Daily Quiz 05 September 2025
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Long-Range Missiles Arsenal of India, consider the following:
BrahMos missile has a strike range of approximately 450 km and can be launched from land, sea, and air platforms.
The indigenous Astra missile currently has a range exceeding 200 km.
The Indian Air Force plans to enhance its long-range strike capabilities post Operation Sindoor.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1: Correct.
BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile with a range of about 450 km (some upgraded versions extend beyond 250 km). It can be launched from multiple platforms — land vehicles, ships, submarines, and aircraft — offering tactical flexibility. - Statement 2: Incorrect.
The current operational Astra missile has a range of about 110 km. Longer-range variants are under development, aiming to exceed 160–200 km, but this capability is not yet fully operational. - Statement 3: Correct.
After the success of Operation Sindoor, the Indian Air Force is focusing on inducting longer-range missiles to strike targets beyond enemy air defense systems, enhancing deterrence and operational reach.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1: Correct.
BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile with a range of about 450 km (some upgraded versions extend beyond 250 km). It can be launched from multiple platforms — land vehicles, ships, submarines, and aircraft — offering tactical flexibility. - Statement 2: Incorrect.
The current operational Astra missile has a range of about 110 km. Longer-range variants are under development, aiming to exceed 160–200 km, but this capability is not yet fully operational. - Statement 3: Correct.
After the success of Operation Sindoor, the Indian Air Force is focusing on inducting longer-range missiles to strike targets beyond enemy air defense systems, enhancing deterrence and operational reach.
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement I: Ethanol blending in India helps reduce fuel imports and lower emissions while promoting renewable energy.
Statement II: Ethanol blending is entirely free of challenges such as vehicle compatibility, food security risks, and pricing transparency.
Statement III: India has advanced the target for achieving 20% ethanol blending (E20) from 2030 to 2025.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct because ethanol is a renewable biofuel produced by fermenting biomass sugars and blending it with petrol reduces dependence on fossil fuel imports. This helps save foreign exchange (up to $10 billion annually with 20% blending) and lowers carbon emissions, contributing to environmental benefits. The Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme reflects this policy direction.
- Statement II is incorrect because despite its benefits, ethanol blending in India faces several serious challenges:
- Vehicle compatibility issues: Older vehicles, especially those manufactured before 2023 or those meeting BS 2 emission norms, may not be designed to handle higher ethanol blends beyond E5, risking engine damage.
- Food security concerns: Using food crops like broken rice and maize for ethanol production could exacerbate food shortages and impact prices, especially during bad harvest years.
- Pricing transparency gap: The expected reduction in retail fuel prices due to cheaper ethanol is often not passed on to consumers, reducing public trust.
- Technical challenges: Lower energy density of ethanol leads to reduced fuel efficiency; ethanol can cause corrosion in fuel system components.
- Policy concerns: Consumers currently have no choice regarding ethanol blending levels, which affects older vehicle owners and raises liability issues.
- Statement III is correct as the original target to achieve 20% ethanol blending (E20) by 2030 was advanced to 2025 due to faster-than-expected progress in production capacity and blending levels.
Therefore, Statement I and Statement III are true, while Statement II is false due to the outlined challenges. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct because ethanol is a renewable biofuel produced by fermenting biomass sugars and blending it with petrol reduces dependence on fossil fuel imports. This helps save foreign exchange (up to $10 billion annually with 20% blending) and lowers carbon emissions, contributing to environmental benefits. The Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme reflects this policy direction.
- Statement II is incorrect because despite its benefits, ethanol blending in India faces several serious challenges:
- Vehicle compatibility issues: Older vehicles, especially those manufactured before 2023 or those meeting BS 2 emission norms, may not be designed to handle higher ethanol blends beyond E5, risking engine damage.
- Food security concerns: Using food crops like broken rice and maize for ethanol production could exacerbate food shortages and impact prices, especially during bad harvest years.
- Pricing transparency gap: The expected reduction in retail fuel prices due to cheaper ethanol is often not passed on to consumers, reducing public trust.
