BPSC 71st Prelims Answer Key 2025: Official Answer Key Out, Download PDF

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Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC) has officially released the BPSC 71st Prelims Answer Key 2025. The examination took place on 13 September 2025, and the answer key is released on 19 September 2025. The candidates who appeared in the examination can now download the series-wise provisional answer key (A, B, C, D) from the official website bpsc.bihar.gov.in.
It is recruiting 1298 vacancies in different departments like the Bihar Administrative Service, the Bihar Police Service (DSP), Bihar Financial Services, Cooperative Services, and Statistical Services.

BPSC 71st Prelims 2025 Exam Overview

The BPSC 71st Prelims 2025 Exam was conducted successfully on 13th September 2025 in 37 districts of Bihar. Thousands of candidates appeared for this extremely competitive exam, which is the first phase of the recruitment process for the Bihar Civil Services. The exam comprised 150 objective-type questions covering topics such as General Studies, History, Polity, Geography, Current Affairs, and others. Below is a comprehensive exam outline to assist candidates with the most important highlights of the BPSC 71st Prelims 2025:

Particulars	Details
Exam Name	BPSC 71st Combined Competitive Examination (CCE) Prelims 2025
Conducting Body	Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC)
Exam Date	13th September 2025
Exam Timing	12 Noon – 2 PM
Total Questions	150 (Objective Type)
Marks per Question	1 mark each
Negative Marking	Yes (⅓ mark deduction for wrong answer)
Official Website	bpsc.bih.nic.in

BPSC 71st Prelims Official Answer Key 2025 PDF Link

The BPSC 71st Prelims Answer Key 2025 PDF released on the official website of the Bihar Public Service Commission at bpsc.bihar.gov.in. Contenders can download the answer key of all sets (A, B, C, D) in order to match their answers and find their estimated scores. Initially, a tentative answer key will be put out, followed by the final one after considering objections.

BPSC 71st Prelims Answer Key 2025 PDF link

How to Download BPSC 71st Prelims Answer Key 2025?

Follow these steps to download the official answer key once it is released:

Visit the official website – bpsc.bihar.gov.in.
On the homepage, click on the link “BPSC 71st Prelims Answer Key 2025”.
Select the question paper set (A, B, C, or D).
The answer key PDF will appear on the screen.
Download and save the PDF for cross-checking your responses.

BPSC 71st Prelims Cutoff 2025

71st BPSC Prelims 2025 Exam Analysis by BPSC StudyIQ

BPSC StudyIQ provides the best analysis of the 71st BPSC Prelims 2025 exam. Get a sense of the difficulty level, question types, and the proportion of questions from each subject. This video is very useful for candidates appearing for future BPSC exams and seeking exam trends and strategies.

BPSC 71st Prelims 2025 Answer Key with Explanation

The Prelims GS paper consisted of History, Polity, Geography, Economics, Science, Environment, Bihar-specific topics, and Current Affairs. Around 20–25 questions were from current affairs, making it a decisive section. Here are the 71st BPSC questions with detailed explanation for every question.

Q1. According to the UNDP Human Development Index (HDI) Report 2025, life expectancy in India increased from 58.6 years in 1990 to how many years in 2023?
(A) 72 years
(B) 73 years
(C) 74 years
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: A

Solution:

According to the UNDP Human Development Index (HDI) Report 2025, India’s life expectancy increased from 58.6 years in 1990 to 72 years in 2023. This represents the highest life expectancy ever recorded for India since the inception of the HDI.

Q2. In which city was the AI Action Summit held in February 2025?
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Paris
(C) Rome
(D) More than one of the above

Answer:b

Solution:

The AI Action Summit was held in Paris, France, on February 10–11, 2025. The event took place at the historic Grand Palais and was co-chaired by French President Emmanuel Macron and Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

Q3. At the 96th Academy Awards (2024), Emma Stone won the Oscar for Actress in a Leading Role for her performance in which film?
(A) La La Land
(B) Poor Things
(C) The Favourite
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: B

Solution:

At the 96th Academy Awards in 2024, Emma Stone won the Oscar for Best Actress for her performance in Poor Things. In this film, she portrayed Bella Baxter, a childlike woman in Victorian London who is brought back to life through a brain transplant and embarks on a journey of self-discovery. Directed by Yorgos Lanthimos, the film is adapted from Alasdair Gray’s novel and features a distinctive blend of fantasy and dark comedy.

Q4. Which Gujarati film won the 70th National Film Award for Best Feature Film promoting national, social and environmental values?
(A) Hellaro
(B) Chhello Show
(C) Kutch Express
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: C

Solution:

The Gujarati film Kutch Express won the Best Feature Film Promoting National, Social, and Environmental Values at the 70th National Film Awards. Directed by Viral Shah and produced by Soul Sutra LLP, the film was recognised for its impactful storytelling that aligns with national and social themes.

Q5. Which of the following individuals or organisations was a recipient of the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2024?
(A) Phuntsho, Karma
(B) Rural Doctors Movement
(C) Miyazaki Hayao
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: D

Solution:

2024 Ramon Magsaysay Awardees

Karma Phuntsho (Bhutan): A former Buddhist monk and scholar, Karma Phuntsho has been instrumental in preserving Bhutan’s cultural heritage.
Miyazaki Hayao (Japan): Renowned filmmaker and co-founder of Studio Ghibli, Miyazaki Hayao is celebrated for using animation to illustrate the human condition. His work, especially in inspiring children as torchbearers of imagination, has left an indelible mark on the world of cinema and storytelling.
Farwiza Farhan (Indonesia): An environmentalist and social justice advocate, Farwiza Farhan has dedicated her efforts to protecting Indonesia’s rich natural resources.
Dr. Nguyễn Thị Ngọc Phượng (Vietnam): A physician and advocate for Agent Orange victims, Dr. Nguyễn Thị Ngọc Phượng has been a tireless advocate for the victims of Agent Orange, a toxic chemical used during the Vietnam War. Having witnessed firsthand the devastating effects of the chemical on countless lives, she has been a relentless advocate, seeking justice and providing care for those affected.
Rural Doctors Movement (Thailand): A collective of healthcare professionals, the Rural Doctors Movement has revolutionized rural health care in Thailand. Their historic and continuing contributions ensure that rural populations receive essential medical services, emphasizing the importance of health as a fundamental right

Q6. Which of the following statements are true about Akashteer?
(A) Akashteer is the core of the Indian Army’s Air Defence (AAD) system
(B) It seamlessly integrates India’s larger C4ISR
(C) It reflects a strategic shift from passive defence to proactive retaliation
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: D

Solution:

The core of India’s AAD system is the AAD missile system itself (part of the Ballistic Missile Defence programme). Akash missiles are different—they are surface-to-air missiles for air defence, but Akashteer is an Indian Army project aimed at integrating missile defence and air defence sensors, not the core of AAD.
Akashteer is designed to integrate air defence with C4ISR (Command, Control, Communications, Computers, Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance) for better situational awareness and coordinated response.
The system allows the Indian Army to actively track and engage aerial threats, moving beyond just reactive/passive measures.

Q7. Which of the following defence platforms are part of India’s growing indigenous military ecosystem supported by the Make in India initiative?
(A) F-35 Lightning II
(B) Main Battle Tank (MBT) Arjun
(C) Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS)
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: D

Solution:

F-35 Lightning II – This is a U.S.-made fighter jet, not indigenous to India, so it’s not part of Make in India.
(MBT Arjun – This is India’s indigenously developed main battle tank, part of the Make in India push.
ATAGS – The Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System is also developed in India, another indigenous platform.

Q8. Which day is observed as Holocaust Memorial Day?
(A) January 15
(B) January 27
(C) February 10
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: B

Solution:

Holocaust Memorial Day is observed on January 27 each year.
This date was chosen because it marks the anniversary of the liberation of Auschwitz-Birkenau, the largest Nazi concentration and extermination camp, in 1945. It is a day to remember the six million Jews and millions of other victims of the Holocaust.

Q9. What is the title of the book by Banu Mushtaq that won the 2025 International Booker Prize?
(A) Light of the Heart
(B) Heart Lamp
(C) Soul Lantern
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: B

Solution:

The title of the book by Banu Mushtaq that won the 2025 International Booker Prize is Heart Lamp: Selected Stories.
Originally written in Kannada between 1990 and 2023, the collection was translated into English by Deepa Bhasthi.

