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Most Important GS Questions for UP and Bihar Judiciary Set 10 – Judiciary Exam – Free PDF

 

Q1. Who opposed the planned development in India?

  1. Mahatma Gandhi
  2. Indira Gandhi
  3. Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. Rajiv Gandhi

Answer 1

  • Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi opposed planned development in India. While the first major socialist of the modern period in India was Mahatma Gandhi, his definition of socialism was special. There is a clear influence of many religions and many philosophers on Gandhiji’s ideas. Gandhiji was opposed to industrialization in planned development as he considered it to be the cause of economic inequality, unemployment, exploitation etc. He believed that such planned development would increase the level of discrimination and high and low in a big way. This will lead to poor and poor and rich and rich, there will never be equality in the society and political dictatorship will be established in the society.

Q2. Within how many days is it legally mandatory to register birth and death events in India under the Civil Registration System (CRS)?

  1. 15 days
  2. 21 days
  3. 26 days
  4. 30 days

Answer 2

  • Explanation Under the Civil Registration System (CRS), it is mandatory to register the birth and death event in India within 21 days. Under the Birth and Death Registration Act, 1969, it is mandatory that every birth/ stillbirth or every death should be registered within 21 days of the birth or death in the concerned State/UT. Accordingly, the government has made arrangements for a well-defined system for registration of premises by the Registrar General at the center and with the chief registrars in the states, by the district registrars in villages and in cities.

Q3. Which of the following is correct with respect to the title of Article 162 of the Indian Constitution?

  1. Executive power of the state
  2. Conditions for the office of governor
  3. Governor’s term
  4. Expans ion of the executive power of the state

Answer 4

  • Explanation: Article 162 | Constitution of India Executive power of a State in respect of any matter with respect to which the Legislature of a State and Parliament have power to make
  • laws Executive power of the Union expressly conferred by this Constitution, or by any law made by Parliament, to the Union or its authorities subject to and limited by it.

Q4. How many types of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity are mentioned in the Preamble of the Constitution of India in that order?

  1.  3, 5, 2, 1
  2.  1, 3, 5, 2
  3.  2, 5, 3, 1
  4.  5, 2, 1, 3

Answer 1

  • Explanation The Preamble to the Constitution of India states
  • two types of equality (status and opportunity),
  • one type of fraternity (fraternity),
  • 5 types of freedom (thought, expression, belief, religion and worship),
  • 3 types of justice (social, economic and political ) has been mentioned.

Q5. Which of the following was the first state formed on the basis of language in India?

  1. Kerala
  2. Andhra Pradesh
  3. Madhya Pradesh
  4. Uttar Pradesh

Answer 3

  • Explanation On the basis of language, the first state Andhra Pradesh was formed in 1953 . This state was formed by dividing Madras on the basis of language as a Telugu speaking state.

Q6. Which of the following is an extra-constitutional body?

  1. Union Public Service Commission
  2. Finance Commission
  3. Election Commission
  4. NITI Aayog

Answer 4

  • Explanation According to Article 315, the Union Public Service Commission, according to Article 280, the Finance Commission and according to Article 324, the Election Commission are constitutional bodies, whereas NITI Aayog is an extra-constitutional body. It is not mentioned in the constitution.

Q7. The Directive Principles of State Policy can be divided into which of the following parts for easy study?

  1. Socialist
  2. Liberal Intellectual
  3. Gandhian
  4. All of the above

Answer 4

  • Explanation The Directive Principles of State Policy have been mentioned under Articles 36 to 51 of Part 4 of the Indian Constitution. The Directive Principles of State Policy can be divided into socialist, Gandhian and liberal intellectualist parts for easy study.

Q8. After how many days of absence from the Parliament without permission, can a Member of Parliament (MP) be disqualified?

  1. 30 day
  2. 60 days
  3. 90 days
  4. 120 days

Answer 2

  • Explanation According to Article 101(4) of the Constitution, if a member of either House of Parliament remains absent for a period of 60 days from all its meetings without the permission of the House, In carrying out the computation, no period shall be taken into account during which the House is prorogued or adjourned for more than four consecutive days.

Q9. With which of the following are the recommendations of Sarkaria Commission related?

  1. Distribution of revenue
  2. Powers and Functions of the President
  3. Membership of Parliament
  4. Center-State relations

Answer 4

  • Explanation: A three-member commission was constituted in the year 1983 to investigate the center-state relations. Justice Ranjit Singh Sarkaria, Chairman of the Commission and Shri B. Sivaraman and Dr. S. R. Sen was another member of the commission. The commission made a total of 247 recommendations towards the improvement of centre-state relations. On the basis of the recommendations of this commission, the Inter-State Council has been constituted under Article 263.

Q10. The Directive Principles of State Policy can be divided into which of the following parts for easy study?

  1. Socialist
  2. Liberal Intellectual
  3. Gandhian
  4. All of the above

Q11. Who among the following is authorized to constitute Inter-State Council?

  1. Parliament
  2. President
  3. Speaker of Lok Sabha
  4. Prime minister

Answer 2

  • Explanation Under Article 263 of the Constitution of India, the President is empowered to establish an Inter-State Council for inquiry, discussion and advice on disputes in Centre-State relations, to make recommendations on any matter of public interest, etc.

Q12. Who is usually appointed as ‘Protem Speaker’?

