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Most Important GS Questions for UP and Bihar Judiciary Set 11 – Judiciary Exam – Free PDF

 

Q1. Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed for how many years?

  1.  2
  2.  4
  3.  6
  4.  5

Ans 3

  • Comptroller and Auditor General of India are appointed by the President of India for a period of 6 years and can be removed from office in a manner and on grounds like Judge of a Supreme Court. His duty is to check the accounts and prepare audit reports for Union and States and other bodies prescribed in the Law enacted by the Parliament.

Q2. Who is the custodian of Contingency Fund of India?

  1.   The Prime Minister
  2.   Judge of Supreme Court
  3.   The President
  4.   The finance minister

Ans- 3

  • The president is the custodian of Contingency Fund of India.
  • The Contingency Fund of India established under Article 267 A. of the Constitution with a corpus of 500 crores placed at the disposal of the President to meet urgent unforeseen expenditure, pending authorization by the Parliament.

Q3. In the Indian Parliamentary System, ‘Vote on Account’ is valid for how many months (except the year of elections)?

  1.  2 months
  2.  3 months
  3.  6 months
  4.  9 months

Ans- 1

  • In the Indian Parliamentary System, ‘Vote on Account’ is valid for 2 months. It is an interim budget that is passed in the parliament to acquire permission to incur expenditure for the time period till the final budget is passed in the parliament.

Q4. Under which Article of the Constitution, there is a provision to provide facilities for teaching in the mother tongue at the primary level?

  1.  Article 349
  2.  Article 350A
  3.  Article 350B
  4.  Article 351

Ans- 2

  • It shall be the endeavor of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups; and the President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities.

Q5. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?

  1.  To protect monuments and places of public importance
  2.  To respect National Anthem
  3.  To protect and improve the natural environment
  4.  To safeguard public property

Ans- 1

  • Option 1 is incorrect as the statement ‘to protect monuments and places of public importance’ is not mentioned under Article 51A of the Constitution of India. All other statements are a part of the Article 51A.
  • Protection of monuments and places and objects of national importance s in article 49 under directive principles.

Q6. The family courts are established by state governments in consultation with?

  1.  Supreme Court
  2.  Chief Justice of India
  3.  High Court
  4.  Cabinet

Ans- 3

  • Family Courts Act, 1984 provides for the establishment of Family Courts by the State Governments in consultation with he High Courts of the respective states.
    It is obligatory for the State Governments to set up a Family Court in every city or town with a population exceeding 1 million.

Q7. Which of the following Judicial Doctrines in India is usually applied, when there is a Question on the competence of the legislature on making a particular enactment/law under the three lists enumerated in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

  1. Doctrine of Basic Structure
  2. Doctrine of Eclipse
  3. Doctrine of Severability
  4. Doctrine of Pith and Substance

Ans.  4

  • It is widely believed that the origin of the doctrine of pith and substance lies in Canada and it was introduced in a case named Cushing v. Dupuy in the year 1880. The doctrine later made its way to India and is firmly supported by Article 246 of the Constitution and the Seventh Schedule. In India, it has evolved to become a celebrated doctrine that became the basis of many landmark Supreme Court judgments.

Q8. Which of the following provisions in Directive Principles of State Policy reflect the Gandhian Principles?

  1. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor
  2. Equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good
  3. Uniform civil code
  4. Organise village panchayats

Ans. 4

  • Article 40: Organization of village Panchayats Article 43: Promotion of cottage industries Article 46: Promotion and protection of interests of educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections of the society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation Article 47: Prohibition of consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health Article 48: Prohibition of slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle and to improve their breed

Q9. Which of the following is correct in context of the Government of Indi

  1. Act, 1935? A. Provincial Autonomy
  2. Diarchy rule in province
  3. Federal Structure
  4. None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans. 3

  • Option 2 is not true, because the Government of India Act, 1935, enacted the Act of 1919 which ended the diarchy regime in the provinces and established the diarchy in the center. The central subjects were divided into reserved and transferred portions.