Q10. According to the Indus Waters Treaty, the three eastern rivers are allocated to India. Which of the following is not one of them?
(A) Jhelum
(B) Ravi
(C) Sutlej
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: A

Solution:

The Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) of 1960 allocates the rivers of the Indus basin between India and Pakistan:

Eastern rivers (allocated to India): Ravi, Beas, Sutlej
Western rivers (allocated to Pakistan, with limited use for India): Indus, Jhelum, Chenab

Q11. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about the Capability Poverty Measure (CPM) developed by the UNDP?

CPM includes child malnutrition as a proxy for lack of health and nourishment.
Female illiteracy is included to reflect deprivation in education and knowledge.
It considers male illiteracy as a key indicator of capability poverty.
It includes lack of access to clean drinking water as an important indicator of capability poverty.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 1
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: D

Solution:

Child malnutrition is indeed one of the indicators of capability deprivation, reflecting poor health and nutrition.
Female illiteracy is specifically used to capture gender-based educational deprivation, which is central to capability poverty.
CPM emphasises female illiteracy because of gender disparities; male illiteracy is not used as a primary indicator.
It includes lack of access to clean drinking water as an important indicator of capability poverty.

Q12. Which of the following is not among the top ten principal commodities of India’s export during April–September 2024-25?
(A) Petroleum Products
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Basmati Rice
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: D

Solution:

Among the options provided, (D) More than one of the above is the correct answer, as both Iron and Steel and Basmati Rice were not among India’s top ten export commodities during April–September 2024–25.

Q13. According to India State of Forest Report 2023 (ISFR 2023):
(A) The total forest and tree cover of the country is 15% of the geographical area of the country.
(B) Top three states having the largest recorded forest area (RFA) are Jharkhand, Andaman & Nicobar and Manipur.
(C) The maximum tree cover has been found in the State of Maharashtra, followed by Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: C

Solution:

The total forest and tree cover is 25.17%, not 15%.
The top three states by recorded forest area are Madhya Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh.
The states with the highest tree cover percentages are Lakshadweep, Mizoram, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands.
The maximum tree cover has been found in the State of Maharashtra followed by Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.

Q14. Which of the following countries had greater share than India in the global services export in 2023?
(A) Russia
(B) Ireland
(C) Indonesia
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: B4

Solution:

In 2023, Ireland’s total services exports amounted to €399 billion (approximately $437 billion), marking a significant increase from €371.6 billion in 2022.
In 2023, India achieved a significant milestone in global trade by increasing its services exports to $345 billion, marking an 11.4% year-on-year growth.

Q15. Which of the following statement/s is/are not correct about the U-WIN portal of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare?
(A) It provides QR-based e-vaccination certificates
(B) It facilitates the creation of Ayushman Bharat Health Accounts (ABHA) for parents and children
(C) The portal is accessible in 11 regional languages
(D) None of the above

Answer: D

Solution:

The U-WIN portal generates QR-based, digitally verifiable vaccination certificates for each administered dose. These certificates can be downloaded by beneficiaries through a link included in the vaccination acknowledgment SMS sent after each vaccination event.
The U-WIN platform allows beneficiaries to create Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) IDs for themselves and Child ABHA IDs for children up to the age of 6 years. This facilitates comprehensive health record maintenance and interoperability within the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission ecosystem.
To enhance accessibility, the U-WIN portal is available in 11 regional languages, including Hindi. This ensures widespread usability across diverse linguistic communities.

Q16. Which organisation jointly developed the National Urban Innovation Stack (NUIS) Digital Blueprint with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA)?
(A) Ministry of Electronics and IT
(B) National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA)
(C) NITI Aayog
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: B

Solution:

The National Urban Innovation Stack (NUIS) Digital Blueprint was developed by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) with support from the Smart Cities Mission and the National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA).

Q17. Which state had the highest constructed road length under Bharatmala Pariyojana as of 31st October 2024?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: A

Solution:

Rajasthan-2,241

Uttar Pradesh-1,854

Maharashtra-1,837

Q18. Before the launch of Kisan Rin Portal (KRP), farmers used to submit manual claims under the Interest Subvention and Prompt Repayment Incentive schemes to which of the following institution/s?
(A) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare and NABARD
(B) Reserve Bank of India and NABARD
(C) National Payments Corporation of India and Reserve Bank of India
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: A

Solution:

Before the launch of the Kisan Rin Portal (KRP), farmers had to submit manual claims for Interest Subvention and Prompt Repayment Incentive schemes through formal banking channels, as these schemes were administered in coordination with government authorities and banks. Specifically:
Interest Subvention Scheme and Prompt Repayment Incentive are implemented through Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks, under the oversight of NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) and the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

Q19. India’s foreign exchange reserves:
(A) Increased to around USD 640 billion as of the end of December 2024
(B) Are seventh largest in the world
(C) Decreased caused by a BoP deficit of around USD 24 billion in 2024
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: D

Solution:

As of December 27, 2024, India’s foreign exchange reserves stood at approximately USD 640.3 billion, according to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Economic Survey.
India continues to hold its position as the fourth-largest holder of forex reserves globally, following China, Japan, and Switzerland.
India’s foreign exchange reserves saw a decline in 2024, primarily due to a Balance of Payments (BoP) deficit of around USD 24 billion. A BoP deficit occurs when a country’s imports of goods, services, and capital outflows exceed its exports and capital inflows, which in turn pressures the forex reserves as the Reserve Bank of India may use its reserves to stabilize the currency and meet external obligations.

Q20. As per NFHS-5 data, which of the following state(s) recorded less than 6% of the population as multidimensionally poor in 2019-20?
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: D

Solution:

According to NFHS-5 (2019–21) data on multidimensional poverty in India, Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh recorded less than 6% of their population as multidimensionally poor.

Q21. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
a) Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme
b) Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI)
c) The Lifestyle for Environment (LiFE) strategy
d) National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)

List-II

Introduced in the Union Budget for 2023-24
Aims to reduce emissions in energy-intensive industries
Launched in 2019
Launched at COP26 in Glasgow in November 2021

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
(B) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
(C) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: C

Solution

PAT scheme aims to reduce emissions in energy-intensive industries. MISHTI was introduced in Union Budget 2023-24. LiFE strategy was launched at COP26 in 2021. NCAP started in 2019 for air quality improvement. These initiatives target environmental sustainability and pollution control in India.

Q22. According to Annual PLFS 2023-24 report:
(A) There is greater increase in Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) of rural females as compared to urban females since 2022
(B) Among the 36 states and union territories, 19 states have a Workforce Participation Rate (WPR) (for all ages) below the national average of 43.7 percent
(C) The share of female workers in agriculture has declined significantly from 2017-18 to 2023-24
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: A

PLFS 2023-24 reports a greater increase in Labour Force Participation Rate of rural females compared to urban females since 2022. This indicates rising workforce inclusion in rural areas as economic activities and social attitudes shift towards more gender-inclusive labor markets.

Q23. Which of the following was NOT the outcome of Science, Technology and Innovation Policy 2020?
(A) One nation, one subscription
(B) Research and Innovation Excellence Frameworks (RIEF)
(C) Atal Innovation Mission
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: C.

Atal Innovation Mission predates the STI Policy 2020 and was not an outcome of it. The policy introduced ‘One nation, one subscription’ and Research and Innovation Excellence Frameworks to improve India’s scientific research and innovation ecosystem.

Q24. The share of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises in the country’s Gross Value Added (GVA) has increased from ___ in 2020-23.
(A) 30.3%, 35.6%
(B) 31.5%, 36.8%
(C) 35.1%, 38.3%
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: B
The share of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises in India’s GVA increased from 31.5% to 36.8% in 2022-23, reflecting their growing role in economic output and employment generation, improving industrial diversification.

Q25. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the Indian cement industry?

Around 57% of India’s cement industry is concentrated in a few major states like Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
India is the largest producer of cement in the world.
Most cement plants in India are located far from raw material sources and near to the ports for export purposes.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: A

About 57% of India’s cement industry is concentrated in states like Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh. India is not the largest producer globally. Most plants are located near raw material sources, not ports, reflecting logistic and cost considerations in the industry.

Q26. What is the primary objective of Bihar’s Mission Daksh?
(A) To increase school enrolment in primary schools in rural areas
(B) To provide vocational training to teachers at senior secondary level
(C) To offer personalised mentoring for lagging students to reach grade-level competencies
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: C

Bihar’s Mission Daksh’s primary objective is personalized mentoring for lagging students to help them reach grade-level competencies, improving education quality and addressing learning gaps.

Q27. Which of the following is NOT one of the components under the YUVA framework of the Bihar Startup Policy 2022?
(A) Vibrancy in the education system
(B) Regulatory enablers for support
(C) International Market expansion schemes
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: C

International market expansion schemes are not part of Bihar Startup Policy 2022’s YUVA framework, which focuses on education vibrancy and regulatory support to foster local entrepreneurship.

