Daily Quiz 12 September 2025
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the India Ageing Report 2023:
Statement I: Elderly women in India face a triple burden of longer lifespans, poorer health outcomes, and systemic neglect in healthcare.
Statement II: Financial dependence, lack of income, and patriarchal decision-making restrict their ability to access timely medical care.
Statement III: Policy frameworks in India remain focused on reproductive health, with inadequate integration of elderly women’s needs into geriatric care.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The India Ageing Report 2023, published by the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) India, highlights India’s rapidly growing elderly population, projected to double by 2050, and the significant challenges this demographic shift presents. Key issues include the increasing burden of caregiving, high rates of old-age poverty, and the feminisation and ruralisation of the elderly population, particularly older women who are often widowed, isolated, and dependent. The report calls for implementing recommendations from the Longitudinal Ageing Survey in India (LASI) to improve the health, dignity, and well-being of the elderly through a “whole-of-society” approach.
- Statement I is correct – India Ageing Report 2023 projects 20% elderly by 2050; women live 2.7 years longer but face neglect, creating a triple burden.
- Statement II is correct – 60% lack personal income, <20% can pay medical bills; decisions often controlled by spouses/children → financial & social barriers to care.
- Statement III is correct – Policies remain reproductive-health-centric; elderly women’s NCDs, cancers, osteoporosis, and dementia are under-addressed.
- Together – Statement II explains social & economic barriers and Statement III explains policy-level neglect, both validating Statement I.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The India Ageing Report 2023, published by the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) India, highlights India’s rapidly growing elderly population, projected to double by 2050, and the significant challenges this demographic shift presents. Key issues include the increasing burden of caregiving, high rates of old-age poverty, and the feminisation and ruralisation of the elderly population, particularly older women who are often widowed, isolated, and dependent. The report calls for implementing recommendations from the Longitudinal Ageing Survey in India (LASI) to improve the health, dignity, and well-being of the elderly through a “whole-of-society” approach.
- Statement I is correct – India Ageing Report 2023 projects 20% elderly by 2050; women live 2.7 years longer but face neglect, creating a triple burden.
- Statement II is correct – 60% lack personal income, <20% can pay medical bills; decisions often controlled by spouses/children → financial & social barriers to care.
- Statement III is correct – Policies remain reproductive-health-centric; elderly women’s NCDs, cancers, osteoporosis, and dementia are under-addressed.
- Together – Statement II explains social & economic barriers and Statement III explains policy-level neglect, both validating Statement I.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Article 30(1) gives minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
- Section 12(1)(c) of the RTE Act requires 25% reservation for disadvantaged groups in private schools.
- The Supreme Court in Pramati Educational & Cultural Trust v. Union of India (2014) held that RTE mandates would apply equally to minority and non-minority institutions.
Which of the provisions given above explain why minority educational institutions are exempted from certain mandates of the Right to Education (RTE) Act?
Correct
Answer: A
Detailed Explanation:
- Statement 1 (Correct): Article 30(1) ensures minority autonomy in education. If RTE’s compulsory quota applied, minorities might lose control over admissions → violation of constitutional protection.
- Statement 2 (Correct): Section 12(1)(c) mandates 25% reservation in private unaided schools → core of RTE. Minority institutions are exempted, balancing Right to Education (Article 21A) with Minority Rights (Article 30).
- Statement 3 (Incorrect): The Pramati judgment actually said the opposite – minority institutions (aided or unaided) are not bound by RTE provisions like Section 12(1)(c) or Section 23 (teacher norms).
Incorrect
Answer: A
Detailed Explanation:
- Statement 1 (Correct): Article 30(1) ensures minority autonomy in education. If RTE’s compulsory quota applied, minorities might lose control over admissions → violation of constitutional protection.
- Statement 2 (Correct): Section 12(1)(c) mandates 25% reservation in private unaided schools → core of RTE. Minority institutions are exempted, balancing Right to Education (Article 21A) with Minority Rights (Article 30).
- Statement 3 (Incorrect): The Pramati judgment actually said the opposite – minority institutions (aided or unaided) are not bound by RTE provisions like Section 12(1)(c) or Section 23 (teacher norms).
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Investors’ concerns over inflation led to selling of bonds.
- RBI signalled a hawkish stance, limiting expectations of further rate cuts.
- Higher government borrowing increased supply of bonds in the market.
