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Most Important GS Questions for UP and Bihar Judiciary Set 7– Judiciary Exam – Free PDF

 

Q1. Which of the following countries has an unwritten constitution?

  1. America
  2. Britain
  3. Germany
  4. France

Ans – 2

  • Constitutional monarchy was established in Britain in 1688. But there the Constituent Assembly did not prepare any such formal document which could be called the Constitution of Britain. In such a situation, the constitution of Britain is based on public  laws, laws passed by Parliament, court decisions etc.
  • Since Britain does not have a written constitution, which limits the powers of Parliament; Because of this, the parliament there is very powerful.
  • Britain’s system of governance is unitary, not federal. This means that the power to make laws rests with the centre and not with the provinces/states.

Q2. Constitutions of many countries have influence on the Indian Constitution with this in  mind, which one of the following pairs is false?

  1. Directive Principles of State Policy – Ireland
  2. Federal system with strong center – United Kingdom
  3. Concurrent List – Australia
  4. Process of amending the constitution – South Africa

Ans – 2

  • Explanation – Constitution of many countries has influence on Indian Constitution. Many  provisions and principles have been taken from the constitutions of other countries; some of  which are the following:
  1. Directive Principles of State Policy, Presidential Electoral System – Ireland
  2. Federal system with strong Center Government, appointment of governor by  center – Canada
  3. Concurrent List, Provision for joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament –Australia
  4. Procedure to Amendment the Constitution – South Africa
  5. Fundamental Rights, Principle of Judicial Review, Office of Vice President,  Impeachment of President – America
  6. Fundamental Duties; Social, Economic and Political Ideals – Russia
  7. Republican system; Ideal of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity – France
  8. Parliamentary system, bicameral system, single citizenship – Britain
  9. Provision for suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency – Germany
  10. The last meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on January 24, 1950.

Q4. Who was the chairman of the ‘Provincial Constitution Committee’ constituted by the  Constituent Assembly?

  1. Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. Rao
  3. Vallabh Bhai Patel
  4. Vishwanath Das

Ans – 3

  • Explanation  –
  1. The Constituent Assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with various aspects of the problem of constitution making, the main person are written below:
  2. Union Powers Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. Federal Constitutional Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. Provincial Constitutional Committee – Vallabhbhai Patel
  5. Drafting Committee – Dr. BR Ambedkar
  6. Consultative Committee on Fundamental Rights and Minorities – Vallabhbhai Patel
  7. Steering Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  8. Procedure Rules Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Q5. By which constitutional amendment the voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 years?

  1. 44th Constitutional Amendment
  2. 61st Constitutional Amendment
  3. 87th Constitutional Amendment
  4. 91st constitutional amendment

Ans – 2

  • Explanation – In 1989, Parliament reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988.

Q6. Which of the following deals with Part 15 of the Constitution?

  1. Relations between the Union and the States
  2. Elections
  3. Services under the Union and the States
  4. Emergency provisions

Ans – 2

  • Part I The Union and its Territories, Articles 1-4
  • Part II Citizenship, Articles 5-11
  • Part III Fundamental Rights, Article 12 – 35
  • Part IV Directive Principles of State Policy, Article 36 – 51
  • Part IVA Fundamental Duties, Article 51A Part V Union, Articles 52-151
  • PART VI STATES, ARTICLE 152 -237
  • Part VII omitted by the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956
  • Part VIII Union Territories, Articles 239-242
  • Part IX Panchayat, Article 243- 243O
  • Part IXA Municipalities, Article 243P – 243ZG
  • Part XI Relations between the Union and the States, Articles 245 – 263
  • Part XIVA Tribunal, Articles 323A – 323B PART XV ELECTIONS, ARTICLE 324 -329A
  • PART XVI SPECIAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO CERTAIN CLASSES, ARTICLES 330-342
  • PART XVII OFFICIAL LANGUAGE, ARTICLES 343- 351
  • PART XVIII EMERGENCY PROVISIONS, ARTICLES 352 – 360
  • Part XIX Miscellaneous Articles, 361 -367
  • PART XX AMENDMENTS OF THE CONSTITUTION, ARTICLE 368
  • PART XXI TEMPORARY TRANSITIONAL AND SPECIAL PROVISIONS, ARTICLES 369 – 392
  • Part XXII Short title, commencement, authoritative text in Hindi and repeal, Articles 393 – 395

Q7. Which of the following schedules deals with the administration of the tribal areas of the  States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram?