Q28.Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Bihar’s economic performance in 2023-24?
(A) Bihar’s per capita GSDP at current prices increased by 12.8% in 2023-24 over the previous year.
(B) The estimated share of the tertiary sector in Bihar’s GSVA (constant prices) in 2023-24 was 58.6%
(C) The Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) formed 4.6% of GSDP at current prices in 2023-24
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: D

Bihar’s per capita GSDP rose 12.8% in 2023-24, tertiary sector contributed about 58.6% of GSVA, and Gross Fixed Capital Formation formed 4.6% of GSDP, indicating economic growth and structural development.

Q29. Consider the following statements:

The proportion of the young population (0-19 years) in Bihar is projected to decline significantly by 2041.
Bihar’s demographic dividend is expected to peak around 2041.
The elderly population (60+ years) in Bihar is expected to rise more sharply than in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1 and 3 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: B

Projections show Bihar’s young population proportion declining by 2041 while elderly population rises sharply. Bihar’s demographic dividend peaks around 2041, reflecting demographic transition patterns affecting economic and social policy planning.

Q30 According to PLFS 2023-24, which of the following statements is correct regarding employment among women in Bihar?
(A) Most women are employed in formal, regular wage jobs
(B) The majority of women are self-employed, often serving as helpers in household enterprises
(C) Majority of women were engaged in secondary sector
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: B

Most women in Bihar are self-employed, often assisting in household enterprises. Formal wage employment and secondary sector engagement for women are comparatively lower, highlighting traditional employment patterns and challenges in women’s workforce participation.

Q31. The power to recruit the Secretarial staff of the House of the People is vested in:
(A) Union Public Service Commission
(B) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)
(C) Staff Selection Commission
(D) President after consultation with the Speaker of the House of the people

Answer: B

The Prime Minister’s Office has the authority to recruit secretarial staff of the House of the People, ensuring administrative support aligned with executive priorities and parliamentary functions.

Q32. Attorney General of India:
(A) He gives advice to the President on legal matters
(B) Is not entitled of audience except the Supreme Court
(C) Cannot participate in the proceedings in the House of Parliament
(D) Is a whole time counsel for the government

Answer: A

The Attorney General advises the President on legal matters in addition to representing the government in the Supreme Court. He holds a key advisory and legal role.

Q33. Consider the following subjects belonging to different lists of the constitution of India. Which of the following subjects belong to concurrent list?

Protection of wildlife
Income on agriculture
Tax on Electricity consumption or sale
Price control
Out of these:
(A) 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 1 and 4 are correct
(C) Only 4 is correct
(D) Only 2 is correct

Answer: B

Protection of wildlife and price control belong to the concurrent list, allowing both central and state governments to legislate in these areas for harmonized governance.

Q34. Which of the following Directive Principles do not follow Gandhian Principles?

Organization of Village Panchayats
Common Civil Code
Promotion of cottage Industry in rural area
Right to work
(A) Only 2
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 3

Answer: C

Common Civil Code and Right to Work do not follow Gandhian principles, as Gandhiji emphasized decentralized village communities and cottage industries rather than uniform civil laws or guaranteed employment.

Q35. Which pair is not correctly matched?
(A) Forms of oath — 3rd schedule
(B) Allocation of seats in the council of state — 4th Schedule
(C) Scheduled areas — 6th schedule
(D) Union List — 7th schedule

Answer: C

Scheduled areas pertain to the 5th Schedule, not the 6th Schedule, which covers tribal areas of Northeast India. Other schedule matches given are correct.

Q36. Consider the following statements about Central Government:

Ministries and Departments are formed by the Prime Minister with consultation of the Cabinet Secretary.

Every Minister is allocated Ministry by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Out of these:
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Answer: B

Only the President, on the advice of the Prime Minister, allocates Ministries to Ministers. Ministries and Departments are formed in consultation with the Cabinet, not just the Cabinet Secretary.

Q37. What is true about the proceedings of the State Legislature?
(A) Advocate General has right to vote
(B) Business in the Legislature shall be transacted only in Hindi or in English
(C) It can discuss the conduct of any judge of the High Court
(D) Validity of proceedings shall be not be in question on account of any alleged irregularity

Answer: B

Business in State Legislatures is conducted in Hindi or English as official languages. Advocate General does not have voting rights, and judiciary conduct is not typically discussed in legislature.

Q38 The constitution of India provides for reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights but reasonableness must keep in mind that:

The interest of the general public is safeguarded

Prevailing social value and also social needs are not met

Decided principles can be bypassed
Collective good is not greater
Out of these:
(A) 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 1 and 2 are correct
(C) Only 4 is correct
(D) Only 1 is correct

Answer: B

Reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights must protect public interest and social needs while following decided constitutional principles, ensuring collective welfare alongside individual freedoms.

Q39. Who among the following determines the qualification which shall be requisite for appointment as member of the finance commission?
(A) Council of Ministers
(B) President of India
(C) Parliament by law
(D) Union Cabinet

Answer: C

Parliament by law determines qualifications for Finance Commission members, allowing flexibility and legislative oversight in appointing competent members.

Q40. Consider the following statements:

The summoning of the House means convocation
Prorogation ends a session
Dissolution terminates a House
Prorogation of a session can be effected by the leader of the House alone
Out of these which is not true?
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) Only 2
(D) Only 4

Answer: D

Only the leader of the House cannot prorogue a session; this power lies with the President or Governor, making statement 4 incorrect. Others are true about parliamentary procedures.

Q41. Who is empowered to review financial position of the Panchayats?
(A) Chairman of Block Committee
(B) Chief Minister
(C) Chairman of District Council
(D) Finance Commission constituted by the Governor

Answer: D

The Finance Commission constituted by the Governor is empowered to review the financial position of Panchayats. It assesses revenue needs, grants, and financial management, ensuring Panchayats have adequate funds for local governance, development projects, and transparent fiscal practices in line with constitutional provisions.

Q42 The Atmanirbhar Bharat Scheme announced by the Government helps in:

Enhancing India’s manufacturing capabilities and exports across the industries

Incentivizing foreign investments for domestic production
Out of these:
(A) 1 is correct
(B) 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Answer: C

The Atmanirbhar Bharat Scheme focuses on enhancing India’s manufacturing capabilities and exports, while also incentivizing foreign investments for domestic production. This dual approach strengthens self-reliance, boosts the economy, and integrates India into global markets through growth in local industries and favorable investment environments.

Q43. What is the main purpose of Panchayati Raj?
(A) To increase employment
(B) To increase agriculture production
(C) To increase people’s political awareness
(D) To enable people to participate in development administration

Answer: D

The main purpose of Panchayati Raj is to enable people’s participation in development administration. It devolves power to local governing bodies, encouraging democratic decision-making, community involvement, and efficient implementation of welfare programs at grassroots level, promoting decentralized governance.

Q44. What is true about the Censure Motion?

(A) It is different from the No-confidence motion

(B) It is not different from No-confidence motion

(D) Permission of the House is not essential for its presentation

Answer: A

Censure Motion is different from a No-confidence motion. While both express dissatisfaction with the government, a censure motion is a formal disapproval without necessarily causing government fall. No-confidence motions, if passed, require the government to resign, making their political consequences distinct.

Q45. Which one of the following subjects fall within the jurisdiction of both High Court and Supreme Court?
(A) Dispute among States
(B) Dispute between Centre and State
(C) Protection of fundamental rights
(D) Protection from the violation of the constitution

Answer: C

Protection of fundamental rights falls under both High Court and Supreme Court jurisdictions. Citizens can approach either court for constitutional remedy when their rights are infringed, ensuring multiple legal avenues for safeguarding civil liberties within India’s judicial framework.

Q46. Which Indian leader for the first time used the ‘safety-valve’ theory to attack the Moderates in the Congress?

(A) Lala Lajpat Rai

(B) Bipin Chandra Pal

(D) Dadabhai Naoroji

Answer: A

Lala Lajpat Rai was the first Indian leader to use the ‘safety-valve’ theory to attack Congress Moderates. He argued that moderate leaders acted as safety valves releasing public pressure without revolutionary change, prompting stronger nationalist efforts for independence.

Q47. At which Viceroy was a bomb thrown during the course of his state entry into Delhi?

(A) Lord Minto

(B) Lord Curzon

(D) Lord Wavell

Answer: C

During Lord Hardinge’s state entry into Delhi, a bomb was thrown at him in an assassination attempt. This event highlighted rising nationalist resistance and unrest during British colonial rule, coinciding with political and revolutionary activities against the Raj.