How many of the factors given above best explain the rise in India’s bond yields in 2025 despite RBI cutting the repo rate?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (Correct): Inflation erodes the fixed return from bonds. If inflation expectations rise, investors demand higher yields → they sell old bonds (prices fall, yields rise).
- Statement 2 (Correct): A “hawkish” RBI stance means it is focused more on inflation control than growth. Even after repo cuts, if RBI signals no further easing, markets anticipate tight liquidity → yields rise.
- Statement 3 (Correct): Fiscal deficit fears due to high govt spending → more govt borrowing → more bonds issued. Higher supply lowers prices, automatically pushing yields higher.
Example: In 2025, India’s 10-year yield rose by 26 basis points despite a repo cut of 100 basis points because markets anticipated fiscal stress + limited future rate cuts.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (Correct): Inflation erodes the fixed return from bonds. If inflation expectations rise, investors demand higher yields → they sell old bonds (prices fall, yields rise).
- Statement 2 (Correct): A “hawkish” RBI stance means it is focused more on inflation control than growth. Even after repo cuts, if RBI signals no further easing, markets anticipate tight liquidity → yields rise.
- Statement 3 (Correct): Fiscal deficit fears due to high govt spending → more govt borrowing → more bonds issued. Higher supply lowers prices, automatically pushing yields higher.
Example: In 2025, India’s 10-year yield rose by 26 basis points despite a repo cut of 100 basis points because markets anticipated fiscal stress + limited future rate cuts.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana:
- First-time employees can receive EPF wage support up to ₹15,000 in two instalments.
- Employers creating new jobs can receive up to ₹3,000 per employee per month for 2 years.
- The scheme targets creation of 3.5 crore jobs by 2027.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Detailed Explanation:
- Statement 1 (Correct): Part A incentivises workers entering formal jobs (EPFO registration). Wage supports up to ₹15,000 ensures retention + financial literacy. Savings linked to incentive → nudges financial discipline.
- Statement 2 (Correct): Part B rewards employers for new jobs (salary ≤ ₹1 lakh). ₹3,000 per worker/month for 2 years reduces hiring cost. In manufacturing, benefit extends to 4 years → industrial push.
- Statement 3 (Correct): Target = 3.5 crore jobs by 2027, with 2.6 crore expected via Part B alone. Shows strong emphasis on employment generation.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Detailed Explanation:
- Statement 1 (Correct): Part A incentivises workers entering formal jobs (EPFO registration). Wage supports up to ₹15,000 ensures retention + financial literacy. Savings linked to incentive → nudges financial discipline.
- Statement 2 (Correct): Part B rewards employers for new jobs (salary ≤ ₹1 lakh). ₹3,000 per worker/month for 2 years reduces hiring cost. In manufacturing, benefit extends to 4 years → industrial push.
- Statement 3 (Correct): Target = 3.5 crore jobs by 2027, with 2.6 crore expected via Part B alone. Shows strong emphasis on employment generation.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the National Quantum Mission (2023–2031):
- It follows a hub-and-spoke model with four thematic hubs.
- One of its targets is to develop quantum computers with 50–1000 qubits.
- It aims to establish satellite-based quantum communication networks.
How many of the statements given above are not correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (Correct): Hub-and-spoke ensures decentralised R&D. Each hub → a specific vertical (computing, communication, materials, sensing). Encourages innovation + industry-academia collaboration.
- Statement 2 (Correct): Targeting 50–1000 qubit computers → far more powerful than classical supercomputers. Applications: drug discovery, cryptography, weather/climate prediction.
- Statement 3 (Correct): Quantum communication = hack-proof. Goal = 2000 km secure fibre + satellite-based systems for defence and governance.
Other countries like China have already tested quantum satellite “Micius.” India entering race secures digital sovereignty.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
- Statement 1 (Correct): Hub-and-spoke ensures decentralised R&D. Each hub → a specific vertical (computing, communication, materials, sensing). Encourages innovation + industry-academia collaboration.
- Statement 2 (Correct): Targeting 50–1000 qubit computers → far more powerful than classical supercomputers. Applications: drug discovery, cryptography, weather/climate prediction.
- Statement 3 (Correct): Quantum communication = hack-proof. Goal = 2000 km secure fibre + satellite-based systems for defence and governance.
Other countries like China have already tested quantum satellite “Micius.” India entering race secures digital sovereignty.
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