  1. Fourth Schedule
  2. Fifth Schedule
  3. Sixth Schedule
  4. Seventh Schedule

Ans – 3

Schedules of the Indian Constitution:

  • First Schedule – Description of States and Union Territories
  • Second Schedule – President, Governors of States, Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, Chairman and Deputy Speaker of Rajya Sabha, Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Legislative  Assembly, Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Legislative Council, Judges of Supreme and High  Courts and Controller of India Provisions with respect to the Auditor General.
  • Third Schedule – Forms of oath or affirmation.
  • Fourth Schedule – Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha.
  • Fifth Schedule – Provisions as to the administration and control of the Scheduled Areas and the Scheduled Tribes.
  • Sixth Schedule – Provisions as to the administration of tribal areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
  • Seventh Schedule – Union List, State List and Concurrent List. Eighth Schedule – List of recognized languages.
  • Ninth Schedule – Provisions for verification of specific Acts and Regulations. Tenth Schedule – Provisions as to disqualification on grounds of defection.  Eleventh Schedule – Powers, powers and responsibilities of Panchayats.
  • Twelfth Schedule – Powers, powers and responsibilities of Municipalities.

Q8. By which constitutional amendment Sikkim was made a full-fledged state of India?

  1. 14th Constitutional Amendment
  2. 35th Constitutional Amendment
  3. 36th Constitutional Amendment
  4. 38th Constitutional Amendment

Ans – 3

  • Explanation – Sikkim was included in India as the 22nd state by the 36th  Constitutional Amendment.

Q9. Who was the first Speaker of Lok Sabha?

  1. GV Mavalankar
  2. Hukum Singh
  3. D Jatti
  4. VV Giri

Ans – 1

  • Explanation
  • G. V Mavalankar was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha (15 May 1952 – 27 February 1956).
  • After the first general elections from 25 October 1951 to 21 February 1952, the first Lok Sabha was constituted on 17 April 1952.
  • The first session of the Lok Sabha began on 13 May 1952.
  • Shri M. Ananthasayanam Iyengar was the first Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha (30 May 1952 – 7 March 1956)
  • The maximum number of members of the Lok Sabha is 552 as specified in the Constitution of which 530 members represent the States, 20 members represent the
  • Union Territories and, Mr. President, if he believes that the Anglo-Indian community is appropriately represented in the House.
  • Shri Om Birla is the current Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Q10. With reference to Money Bill, consider the following statements:

  • Money Bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
  • The Rajya Sabha cannot amend a Money Bill passed and transmitted by the Lok Sabha.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans – 3

  • Explanation
  • A Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill only if it contains provisions relating to all  or any of the following matters, namely:-
  • (a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;
  • (b) the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the  Government of India or the amendment of the law relating to any financial obligations  taken or to be taken upon by the Government of India;
  • (c) the custody of the Consolidated Fund or Contingency Fund of India, depositing  money in or withdrawing money from any such fund,
  • (d) the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India,
  • (e) declaring any expenditure to be an expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund  of India or the addition of the amount of any such expenditure,
  • (f) to the Consolidated Fund of India or to the Public Account of India receiving money from or the custody or incorporation of such money or the audit of the accounts of the Union or a State, or
  • (g) any matter incidental to any matter specified in sub-sections (a) to (f) (section  110).
  • Money Bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
  • Rajya Sabha cannot amend Money Bills passed and transmitted by Lok Sabha.  However, it can recommend amendments to the Money Bill. The Lok Sabha can accept  or reject any or all the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha relating to the Money Bill.
  • If a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha and is not returned to the Lok Sabha within a period of 14 days from the date of its transmission in the Rajya Sabha, after the expiry of the said period it is passed by both the Houses as passed by the Lok Sabha will be

Q11. Which Article is considered by Ambedkar as the soul of the Constitution?