Q48. Who got an opportunity to become Professor of Indian Philosophy in the University of California in 1917?

(A) Vivekanand Chattopadhyay

(B) Sohan Singh Bhakna

(D) Shyamji Krishna Varma

Answer: C

Har Dayal was appointed Professor of Indian Philosophy at the University of California in 1917. His academic career abroad helped propagate Indian culture and philosophy internationally while also engaging in political activism for Indian independence.

Q49. Name the Principal of M.A.O. College, Aligarh, who encouraged Muslim Communalism in the last decades of the 19th Century?

(A) Minto

(B) Dunlop Smith

(D) Theodore Beck

Answer: D

The Principal of M.A.O. College, Aligarh, who encouraged Muslim Communalism in the late 19th century was Theodore Beck. His tenure influenced educational policies and the rise of communal sentiments, impacting India’s political and social dynamics during colonial times.

Q50. ‘The Young India’, a Nationalist paper, was started by

(A) Mahatma Gandhi

(B) Annie Besant

(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Answer: A

Mahatma Gandhi started ‘The Young India,’ a nationalist paper advocating independence, social reform, and nonviolent resistance. It played an important role in spreading Gandhian philosophy and mobilizing public opinion against British rule.

Q51. Maginot Line exists between which countries?

(A) France & Germany

(B) U.S.A. & Canada

(D) South Korea & North Korea

Answer: A

The Maginot Line is a line of fortifications built between France and Germany before World War II designed to protect France from German invasion, symbolizing military defense strategies of the era.

Q52. Strait of Hormuz connects

(A) Red sea to Gulf of Aden

(B) The Persian Gulf to Gulf of Oman

(D) Mediterranean sea to Red sea

Answer: B

The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman, serving as a critical maritime chokepoint for global oil shipments and naval navigation in the Middle East region.

Q53. Where is “Ground Zero”?

(A) New York

(B) Greenwich

(C) Indira Point

(D) Sriharikota

Answer: A

“Ground Zero” refers to the site in New York where the World Trade Center collapsed during the 9/11 terrorist attacks. It symbolizes a major global event and subsequent memorial for victims.

Q54. Which of the following Isthmuses has been known as the ‘Devil’s Neck’?

(A) Kra Isthmuses

(B) Isthmuses of Panama

(D) Isthmuses of Corinth

Answer: A

The Kra Isthmus in Thailand is known as the ‘Devil’s Neck’ because it is a narrow land strip and potential site for a canal project bypassing the Strait of Malacca, affecting global maritime navigation.

Q55. Ladang refers to –

(A) Plantation Agriculture

(B) Shifting Agriculture

(D) Dry forming

Answer: B

Ladang refers to shifting agriculture, a traditional farming method where land is cleared, farmed briefly, then left fallow to restore fertility as farmers move to new areas.

Q56. Which is the largest river Island in the world?

(A) Majuli Island

(B) Srirangam Island

(D) Agatti Island

Answer: C

Majuli Island in Assam is the world’s largest river island, formed by the Brahmaputra River, known for its unique culture, biodiversity, and ecological significance.

Q57. The second largest river basin of India is –

(A) Narmada River basin

(B) Mahanadi river basin

(D) Kaveri river basin

Answer: C

The Godavari river basin is the second largest in India, providing water for irrigation, hydroelectric power, and supporting diverse ecosystems across central and southern India.

Q58. Which of the following is the place of confluence of the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi?

(A) Karnaprayag

(B) Vishnuprayag

(D) Devprayag

Answer: B

The confluence of the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi rivers occurs at Devprayag, where they meet to form the Ganges River, a sacred site for Hindus and a geographic landmark.

Q59. The two volcanic islands in the Indian Territory are –

(A) Bitra and Kavaratti

(B) Kavaratti and Minicoy Moore

(D) Narcondam and Barren

Answer: B

Narcondam and Barren are the two volcanic islands in the Indian Territory, located in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, known for their unique geological features.

Q60. The art of crafting which item in Meerut has received a GI tag?
(A) Musical Instruments
(B) Sports Goods
(C) Laddoo
(D) Scissors
Answer: B
Meerut’s sports goods manufacturing has received a GI (Geographical Indication) tag recognizing the unique craftsmanship and economic importance of this industry in the region.

Q61. In India the Temperate Forest Research center is in which city?

(A) Ranchi

(B) Shimla

(D) Dehradun

Answer: B

The Temperate Forest Research Center in India is located in Shimla. It focuses on studying temperate forest ecosystems, biodiversity, and conservation strategies. Shimla’s climate and location provide ideal conditions for this research, contributing to forest management and environmental sustainability in temperate regions.

Q62. Kanha National Park is established in –

(A) Assam

(B) Uttarakhand

(D) Maharashtra

Answer: C

Kanha National Park is established in Madhya Pradesh. It is famous for its tiger reserve and rich biodiversity, including rare species like the Barasingha deer. The park is an important conservation area under Project Tiger, aiming to protect tigers and their natural habitat.

Q63. ‘Loktak’ is a –

(A) Lake

(B) Valley

(D) Mountain series

Answer: A

‘Loktak’ is a lake located in Manipur. It is the largest freshwater lake in northeast India, known for its floating phumdis (heterogeneous mass of vegetation). Loktak Lake supports diverse flora and fauna and is crucial for local fishermen and ecological balance.

Q64. Which of the following parks/sanctuaries come under the project tiger in Bihar?

(A) Valmiki National Park

(B) Udaipur Wildlife Sanctuary

(D) None of these

Answer: A

Valmiki National Park in Bihar is part of Project Tiger. This sanctuary provides critical habitat for Bengal tigers and supports conservation efforts. Through protection and monitored management, the park contributes to tiger population recovery and biodiversity preservation in Bihar.

Q65. Which of the following is the state animal of Bihar?

(A) Bull

(B) Cow

(D) Horse

Answer: A

The state animal of Bihar is the Bull. It symbolises strength and agricultural importance in Bihar’s rural economy. Bulls have traditionally been integral to farming practices, representing cultural and economic significance in the state.

Q66. In which year, the Nalanda University was re-established in Bihar?

(A) 2007

(B) 2005

(D) 2014

Answer: D

Nalanda University was re-established in Bihar in 2014. The revival of this ancient university aims to restore its legacy as a center of higher learning and global academic exchange, blending traditional knowledge with modern education.

Q67. Karmanasa river originates in –
(A) Vaishali District
(B) Kaimur District
(C) Patna District
(D) Bikram District

Answer: B

The Karmanasa river originates in Kaimur District. It flows through Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, playing an important role in regional irrigation and agriculture, as well as contributing to local water resources.

Q68. Bihar produces ___% of pyrite of whole India?
(A) 85
(B) 75
(C) 95
(D) 100

Answer: C

Bihar produces approximately 95% of India’s pyrite, a mineral used in sulfuric acid production and other industrial applications. This highlights Bihar’s significant contribution to the country’s mineral resources and mining sector.

Q69. Gold is found in which district of Bihar?
(A) Jamui District
(B) Gaya District
(C) Nalanda District
(D) Bhagalpur District

Answer: A

Gold is found in Jamui District of Bihar. The district has mineral reserves including gold, attracting interest for mining and economic development, contributing to local and state economies.

Q70. Most of Bihar comes under which of the following climate types?
(A) Tropical savannah
(B) Subtropical Monsoon
(C) Hot and dry
(D) Hot and Semi Arid

Answer: B

Most of Bihar experiences a subtropical monsoon climate characterized by hot summers, cool winters, and significant seasonal rainfall driven by the monsoon. This climate influences agriculture and lifestyle in the region.

Q71. We apply a force of 200 Newtons on a wooden box and push it on the floor at constant velocity. The marginal friction force will be:
(A) 200 Newtons
(B) 100 Newtons
(C) 300 Newtons
(D) 400 Newtons

Answer: A

When pushing a wooden box at constant velocity with a force of 200 Newtons, the marginal friction force opposing the motion is also 200 Newtons, as friction balances the applied force to maintain constant velocity.

Q72. A truck starts from rest down a hill with a constant acceleration. It achieves 400 meters in 20 seconds. If the weight of the truck is 7 tons then what will be the force acting on it?
(A) 12000 Newtons
(B) 11000 Newtons
(C) 13000 Newtons
(D) 14000 Newtons
Answer: B
With a truck accelerating down the hill covering 400 meters in 20 seconds and weighing 7 tons, the force acting on it is approximately 11,000 Newtons, calculated from mass and acceleration using Newton’s second law.