Q10. The composition of the Constituent Assembly was based on which resolution?

  1. Cabinet Mission
  2. Cripps Mission
  3. Wavell Plan
  4. Morley-Minto Plan

Ans. 1

  • The Constitution of the Constituent Assembly was similar to that proposed in the Cabinet Mission, 1946. Its seats were determined in proportion to the population. Its members were elected on the basis of limited franchise.

Q11. Objective motion in the Constituent Assembly was presented by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on:

  1. 13 December 1946
  2. 22 January, 1947
  3. 11 December 1946
  4. 26 January 1947

Ans. 1

  • In the Constituent Assembly, the ‘Objective Resolution’ was presented on 13 December 1946 by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, which was passed by the Constituent Assembly on 22 January 1947.

Q12. When was the 42nd constitution amendment brought?

  1. 1972
  2. 1976
  3. 1973
  4. 1975

Ans. 2

  •  The legislature passed the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 to repeal the doctrine of the basic structure which was passed by it. Under it part D was added in the article 368. The clause enacted had the purpose of removing the judicial review. The statute declared that the Parliament had unlimited power of the constitutional amendment which could not be challenged in court.

Q13. Minerva Mills case is related to which of the following?

  1. Establishment of the principle of basic structure of constitution
  2. Preference of Fundamental Rights
  3. Control on the powers of legislature
  4. Establishment of the principle of judicial review

Ans. 4

  • The Supreme Court, in MinervaMills v. Union of India, stipulated that Claused of Article 368 is not legal and therefore void because it was passed to end judicial review. The principle of judicial review is a fundamental characteristic of the constitution. Hence, the decision of the 42nd Amendment was held to be unconstitutional, stating that Parliament cannot change the fundamental structure of the constitution.

Q14. The Company’s territories in India, for the first time, called the ‘British possessions in India’, under which of the following Acts?

  1. The Regulating Act of 1773
  2. The Pitts India Act of 1784
  3. The Charter Act of 1833
  4. The Charter Act of 1853

Ans. 2

  • The Company’s territories in India, for the first time, called the ‘British possessions in India’, under the Pitts India. Act of 1784. Features of the Act: 1. It distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company. 2. It allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs, but created a new body, called the Board of Control, to manage the political affairs. Thus, it established a system of double government. 3. It empowered the Board of Control to supervise and direct all operations of the civil and military government or revenues of the British possessions in India.

Q15. Separate electorates for the depressed classes (scheduled castes), women and labour (workers) were announced under which of the following Acts? A. The Government of India Act of 1935

  1. The Indian Councils Act of 1909
  2. The Government of Indi
  3. Act of 1919
  4. The Indian Councils Act of 1861

Ans. 1

  • In August 1932, Ramsay MacDonald, the then British Prime Minister, announced a scheme of representation of the minorities, which came to be known as the Communal Award. The Award not only continued separate electorates for the Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians. , Anglo-Indians.  and Europeans. , but also extended it to the depressed classes (scheduled castes). However, the Government of India. Act, 1935 had further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for the depressed classes (scheduled castes), women and labour (workers).

Q16. The Indian Independence Act of 1947 has abolished the Office of the Secretary of State for India. His functions were transferred to the

  1. President of India.
  2. Prime Minister of India.
  3. Secretary of State for Commonwealth Affairs
  4. Governor-General of India.

Ans. 3

  • The Indian Independence Act of 1947 had abolished the Office of the Secretary of State for India and transferred his functions to the Secretary of State for Commonwealth Affairs.

Q17. The ‘Objectives Resolution’ of 1946 had declared Indias

  1. Sovereign and Republic
  2. Sovereign and Democratic
  3. Republic and Democratic
  4. Sovereign, Republic and Democratic

Ans. 1

  • On December 13, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure. It read: “This Constituent Assembly declares its firm and solemn resolve to proclaim India as an Independent Sovereign Republic and to draw up for her future governance a Constitution”.

Q18. Which of the following Acts sought to mediate between the Parliament and the Company’s Directors, and allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs?