  1. Article 15
  2. Article 18
  3. Article 21
  4. Article 32

Ans – 4

  • Explanation – Dr. B. R. Ambedkar considered Article 32 as the soul of the Constitution.  Article 32 gives the citizens the right to constitutional remedies. The Supreme Court has interpreted Article 32 in many of its decisions, on the basis of which its important  aspects are as follows:
  1. Article 32 is a Fundamental Right.
  2. The Supreme Court is the guaranteeing body of the Fundamental Rights.
  3. Whose fundamental rights have been violated, he has the right to directly appeal to the Supreme Court.
  • Article 32 discusses 5 types of writs – Habeas Corpus. Mandamus. Prohibition. Certiorari. Quo-Warranto.

Q12. In which article is the freedom to manage religious affairs?

  1. Article 25
  2. Article 26
  3. Article 27
  4. Article 28

Ans – 2

  • Explanation
  • Article 25-Freedom of conscience and free to profess, practice and propagate religion, public order, morality and health and subject to the other provisions of this Part.
  • Article 26- Freedom to manage religious affairs, subject to public order, morality and health.
  • Article 27-Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes, the proceeds of which are specifically  appropriated in payment of expenses for the promotion or maintenance of any particular  religion or religious denomination
  • Article 28- Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions.

Q13. Consider the following statements:

  • Article 21 provides free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.
  • Article 24 prohibits the employment of children in factories, etc. Under this, no child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or be  engaged in any other hazardous employment.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans – 2

  • Explanation
  • Article 21A talks of providing free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.
  • The right to life and personal liberty has been given under Article 21.
  • Article 24 prohibits the employment of children in factories, etc. Under this, no child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or be  engaged in any other hazardous employment.

Q14. At what place Judges of the Supreme Court can practice after the retirement from his  post?

  1. Only in the Supreme Court
  2. Only in High Court
  3. Supreme Court and High Court
  4. Not in any Court

Ans – 4

  • Explanation – According to Article 124, after retirement, the judges of the Supreme Court  cannot practice in any court or hold any office under the government.

Q15. In which article of the Constitution there is a specific provision related to different  states?

  1. Article 369
  2. Article 370
  3. Article 371
  4. Article 372

Ans – 3

  • Explanation – Article 371 mentions specific provisions relating to different states like–  Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Sikkim, Andhra Pradesh, Mizoram, Arunachal  Pradesh and Goa.

Q16. Which of the following is mentioned in the State List under the Seventh Schedule of the  Constitution?

  1. Public Health and Sanitation
  2. Electricity
  3. Railway
  4. Forest

Ans – 1

  • Explanation
  • Union List – Army, Defence, Foreign Affairs, Railways, Posts, Savings, Atomic Energy, Citizenship, Communication, Currency, Banking, Census, Income Tax and Corporation Tax etc.
  • State List – Public Order, Police, Public Health and Sanitation, Water, Land, Fishing, Taxes on Agricultural Income, Toll Tax etc.
  • Concurrent List Forest, Electricity, Factories, Marriage, Divorce, Trusts and Trustees, Education

Q16. Which of the following is mentioned in the State List under the Seventh Schedule of the  Constitution?

  1. Public Health and Sanitation
  2. Electricity
  3. Railway
  4. Forest

Ans – 1

  • Explanation
  • Union List – Army, Defence, Foreign Affairs, Railways, Posts, Savings, Atomic Energy, Citizenship, Communication, Currency, Banking, Census, Income Tax and Corporation Tax etc.
  • State List – Public Order, Police, Public Health and Sanitation, Water, Land, Fishing, Taxes on Agricultural Income, Toll Tax etc.
  • Concurrent List Forest, Electricity, Factories, Marriage, Divorce, Trusts and Trustees, Education

Q17. ‘Equal pay for equal work’ has been ensured in the Constitution of India under which?