Q73. Energy consumed in a home is 250 units. Then the total energy in Joules will be:
(A) 8 × 10⁶
(B) 9 × 10⁵
(C) 9 × 10⁸
(D) 10⁵

Answer: C

Energy consumed at home is often measured in units (kWh). 250 units equals about

9×108

joules, converting kilowatt-hours to joules based on energy units and time, representing total electrical energy usage.

Q74. In which medium, the speed of sound is maximum?
(A) Water
(B) Steel
(C) Air
(D) Hydrogen

Answer: B

Sound travels fastest in steel among given media due to its high density and elasticity, allowing rapid vibration transmission. Speed in solids like steel exceeds that in liquids (water) and gases (air, hydrogen).

Q75. The potential energy of a freely falling body continuously decreases.
(A) The principle of conservation of energy is not violated
(B) The principle of conservation of energy is violated
(C) Gravitational force is violated
(D) Gravitational force is not violated

Answer: A

The potential energy of a freely falling body decreases as it converts into kinetic energy. This continuous decrease does not violate conservation of energy since total energy remains constant, simply transforming from one form to another.

Q76. A pair of oxen exerts a force of 140 Newton while ploughing the field. The field ploughed is 15 meters long. The work done in ploughing the length of the field is:
(A) 2000 Joule
(B) 1900 Joule
(C) 2100 Joule
(D) 2200 Joule

Answer: C

If oxen exert a 140 Newton force to plough a 15-meter field, the work done (force × distance) is 2100 Joules. This quantifies mechanical energy used in agricultural activity.

Q77. The focal distance of a plane mirror is –
(A) –1 cm
(B) +1 cm
(C) 2 cm
(D) Infinity

Answer: D

The focal distance of a plane mirror is infinite, implying parallel rays remain parallel after reflection. Plane mirrors do not converge or diverge rays but produce virtual, same-sized images at equal distance behind the mirror.

Q78. Which term in the following does not denote the electric power in an electric circuit?
(A) IR²
(B) I²R
(C) VI
(D) V²/R

Answer: A

IR² does not denote electric power; power formulas include I²R, VI, and V²/R, representing electrical energy conversion per unit time. IR² is dimensionally incorrect for power measurement.

Q79. In a short circuit, the value of electric current in a time circuit:
(A) Do not change
(B) Very low
(C) Increases very high
(D) Continuously changing

Answer: C

In a short circuit, electric current increases very high suddenly due to near-zero resistance, potentially causing damage and requiring protective measures.

Q80. What is the device to protect equipment from electric shock?
(A) Generator
(B) Fuse
(C) Motor
(D) Current controller

Answer: B

A fuse protects equipment from electric shock by breaking the circuit if current exceeds safe levels, preventing overheating, fire hazards, and damage to electrical devices.

Q81. pH value of 0.1 N HCl solution is approximately:
(A) 11.0
(B) 1.0
(C) 10
(D) 2.0

Answer: B

0.1 N HCl solution is acidic, with a pH close to 1.0 because pH is the negative logarithm of hydrogen ion concentration. Since 0.1 N means 0.1 mol/L HCl, its pH is approximately 1, indicating high acidity of the solution.

Q82. Which compound is known as night glowing pigment from below?
(A) Copper sulphide doped zinc oxide
(B) Europium doped strontium aluminate
(C) Barium sulphate doped copper carbonate
(D) Boron oxide doped copper sulphate

Answer: B

Europium doped strontium aluminate is known as a night glowing pigment because it exhibits strong phosphorescence in the dark. This compound stores energy from sunlight and slowly releases it as visible light, used in glow-in-the-dark applications and safety signs.

Q83. Which material is used for smart film?
(A) Calcium carbonate
(B) Indium tin oxide
(C) Zinc chloride
(D) Silica

Answer: B

Indium tin oxide (ITO) is used for smart films due to its transparent and conductive properties. ITO films are utilized in touchscreens, solar panels, and smart windows, enabling electronic functionality while remaining optically clear.

Q84. Which metal compound is used for treatment of carcinoma?
(A) Chromium
(B) Platinum
(C) Iron
(D) Chlorine

Answer: B

Platinum compounds are used in cancer treatment due to their ability to inhibit DNA replication. Drugs like cisplatin interfere with cancer cell division, making platinum effective in chemotherapy for carcinoma and other malignancies.

Q85. Which compound is used in contraceptive pills?
(A) Levonorgestrel
(B) Cholecalciferol
(C) Vanlaflexine
(D) Cetrizine

Answer: A

Levonorgestrel is a synthetic hormone used in contraceptive pills. It prevents ovulation and creates changes in cervical mucus and uterine lining, thereby reducing the chances of pregnancy and effectively functioning as birth control.

Q86. Why is oil not stored in galvanized iron pot?
(A) It produces toxic compound
(B) It reduces quality of oil
(C) Corrosion observed
(D) All of the above
Answer: B
Oil is not stored in galvanized iron pots because the metal surface can negatively affect the oil’s quality. Interaction with the pot might cause degradation or off-flavors, making the oil unsuitable for use though toxic compound production is not the primary reason.

Q87. Which compound is used for an increase of octane rating?

(A) Tetramethyl Oxide

(B) Trimethyl hexane

(C) Tetraethyllead

(D) Triethyl toluene

Answer: C

Tetraethyllead is used to increase the octane rating of gasoline, preventing engine knocking and improving fuel efficiency. Though toxic and now largely phased out, it was historically a common anti-knock additive in petrol.

Q88. Full form of PHBV biodegradable polymer :

(A) Poly hydroxy butane veratric acid

(B) Polyhydroxy butyl vaniline

(D) Poly hydroxy butyric acid veratric acid

Answer: C

Q89. Hormones are secreted by :
(A) Reproductive glands
(B) Sebaceous glands
(C) Exocrine glands
(D) Endocrine glands

Answer: D

Hormones are secreted by endocrine glands, which release chemical messengers directly into the bloodstream to regulate bodily functions like growth, metabolism, and reproduction. This distinguishes them from exocrine glands, which release substances via ducts.

Q90. Which one of the following term characterizes the interaction between herpes simplex virus and a human?
(A) Symbiosis
(B) Parasitism
(C) Endosymbiosis
(D) Endoparasitism
Answer: D
The interaction between herpes simplex virus and humans is called endoparasitism, where the virus lives inside the host cells, deriving benefits while harming the host. It is a type of parasitism internal to the organism.

Q91. Which class of immunoglobulin is the first to be produced in response to an infection?

(A) IgA

(B) IgM

(D) IgE

Answer: C

IgM is the first immunoglobulin produced during an immune response. It is effective in initial defense due to its pentameric structure, making it efficient at pathogen agglutination and complement activation, marking early infection stages.

Q92. The biological membranes are composed of :

(A) Lipids and proteins in varying combinations which are specific to each species, cell type and organelle

(B) Lipids only

(D) None of the above

Answer: A

Biological membranes consist of lipids and proteins in specific combinations unique to each species, cell type, and organelle. This structure regulates transport, signaling, and cellular interactions, maintaining cell integrity and function.

Q93. Which of the following is a non-sense codon?

(A) AUG

(B) UAA

(D) UGC

Answer: B

UAA is a nonsense codon, signaling termination in protein synthesis. Unlike AUG (start codon) or codons coding for amino acids (UUU, UGC), UAA instructs ribosomes to stop translation, ending the polypeptide chain formation.

Q94. The species which are in danger of extinction are known as?
(A) Rare
(B) Vulnerable
(C) Endangered
(D) Extinct

Answer: C

Species in danger of extinction are categorized as endangered. They face a high risk of disappearing from their habitats due to threats like habitat loss, hunting, or environmental changes, warranting urgent conservation efforts.

Q95. Which of the following is a Kharif crop?

(A) Barley

(B) Sugarcane

(D) Wheat

Answer: B

Sugarcane is a Kharif crop, grown during the monsoon season with planting in June-July and harvesting in November-December. It requires warm temperatures and abundant water, unlike rabi crops that grow in cooler seasons.

Q96. Xylem in plants is responsible for following function :

(A) Transport of foods

(B) Transport of water and dissolved minerals

(D) Transport of essential amino acids

Answer: B

Xylem in plants transports water and dissolved minerals from roots to aerial parts. This vascular tissue supports plant hydration, nutrient distribution, and structural strength, crucial for photosynthesis and growth.

Q97. Who was first to use the characteristics of vascular tissues in the classification of plants?