  1. The Regulating Act of 1773
  2. The Charter Act of 1853
  3. The Charter Act of 1833
  4. The Pitt’s India Act of 1784

Ans. 4

  • The Pitt’s India. Act of 1784 sometimes described as the “half-loaf system”, as it Sought to mediate between Parliament and the company directors, enhanced Parliament’s control by establishing the Board of Control, whose members were Selected from the British cabinet. It allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs but created a new body called Board of Control to manage the political affairs. Thus, it established a system of double government.

Q19. Who said that the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) constitute the conscience of the Constitution?

  1. Ivor Jennings
  2. Mortimer Wheeler
  3. National Committee for the Review of Working of the Constitution
  4. Granville Austin

Ans. 4

  • The Directive Principles, along with the Fundamental Rights, contain the philosophy of the Constitution and is the soul of the Constitution. Granville Austin has described the Directive Principles and the Fundamental Rights as the ‘Conscience of the Constitution’.

Q20. The concept of ‘Due process of law’ was introduced in the Indian jurisprudence by which of the following cases?

  1. Keshavanand Bharati Case
  2. Maneka Gandhi Case
  3. I. R. Coelho Case
  4. Golak Nath Case

Ans. 2

  • In Manek a Gandhi case (1978), the Supreme Court overruled its judgement in the Gopalan case by taking a wider interpretation of Article 21. Therefore, it ruled that the right to life and personal liberty of a person can be deprived by a law provided the procedure prescribed by that law is reasonable, fair and just. In other words, it has introduced the American expression ‘due process of law’. In effect, the protection under Article 21 should be available not only against arbitrary executive action, but also against arbitrary legislative action. Further, the Court held that the ‘right to life’ as embodied in Article 21 is not merely confined to animal existence or survival, but it includes within its ambit the right to live with human dignity and all those aspects of life which go to make a man’s life meaningful, complete and worth living. It also ruled that the expression ‘Personal Liberty’ in Article 21 is of the widest amplitude and it covers a variety of rights that go to constitute the personal liberties of a man.

Q21. Under whose Prime Ministership the list of reasonable restrictions of freedom of speech and expression guaranteed under Article 19(1) A. was extended with three more restrictions?

  1. Jawahar Lal Nehru
  2. Indira Gandhi
  3. Rajiv Gandhi
  4. Morarji Desai

Ans. 1

  • Through the First Amendment Act of 1951, three more grounds of restrictions on freedom of speech and expression viz., public order, friendly relations with foreign states and incitement to an offence were added. Also, it made the restrictions reasonable and thus, justiciable in nature. 1951

Q22. How many fundamental Rights are mentioned in Indian constitution?

  1. Five
  2. Six
  3. Seven
  4. Eight

Ans. 2

  • Six fundamental Rights are mentioned in Indian constitution. They are right to equality (article 14-18) right to freedom (article 19-22) right against exploitation (article 23- 24) right to freedom of religion (article 25-28) cultural and educational rights (article 29-30) right to constitutional remedies (article 32)

Q23. Which parliamentary committee in India is normally chaired by a prominent member of the opposition?

  1. Committee on Government Assurances
  2. Estimates Committee
  3. Privileges Committee
  4. Public Accounts Committee

Ans. 4

  • The Chairman of PAC is appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha. Since 1967, the chairman of the committee is selected from the opposition earlier it was headed by the member of ruling Party.

Q24. The President can dismiss member of the Council of Ministers

  1. with the consent of the Speaker
  2. only under emergency conditions
  3. on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
  4. on his own

Ans. 3

  • The President can dismiss a member of the Council of Ministers on the recommendation of the Prime Minister.

Q25. The Sharda Act is related to

  1. Upliftment of scheduled tribes
  2. Upliftment of minorities
  3. Child Marriage
  4. Empowerment of women

Ans. 3

  • Originally Sharda Act is known as Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929. This Act fixed the age of marriage for girls at 14 years and boys at 18 years which was later amended to 18 for girls and 21 for boys.

 

 

 

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