- Technical challenges: Lower energy density of ethanol leads to reduced fuel efficiency; ethanol can cause corrosion in fuel system components.
- Policy concerns: Consumers currently have no choice regarding ethanol blending levels, which affects older vehicle owners and raises liability issues.
- Statement III is correct as the original target to achieve 20% ethanol blending (E20) by 2030 was advanced to 2025 due to faster-than-expected progress in production capacity and blending levels.
Therefore, Statement I and Statement III are true, while Statement II is false due to the outlined challenges. Hence, option (d) is correct.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
1 pointsThe Perito Moreno Glacier in Argentina has attracted climate concerns recently because:
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Perito Moreno Glacier, also known as the “White Giant,” is located in the southern hemisphere in Argentina. Despite earlier stability, it has shown signs of thinning rapidly, which may lead to retreat due to climate change impacts. It is not expanding (a), not affected by volcanic activity (c), and is located in the southern hemisphere (d).Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Perito Moreno Glacier, also known as the “White Giant,” is located in the southern hemisphere in Argentina. Despite earlier stability, it has shown signs of thinning rapidly, which may lead to retreat due to climate change impacts. It is not expanding (a), not affected by volcanic activity (c), and is located in the southern hemisphere (d). -
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Dhirio (Goan bullfighting), consider the following statements:
- Dhirio is a traditional form of bullfighting practiced in Goa and is closely linked to post-harvest celebrations and local church feasts.
- The event involves bulls fighting by locking horns and repeatedly charging at each other, encouraged by their trainers.
- The practice was banned in Goa in 1997 following a High Court directive against all forms of animal fights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
- Statement 1: Correct.
Dhirio or dhiri is deeply embedded in Goa’s culture, traditionally associated with celebrations after harvest and local church feasts, marking it as a community and cultural event. - Statement 2: Correct.
The bullfighting involves two bulls charging and locking horns repeatedly, with trainers provoking and guiding them from behind, reflecting the contest’s competitive nature.
Statement 3: Correct.
The Goa High Court issued a ban in 1997 on all forms of animal fights, including dhirio, on grounds of animal cruelty, making the practice illegal since then.Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
- Statement 1: Correct.
Dhirio or dhiri is deeply embedded in Goa’s culture, traditionally associated with celebrations after harvest and local church feasts, marking it as a community and cultural event. - Statement 2: Correct.
The bullfighting involves two bulls charging and locking horns repeatedly, with trainers provoking and guiding them from behind, reflecting the contest’s competitive nature.
Statement 3: Correct.
The Goa High Court issued a ban in 1997 on all forms of animal fights, including dhirio, on grounds of animal cruelty, making the practice illegal since then. -
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
1 pointsRegarding OCI (Overseas Citizen of India) Cardholders, consider the following:
- OCI status is available to persons of Indian origin up to their great-grandchildren, but excludes those who have ever been citizens of Pakistan or Bangladesh.
- OCI cardholders can vote in Indian elections and hold constitutional government posts.
- Recent rules allow cancellation of OCI status if the cardholder is charge-sheeted for offenses punishable with seven years or more imprisonment.
How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1: Correct.
OCI eligibility extends to persons of Indian origin and their descendants up to the great-grandchild generation, excluding those who have ever been citizens of Pakistan or Bangladesh. - Statement 2: Incorrect.
OCI cardholders do not have voting rights in Indian elections and are barred from holding constitutional or government positions.
Statement 3: Correct.
The new rule (effective 2024–25) allows cancellation of OCI status not only for conviction with two years or more imprisonment but also if formally charge-sheeted in cases with punishments of seven years or more.Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1: Correct.
OCI eligibility extends to persons of Indian origin and their descendants up to the great-grandchild generation, excluding those who have ever been citizens of Pakistan or Bangladesh. - Statement 2: Incorrect.
OCI cardholders do not have voting rights in Indian elections and are barred from holding constitutional or government positions.
Statement 3: Correct.
The new rule (effective 2024–25) allows cancellation of OCI status not only for conviction with two years or more imprisonment but also if formally charge-sheeted in cases with punishments of seven years or more.
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