(A) Engler and Prantl

(B) Bentham and Hooker

(D) More than one of the above

Answer: C

A P de Condolle was the first to use vascular tissue characteristics to classify plants. His system helped differentiate plants based on internal structures, improving botanical taxonomy beyond superficial features.

Q98. The part which we eat in Mango is :

(A) Epicarp

(B) Mesocarp

(D) None of the above

Answer: B

The edible part of the mango is the mesocarp, the fleshy middle layer of the fruit surrounding the seed. It is juicy and sweet, making the fruit desirable for consumption.

Q99.Ozone day is celebrated on :

(A) 5th June

(B) 16th September

(C) 21st April

(D) 5th December

Answer: B

Ozone Day, or International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer, is celebrated on 16th September to raise awareness about ozone depletion and promote actions to protect the ozone layer.

Q100. In mycorrhizal association, the advantage of plants is :

(A) Protection

(B) Food

(D) Increased mineral absorption and disease protection

Answer: D

In mycorrhizal association, plants benefit from increased mineral absorption, especially phosphorus, and enhanced disease protection. This symbiotic relationship improves plant growth and resistance to pathogens by expanding root absorption capacity.

Q101. Which Commission accentuated the discontent in the political groups and parties for not associating any Indian member in it?

(A) Cripps Mission

(B) Welby Commission

(D) Cabinet Mission

Answer: C

The Simon Commission (1927) caused widespread discontent as it included no Indian members. It was tasked with reviewing constitutional reforms but ignored Indian political demands for representation. Its exclusion united Indian political groups in protest, fueling the nationalist movement demanding self-rule and greater Indian participation in governance.

Q102. Who assumed the command of the Indian National Army and gave famous battle cry, “Chalo Delhi”?

(A) Mohan Singh

(B) Rash Behari Bose

(D) Subhash Chandra Bose

Answer: D

Subhash Chandra Bose took command of the Indian National Army and inspired soldiers with the slogan “Chalo Delhi.” His leadership revitalized the INA’s fight against British rule, symbolizing bold resistance. Bose’s vision and call energized Indian efforts for independence by advocating armed struggle alongside political efforts.

Q103. “We shall either free India or die in the attempt …” who said it?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi

(B) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) V.D. Savarkar

Answer: A

Mahatma Gandhi declared, “We shall either free India or die in the attempt,” emphasizing total commitment to independence through non-violent means. This statement became a rallying cry for millions engaged in the freedom struggle, embodying perseverance and sacrifice against British colonialism.

Q104. Who raised the cry “Divide and Quit”?

(A) M.A. Jinnah

(B) M.A. Ansari

(D) Muhammad Iqbal

Answer: A

M.A. Jinnah raised the cry “Divide and Quit,” promoting the idea that Muslims would separate from Congress-led India if demands were unmet. This slogan reflected growing communal tensions and the political strategy leading to the demand for a separate Pakistan, influencing the partition process.

Q105. Which Act provided for the partition of India into two new dominions- India and Pakistan?

(A) Govt. of India Act, 1919

(B) Govt. of India Act, 1935

(D) None of the above

Answer: C

The Indian Independence Act, 1947 legislated the partition of British India into two sovereign dominions, India and Pakistan. It formalized the end of British rule and created new political boundaries, marking a historic and tumultuous transition in South Asian history with lasting geopolitical impact.

Q106. Which Congress leader visited Bihar in 1918 in order to strengthen the activities of Home Rule League?

(A) Annie Besant

(B) B.G. Tilak

(D) M.A. AnsAri

Answer: A

Annie Besant, a top Congress leader, visited Bihar in 1918 to strengthen the Home Rule League movement. Her leadership helped raise political awareness and mass participation against colonial rule by advocating self-government. This visit was pivotal in mobilizing public opinion in Bihar.

Q107. Champaran Agrarian Committee was appointed in agreement between :

(A) Indian Government and Raj Kumar Shukla

(B) Indian Government and Gandhiji

(D) Indian Government and Anugraha Narayan Singh

Answer: B

The Champaran Agrarian Committee was appointed in an agreement between the Indian Government and Mahatma Gandhi to investigate indigo farmers’ grievances. This collaboration marked Gandhi’s first major involvement in civil rights struggles in India, initiating his leadership in grassroots activism.

Q108. Who was the prominent leader of Kisan Sabha movement in Bihar?

(A) Sahajanand Saraswati

(B) Raj Kumar Shukla

(D) Baba Ram Chandra

Answer: A

Sahajanand Saraswati was the prominent leader of Bihar’s Kisan Sabha movement, which advocated for peasants’ rights, land reforms, and social justice. His leadership mobilized the rural poor against exploitative landlords and colonial policies, playing a crucial role in Bihar’s agrarian reform history and nationalist movement.

Q109. Who was murdered while hoisting the national flag under the area of Bikram Police Station?

(A) Raghunath Singh of Gorakhari

(B) Ram Narain of Bisrampur

(D) None of the above

Answer: D

Q110. Who became Chief Minister of Bihar in March 1939?
(A) Amugraha Narain Singh
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Shri Krishina Singh
(D) None of the above

Answer: C

Shri Krishna Singh became Bihar’s Chief Minister in March 1939. His leadership was instrumental in the province’s political reformation and independence movement, earning him recognition as Bihar’s first Chief Minister post-Government of India Act 1935, shaping Bihar’s modern governance.

Q111. Match List I with List II

List-I List-II

Places in Ancient India State

a) Karnasuvarna 1) Maharashtra
b) Pragjyotish 2) Gujarat
c) Gimar 3) West Bengal
d) Pratishthan 4) Assam

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(A) 3 4 2 1

(B) 2 4 1 3

(D) 4 2 1 3

Answer: A

Karnasuvarna is in West Bengal, Pragjyotish in Assam, Gimar in Gujarat, and Pratishthan in Maharashtra, matching ancient places with their respective modern states. This reflects the geographical-cultural mapping of ancient Indian civilizations and their locations related to present-day states.

Q112. Which one of the following is not related to the Rigvedic period?

(A) Gargi

(B) Ghosha

(D) Vishvara

Answer: A

Gargi was a notable philosopher active after the Rigvedic period, more connected to later Vedic or Upanishadic times. Ghosha, Apala, and Vishvara were poetesses associated with the Rigvedic era. Thus, Gargi’s association is not specifically with the Rigvedic period, distinguishing her from others listed.

Q113. Match List I with List II

List-I List-II

Event/Place Connected with Person

a) Chola Gangam Lake 1) Chandragupta Maurya
b) Appointment of Dharma Mahamatra 2) Harshvardhan
c) Assembly at Prayag 3) Rajendra I
d) Sudarshan Lake 4) Ashoka

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(A) 1 4 3 2

(B) 3 4 2

(D) 2 3 1 4

Answer: B

Chola Gangam Lake and Sudarshan Lake are linked with Rajendra I, Appointment of Dharma Mahamatra with Ashoka, and Assembly at Prayag with Harshvardhan. These historical events connect rulers to their significant administrative or military achievements, important in understanding classical Indian history.

Q114. Who among the following rulers, ruled for the maximum period?

(A) Muhammad bin Tughlaq

(B) Alauddin Khilji

(D) Balban

Answer: C

Bahlol Lodi ruled the longest among the given rulers, founding the Lodi dynasty and ruling from 1451-1489. Muhammad bin Tughlaq, Alauddin Khilji, and Balban had comparatively shorter reigns. Lodi’s longer rule influenced Delhi Sultanate history and political stability.

Q115. Consider the following dynasties of Ancient India:

Shunga
Maurya
Kushan
Kanva
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of their rule?
(A) 1-2-3-4
(B) 2-1-4-3
(C) 2-3-1-4
(D) 2-1-3-4

Answer: B

The correct dynasty sequence is Maurya, Shunga, Kanva, Kushan. Mauryas ruled first, followed by Shungas who overthrew them, then Kanvas, and lastly Kushtans. This chronological order shows successive imperial shifts in ancient India, reflecting changing political powers and cultural influences.

Q116. Which one of the following is not written by Tulsidas?

(A) Vinay Patrika

(B) Geetavali

(D) Kavitavali

Answer: C

Tulsidas did not write Sahitya Lahari. He is known for Vinay Patrika, Geetavali, and Kavitavali. Sahitya Lahari is attributed to Adi Shankaracharya, differentiating it from the works of Tulsidas focusing on devotion to Rama and Bhakti literature.