  1. Fundamental Rights
  2. Part of the Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. Fundamental duty
  4. Economic rights

Ans – 2

  • Explanation  – Article 39(d) mentions ‘equal pay for equal work’ under the Directive Principles  of State Policy.

Q19. Under which Article of the Constitution, Parliament can make laws on the subject of the  State List to give effect to international agreements?

  1. Article 249
  2. Article 250
  3. Article 252
  4. Article 253

Ans – 4

  • Explanation Article 253– Legislation for giving effect to international agreements:  Notwithstanding anything in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter, Parliament has power  to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any  treaty, agreement or convention with any other country or countries or any decision made at  any international conference, association or other body.

Q20. Which Article of the Constitution provides that every State shall endeavour to provide  adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education?

  1. Article 349
  2. Article 350
  3. Article 350A
  4. Article 351

Ans – 3

  • Explanation Article 350A– Facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at the  primary stage – It shall be the endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to  linguistic minority groups; and the President may issue such directions to any State  as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities.

Q21. Under which jurisdiction does the Supreme Court come under to settle disputes  between the Centre and the States?

  1. Consulting
  2. Appellate
  3. Constitutional
  4. Original

Ans – 4

  • Explanation
  • Article 131: Subject to the provisions of this Constitution,
  • Between the Government of India and one or more States, or
  • Between the Government of India and any State or States on the one hand and one or more other States on the other, or
  • (C) In any dispute between two or more States, if and in so far as the dispute involves any
  • question (of law or decision) on which the existence or extent of any legal right depends, and in so far as the exclusion of other courts The Supreme Court will have original  jurisdiction.

Q22. The vacancy of the President should be filled by –

  1. 90 days
  2. 6 months
  3. 9 months
  4. 1 year

Ans – 2

  • Explanation Article 62 (2)- An election to fill a vacancy in the office of President  occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal, or otherwise shall be held as  soon as possible after, and in no case later than six months from, the date of occurrence of  the vacancy, and the person elected to fill the vacancy shall, subject to the provisions of
  • Article 56, be entitled to hold office for the full term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.

Q23. How many people are nominated by the President to the Rajya Sabha?

  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 14
  4. 16

Ans– 2

  • Explanation – According to Article 80, a total of 12 people are nominated by the President to the Rajya Sabha. Nomination is done to those people who have any special knowledge or  practical experience in literature, art, science or social service.

Q24. From which article of the constitution does the President get the power to issue  ordinances?

  1. Article 121
  2. Article 122
  3. Article 123
  4. Article 124

Ans– 3

  • Explanation – Article 123 Power of President to promulgate Ordinances during recess of  Parliament.
  • If at any time, except when both Houses of Parliament are in session, the President is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action, he may promulgate such Ordinance as the circumstances appear to him to require
  • An Ordinance promulgated under this article shall have the same force and effect as an
  • Act of Parliament, but every such Ordinance shall be laid before both House of Parliament and shall cease to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassemble of Parliament, or, if before the expiration of that period  resolutions disapproving it are passed by both Houses, upon the passing of the second of those  resolutions; and
  • may be withdrawn at any time by the President
  • Explanation Where the Houses of Parliament are summoned to reassemble on different dates,  the period of six weeks shall be reckoned from the later of those dates for the purposes of this

Q25. In which article of the constitution the provisions related to the term of the governor  are given?

  1. Article 154
  2. Article 155
  3. Article 156
  4. Article 157

Ans– 3

  • Explanation  –
  • Article 156 – Term of office of the Governor-
  • The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President
  • The Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office
  • Subject to the foregoing provisions of this article, a Governor shall hold for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office
  • Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office

Ans– 3

 

 

 

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