease of immovable property determines..
(A) by efflux of time limited thereby
(B) by Implied surrender
(C) by forfeiture
(D) All of the above
Answer – d

Q 89. Under section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act, any court exercising jurisdiction under the Act may pass order granting permanent alimony in favour of…
(A) wife only
(B) husband only
(C) either the husband or the wife
(D) children of parties
Answer – c

Q90. What does Section 113-B of the Indian Evidence Act (Section 118 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023) deal with?
(A) Presumption as to abetment of suicide
(B) Presumption as to dowry death
(C) Presumption as to absence of consent in certain prosecutions of rape
(D) Presumption as to absence of consent in certain prosecutions for kidnapping
Answer – b

Q 91. What is a blockchain used for?
(A) Digital Transactions
(B) File compression
(C) Running software
(D) Sending emails
Answer – a

Q 92. Synonym of Alleviate
(A) Relieve
(B) Aggravate
(C) Distribute
(D) Congregate
Answer – a

Q93. Antonym of Destitute
(A) Penurious
(B) Depressed
(C) Indigent
(D) Prosperous
Answer – d

Q94. What is the provision under Section 188 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (Section 208 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023) for?
(A) Offence committed outside India
(B) Procedure for arrest
(C) Custodial interrogation
(D) All of the above
Answer – a

Q95. What is the name of the portal recently launched by the Ministry of Ayush to boost consumer protection and regulation in traditional medicine?
(A) National Health Portal
(B) Ayush Suraksha Portal
(C) FollowMyHealth Portal
(D) None of the above
Answer – b

Q96. Which of the following is correctly spelt:
(A) Agreggate
(B) Aggregate
(C) Aggregatte
(D) Agregaet
Answer – b

Q97. The trial of an offence punishable under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act has to be _____ trial.
(A) Summons
(B) Warrant
(C) Sessions
(D) Summary
Answer – d

Q 98. Who is the drawer in the case of a bill of exchange?
(A) The person who makes the bill
(B) The person to whom the bill is made payable
(C) The person who endorses the bill
(D) The person who presents the bill for payment
Answer – a

Q 99. Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 “henious offences” includes the offences for which the minimum punishment under the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860) or any other law for the time being in
force is —
(A) Imprisonment for five years or more
(B) Imprisonment for seven years of more
(C) Capital punishment or imprisonment for life
(D) Imprisonment for ten years or more
Answer – b

Q 100. Under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is the procedure for the investigation of non-cognizable cases defined?
(A) Section 154
(B) Section 155
(C) Section 156
(D) Section 157
Answer – b