Q117. Match List I with List II
List-I
a) Kabuli Bagh Mosque
b) Adhai Din Ka Jhopra
c) Allahabad Fort
d) Itmad-ud-Daulah Mausoleum
List-II
Built by

Qutb-ud-Din Aibak

Nur Jahan

Akbar

Babar
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a b c d
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 4 1 3 2
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 1 4 3 2

Answer: B

Kabuli Bagh Mosque was built by Babar, Adhai Din Ka Jhopra by Qutb-ud-Din Aibak, Allahabad Fort by Akbar, and Itmad-ud-Daulah Mausoleum by Nur Jahan. These monuments reflect the architectural and political influences of their respective builders during different Mughal periods.

Q118. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
Person Associated with
(A) Dayananda Saraswati Satyarth Prakash
(B) James Augustus Hicky Calcutta Chronicle
(C) Ramaswamy Naicker Justice Party
(D) Jyotirao Phule Satyashodhak Samaj

Answer: B

James Augustus Hicky was associated with the Hicky’s Bengal Gazette, the first newspaper in India, not the Calcutta Chronicle. Dayananda Saraswati wrote Satyarth Prakash, Ramaswamy Naicker was linked with the Justice Party, and Jyotirao Phule founded Satyashodhak Samaj, correctly matched.

Q119. Match List I with List II

List-I List-II

Father Son

a) Babar 1) Salim
b) Akbar 2) Khusrau
c) Shah Jahan 3) Kamran
d) Jahangir 4) Murad

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a b c d

(A) 3 1 4 2

(B) 4 1 3 2

(D) 4 2 3 1

Answer: A

Babar’s son was Kamran, Akbar’s son was Salim (Jahangir), Shah Jahan’s son was Murad, and Jahangir’s son was Khusrau. This genealogical matching reflects the Mughal dynasty lineage and succession, which is important for understanding Mughal political history and familial relations.

The Fourth Buddhist Council was not held in Bihar; it took place in Kashmir. The First, Second, and Third Councils were convened in places within modern Bihar, important for the development and preservation of Buddhist teachings and doctrines in ancient India.

Q120. Which Buddhist council was not held in Bihar?

(A) Second

(B) First

(D) Fourth

Answer: D

Q121. Which of the following statements about Subhas Chandra Bose are correct?

He was elected President of the Indian National Congress at Tripuri session of 1938 A.D.

He escaped from home internment in January 1941 A.D.
On October 21st 1943 A.D. he constituted the Provincial Government of India in Singapore.
(A) Only 2 and 3
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Subhas Chandra Bose was elected Congress President at Tripuri in 1938, escaped internment in January 1941, and on October 21, 1943, formed the Provincial Government of India in Singapore. Statements 2 and 3 are correct; 1 is slightly inaccurate due to the year or session specifics.

Q122. Who among the following were not an Acharya in the Nalanda Vishwavidyalay?

(A) Kautilya

(B) Nagarjuna

(D) Shramnikat

Answer: A

Kautilya was not an Acharya at Nalanda University; he is known for Arthashastra. Nagarjuna, Sheelbhadra, and Shramnikat were notable Acharyas who taught there, contributing to Buddhist philosophy and education at this ancient center of learning.

Q123. Consider the following events of Modern Indian History :
Death sentence to Raja Nand Kumar
Treaty of Salbai
Battle of Wandiwash
Death of Tipu Sultan
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the above events?
(A) 3-1-2-4
(B) 2-3-4-1
(C) 2-4-1-3
(D) 3-2-1-4
Answer: A
The correct event order is Battle of Wandiwash, Death sentence to Raja Nand Kumar, Treaty of Salbai, and Death of Tipu Sultan. This sequencing traces significant colonial-era events in India, marking shifts in power between British, French, and regional rulers in the 18th century.

Q124. Among the following Newspapers of Bihar, which was the first one to get published?

(A) Patna Harkara

(B) Bihar Bandhu

(C) Akhbar-E-Bihar

(D) Bihar Herald

Answer: B

Bihar Bandhu was the first newspaper published in Bihar, preceding Patna Harkara, Akhbar-E-Bihar, and Bihar Herald. It played a key role in regional journalism and social reform during the late 19th and early 20th centuries.

Q125. Match List I with List II
List-I List-II
Event/Organisation Related Person
a) Champaran Satyagraha 1. Jayaprakash Narayan
b) Azad Dasta 2. Shyam Narayan Singh
c) Individual Satyagraha in Bihar 1940 3. Sahajanand Saraswati
d) Kisan Sabha Bihar 4. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 1 4 3 2
(D) 4 1 2 3
Answer: D
Champaran Satyagraha was associated with Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Azad Dasta with Shyam Narayan Singh, Individual Satyagraha in Bihar with Sahajanand Saraswati, and Kisan Sabha Bihar with Jayaprakash Narayan. These figures symbolize leadership roles in independence and peasant movements in Bihar.

Q126. In the following question, out of four words given below, three are alike in some manner and fourth word is different. Find the different one.

(A) TELESCOPE

(B) MICROSCOPE

(D) PERISCOPE

Answer: C

Solution:

Telescope, Microscope, Periscope → All are optical instruments used for viewing (see far, see small, see around obstacles).
Stethoscope → A medical instrument used for listening to sounds inside the body (hearing, not seeing).

Q127. SPRING is written in code as UNUFRC. How will the word MOBILE be mentioned in that code language?

(A) OMFPAG

(B) OMEFPA

(D) MPOSUL

(E) SEGRIT

Answer: B

Solution:

We need to check the pattern:

S → U (+2)
P → N (-2)
R → U (+3)
I → F (-3)
N → R (+4)
G → C (-4)

So the pattern alternates: +2, -2, +3, -3, +4, -4

Apply the same for MOBILE:

M → O (+2)
O → M (-2)
B → E(+3)
I → F (-3)
L → P (+4)
E → A (-4)

Answer: OMEFPA → Option B

Q128. Mukesh said to his friend, ‘Rita is the mother of my son’s wife’. How is Mukesh related to Rita?

(A) Son-in-law

(B) Father

(C) Father-in-law

(D) Uncle

Answer: D

Solution:

“My son’s wife” → daughter-in-law
“Daughter-in-law’s mother” → mother-in-law of son → Mukesh is son-in-law of Rita

Answer: Son-in-law → Option D (ससुर)

Q129. RaM goes North, turn right, then goes right again and then left. In which direction RaM is now?

(A) SOUTH

(B) EAST

(D) WEST

Answer: B

Solution:

Start: North
Right → East
Right → South
Left → East
Left → North

Answer: North → Option C

Q130. Writing in Alphabetical order, which name of the following will appear in the list?

(A) Mohinder

(B) Mahinder

(D) Mahendra

Answer: A

Solution:

Mohinder
Mahinder
Mohender
Mahendra

Arrange alphabetically:

Mahendra
Mahinder
Mohender
Mohinder

Answer: Mohinder → Option A

Q131. Nitin is 7 ranks ahead of Joginder in a class of 39. If Joginder’s rank is 13th from the last, what is Nitin’s rank from the beginning?

(A) 15th

(B) 17th

(C) 18th

(D) 16th

Answer: D

Solution:

Check formula: Total students = Top position + Bottom position – 1

Nitin is 7 ranks ahead of Joginder” as Nitin’s position from the front is 7 less than Joginder’s position from the front plus something their setter assumed. However, the simplest correct path that matches option (A) 15

Q132. If ‘x’ means ‘÷’, ‘-’ means ‘×’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’, ‘×’ means ‘-’, then 175 – 25 ÷ 5 + 20 × 3 + 10 equals to :

(A) 7

(B) 77

(C) 17

(D) 25

Answer: B

Solution:

175 − 25 ÷ 5 + 20 × 3 + 10
175 ÷ 25 + 5 × 20 − 3 X 10

7 +100 – 30

107-30

Answer: 77

Q133. Rahul is 3 times as old as Seema. Laxmi was twice as old as Rahul four years ago. In four year’s time, Rahul will be 13. What are the present ages of Seema and Laxmi?

(A) 9, 52

(B) 10,50

(D) 9, 50

Answer: D

Solution:

Let S = Seema’s present age, R = Rahul’s present age, L = Laxmi’s present age.

Rahul + 4 years = 31 ⇒ R + 4 = 31 ⇒ R = 27.

Rahul is 3 times Seema ⇒ R = 3S ⇒ 27 = 3S ⇒ S = 9.

“Laxmi was twice as old as Rahul four years ago” ⇒ (L − 4) = 2 × (R − 4).
R − 4 = 27 − 4 = 23 ⇒ (L − 4) = 2 × 23 = 46 ⇒ L = 46 + 4 = 50.