  1. To the Speaker of the previous Lok Sabha
  2. To the Deputy Speaker of the previous Lok Sabha
  3. One of the senior most members of the newly-elected Lok Sabha
  4. To the Leader of the Opposition of the previous Lok Sabha

Answer 3

  • Explanation The Pro-tem Speaker is the one who conducts the lower house of Parliament (Lok Sabha) till the permanent Speaker is elected in the first session after the election.

Q13. The resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha under Article 249 of the Constitution, by which the Parliament has been empowered to make laws in the national interest on the subject of the State List, shall remain in force upto?

  1. Not exceeding six months
  2. Not more than two years
  3. Not more than one year
  4. Indefinitely

Answer 3

  • Explanation: This resolution was passed by Rajya Sabha under Article 249 of the Constitution. This Resolution by which Parliament has to make laws in the national interest on the subject of the State List has been given the right to make, shall not be in force for more than one year.

Q15. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, Parliament can make laws on the subjects of the State List to give effect to international agreements?

  1. Article 249
  2. Article 250
  3. Article 252
  4. Article 253

Answer 4

  • Explanation: Article 253 – This Article provides to Parliament any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for the implementation of any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country or countries or any decision taken in any international convention, association or other body has the power to create.

Q16. In which article of the Indian Constitution there is a provision for the Election Commission?

  1. Article 320
  2. Article 322
  3. Article 324
  4. Article 326

Answer 3

  • Explanation The provisions related to the Election Commission are mentioned in Article 324 of the Constitution.

Q17. As per Article-243(ZJ) of the Constitution of India, the maximum number of directors of a co-operative society can be?

  1. 21
  2. 15
  3. 11
  4. 7

Answer (a)

  • Explanation Article 243 (ZJ) – The number and conditions of the members of the Board and its office bearers – (i) the Board shall be constituted by such number of directors as may be provided by the Legislature of the State by law; Provided that the maximum number of directors of any co-operative society shall not exceed to 21.

Q18. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the foreign policy of India?

  1. Article-380
  2. Article 60
  3. Article-312
  4. Article 51

Answer 4

  • Explanation Article 51 of the Indian Constitution deals with the foreign policy of India. According to Article 51, the State shall endeavor to
  1. Promotion of international peace and security,
  2. To maintain just and respectful relations between nations
  3. To promote respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organized people with one another, and
  4. To encourage the settlement of international disputes by arbitration, etc.

 Q19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Answer from the codes given below the lists :

Select the correct option from below:

  1.  1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
  2.  1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
  3.  1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
  4.  1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A

Answer: 2

Q20. Which one of the following is not a federal feature of the Constitution of India?

  1. Power sharing between the center and the states
  2. Fully written constitution
  3. Single citizenship
  4. Independent judiciary

Answer 3

  • Explanation The provision of monogamous citizenship is a unitary feature of the Indian Constitution. Another unitary feature is the division of power in favor of the center.
  • One constitution for the union and the states.
  • Integrated Judicial System.
  • The Governors of the states are appointed by the President.
  • Inter-State Councils and Regional Councils.

Q21. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Answer from the codes given below the lists :

 

Select the correct option from below:

  1. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
  2. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
  3. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
  4. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A

Answer B

Q22. Which of the following is true about Rajya Sabha?

  1.  It cannot be dissolved.
  2.  Its tenure is of five years.
  3.  Term of One-third of its members expire after every two years.
  4.  Its members shall not be less than 25 years of age.

Select the correct Answer from the code given below

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 2 and 4

Answer 3

  • Explanation The maximum number of seats in the Rajya Sabha is fixed at Out of this, 238 are the representatives of the member states and union territories and 12 are nominated by the President. Rajya Sabha is a continuous body, that is, it cannot be dissolved. Its term of office is 6 years and after every 2 years one-third of the members retire and the Rajya Sabha member should be at least 30 years old.

Q23. The Uttar Pradesh Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act 1950 is embedded in?

  1. Fifth schedule
  2. Seventh schedule
  3. Ninth schedule
  4. Eleventh schedule

Answer 3

  • Explanation The Acts and Regulations of Parliament relating to State Legislatures and other list matters relating to land reforms and abolition of Zamindari are included in the 9th Schedule of the Constitution of India. The Uttar Pradesh Zamindari Abolition and Land Reforms Act, 1950 is contained in the Ninth Schedule.

Q24. By which constitutional amendment Sikkim was made a full-fledged state of India?

  1. 14th Constitutional Amendment
  2. 35th Constitutional Amendment
  3. 36th Constitutional Amendment
  4. 38th Constitutional Amendment

Ans – 3

  • Explanation – Sikkim was included in India as the 22nd state by the 36th Constitutional Amendment.

Q25. Which of the following is mentioned in the State List under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution?

  1. Public Health and Sanitation
  2. Electricity
  3. Railway
  4. Forest

Ans – 1

  • Explanation
  • Union List – Army, Defence, Foreign Affairs, Railways, Posts, Savings, Atomic Energy, Citizenship, Communication, Currency, Banking, Census, Income Tax and Corporation Tax etc.
  • State List – Public Order, Police, Public Health and Sanitation, Water, Land, Fishing, Taxes on Agricultural Income, Toll Tax etc.
  • Concurrent List – Forest, Electricity, Factories, Marriage, Divorce, Trusts and Trustees, Education

 

 

 

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