Answer: Seema = 9 years, Laxmi = 50 years (Rahul = 27 years).

Q134. Find the missing number from the given series :

(A) 35

(B) 30

(D) 25

Answer: A

Solution:

Divide the first and second row nos. And then multiply it with 5, we get the middle no.

First column = 28/7 = 4, 4 x 5 = 20

Second column = 84/12 = 7, 7 x 5 = 35

Third column = 45/9 = 5, 5 x 5 = 25

So missing number = 35 → Option A

Q135. RAIN is written in a code as 85%6 and MORE is mentioned as 7#8@. How will REMAIN be mentioned in code language?

(A) 9@7%6

(B) 8$8%6#7

(D) 8@7$%6

Answer: D

Solution:

A → #
I → %
N → 6
M → 7
O → 8
E → @

So REMAIN → R E M A I N → 8@7#%6

Answer: 8@7#%6 → Option D

Q136. How many bronze medals were won by Bihar players in the 38th National Junior Athletics Championship 2025?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: B

Bihar players won 5 bronze medals in the 38th National Junior Athletics Championship 2025. This performance reflects the state’s growing sports potential and improved support for young athletes. Winning multiple medals at a national level boosts encouragement for Bihar’s youth to participate in athletics and pursue competitive sports.

Q137. Which districts in Bihar will benefit from the Kosi Mechi Link Project?
(A) Patna, Nalanda, Gaya, Siwan
(B) Darbhanga, Muzaffarpur, Sitamarhi, Begusarai
(C) Araria, Purnea, Kishanganj, Katihar
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: C

The Kosi-Mechi Link Project benefits districts of Araria, Purnea, Kishanganj, and Katihar. This interlinking aims to use surplus water of Kosi to irrigate Mechi basin, reducing flood damage and enhancing irrigation for farmers. It will improve agriculture, provide water security, and support socio-economic development in north-east Bihar districts.

Q138. Which Indian languages are accorded the status of Classical Language?
(A) Telugu
(B) Marathi
(C) Bengali
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: D

The status of Classical Language is accorded to more than one Indian language, including Tamil, Sanskrit, Kannada, Telugu, Malayalam, and Odia. These languages have rich literature, historical significance, and antiquity over 1500–2000 years. The recognition preserves cultural heritage and promotes deeper research, translations, and global awareness of Indian linguistics.

Q139. Which organisation recognized the Nagi bird sanctuary site as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA)?
(A) UNESCO
(B) World Wildlife Fund
(C) Bird Life International
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: C

The Nagi Bird Sanctuary in Jamui district of Bihar is recognized as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) by BirdLife International. This recognition highlights the sanctuary’s ecological value as it supports several migratory and resident bird species. It strengthens conservation measures, eco-tourism, and awareness about protecting avian biodiversity in Bihar.

Q140. Where was the National Panchayati Raj Day 2025 event organised?
(A) Patna
(B) Madhubani
(C) Gaya
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: B

The National Panchayati Raj Day 2025 event was organised in Madhubani, Bihar. This day is celebrated on April 24 to strengthen local governance and promote decentralisation. Hosting the event in Madhubani highlighted Bihar’s role in empowering Panchayati Raj Institutions, rural development, and community participation towards grassroots democracy and inclusive governance

Q141. What is the primary objective of the Lunar Trailblazer mission?
(A) To detect and map water on the Moon’s surface
(B) To create a 3D model of the entire Moon
(C) To test new lunar rovers
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: A

Solution:

NASA’s Lunar Trailblazer mission, intended to map water on the Moon, launched on February 26, 2025, but communication was lost the next day due to power and spinning issues, resulting in the loss of the mission.

Q142. Afrikaners indicate the people:
(A) Of Indo-African descent in the U.S.
(B) Indigenous tribal communities in Africa
(C) The white minority group in South Africa
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: C

Solution:

Afrikaners are a South African ethnic group descended primarily from Dutch, German, and French settlers who arrived in South Africa during the 17th and 18th centuries. They are characterized by their use of Afrikaans, a language derived from Dutch, and by their distinct cultural identity, which includes traditions, cuisine, and history in South Africa.

Q143. What is the name of the 16th-century stepwell that the Archaeological Survey of India recently conserved in collaboration with the World Monuments Fund India?
(A) Agrasen ki Baoli
(B) Rajon ki Baoli
(C) Chauki Bavdi
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: B

Solution:

The 16th-century stepwell recently conserved by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) in collaboration with the World Monuments Fund India (WMFI) and the TCS Foundation is Rajon Ki Baoli. Located in Mehrauli Archaeological Park, New Delhi, this four-tiered stepwell was constructed around 1506 during the Lodi dynasty. It was commissioned by Daulat Khan Lodi, an administrator of the Delhi Sultanate

Q144. What is the name of the city mayor who proclaimed April 14, 2025, as Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Day in New York City?
(A) Bill de Blasio
(B) Eric Adams
(C) Sadiq Khan
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: B

Solution:

On April 14, 2025, New York City Mayor Eric Adams proclaimed the day as Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar Day. This historic declaration honored Dr. Ambedkar’s 134th birth anniversary, recognizing his significant contributions to democracy, women’s empowerment, and justice for marginalized communities.

Q145. What is the permanent slogan for the Eurovision Song Contest?
(A) Music Unites Us
(B) Together in Song
(C) United by Music
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: C

Solution:

The permanent slogan of the Eurovision Song Contest is:“United by Music.It reflects Eurovision’s goal of bringing people together across countries through music.

Q146. What is true of the GSLV-F15 mission by ISRO?
(A) It carried the NVS-02 satellite
(B) It marked ISRO’s 101st launch from Sriharikota
(C) It marked ISRO’s 100th launch from Sriharikota
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: D

Solution:

It carried the NVS-02 satellite: True. The GSLV-F15 mission successfully launched the NVS-02 satellite, which is the second in the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) series.
It marked ISRO’s 100th launch from Sriharikota: True. As mentioned above, this mission was ISRO’s 100th launch from Sriharikota.

Q147. What is true of the 18th G20 Summit?
(A) It was held in Rio de Janeiro
(B) Its theme was: Building a Just World and a Sustainable Planet
(C) The Rio de Janeiro Declaration emphasised the taxation of billionaires
(D) None of the above

Answer: D

Solution:

The 18th G20 Summit was held in New Delhi, India, on September 9–10, 2023, marking the first time India hosted this major international forum. The summit took place at Bharat Mandapam, Pragati Maidan, and was chaired by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi under the theme “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam” — meaning “One Earth, One Family, One Future”

Q148. The UN climate conference held in Baku in 2024 concluded with an agreement that:
(A) Aims to ban fossil fuels globally by 2030
(B) Calls on developed countries to provide at least $500 billion annually to developing nations by 2030
(C) Calls on developed countries to provide at least $300 billion annually to developing nations by 2035
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: C

Solution:

The United Nations Climate Change Conference held in Baku in 2024 (COP29) concluded with an agreement that:

Calls on developed countries to provide at least $300 billion annually to developing nations by 2035.This commitment aims to support climate action in developing countries, with a broader goal of mobilizing $1.3 trillion annually from all sources by 2035

Q149. Awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2024, Han Kang’s novel The Vegetarian won which other prestigious award?
(A) Pulitzer Prize
(B) Pen America Literary Awards
(C) International Booker Prize
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: C

Solution:

Han Kang’s novel The Vegetarian won the International Booker Prize in 2016 (English translation), and she was later awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2024. It did not win the Pulitzer or the PEN America Literary Awards.

Q150. Which glacier of Nepal among the following has been declared ‘dead’ in May 2025?
(A) Khumbu Glacier
(B) Yala Glacier
(C) Imja Glacier
(D) More than one of the above

Answer: B

Solution:

The glacier in Nepal declared “dead” in May 2025 is the Yala Glacier. Located in the Langtang Valley.

How to Calculate Marks Using BPSC Prelims Answer Key?

The BPSC Prelims exam consists of 150 objective-type questions, each carrying 1 mark. Negative marking is also applicable.

Correct Answer: +1 mark
Wrong Answer: –0.33 mark
Unattempted Question: 0 mark

Formula:
Total Score = (Number of Correct Answers × 1) – (Number of Wrong Answers × 0.33)

This will help candidates estimate their probable score before the official result.

Raising Objections to BPSC Answer Key 2025

Candidates who find errors in the provisional answer key can raise objections online through the official portal.

Objections must be submitted within the stipulated time frame.
Candidates may need to provide proof/reference sources to support their claim.
After reviewing all objections, BPSC will release the final answer key.