Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 4 January 2023

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC 2023

Q) Which one of the following statement is correct about the ‘Indian Rhinoceros’?

1. It lives in low lying grasslands which are vulnerable to wildfires.
2. It is endemic to the Brahmaputra valley in India.
3. It is listed as endangered in the IUCN Red List.
4. It is listed in Appendix II of the CITES.

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 3 January 2023

Explanation:

• Option (1) is correct: The Indian Rhinoceros (Greater one-horned rhino) can only be found in the Brahmaputra valley, parts of North Bengal, and parts of southern Nepal. It has a single black horn that can grow up to 60 cm, and a tough, grey-brown hide with skin folds, which gives the animal its characteristic look. There are around 3,700 Indian rhinos in the wild today. Kaziranga National Park (KNP) of Assam alone has 2,613 animals. There are more than 250 other rhinos in the Orang, Pobitora, and Manas parks of Assam. The Indian Rhino is listed as vulnerable in the IUCN Red List. It is listed in Appendix 1 of the CITES. It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Rhinos are hunted for their horn, which is used in traditional Chinese medicine to cure ailments such as cancer and is also an aphrodisiac. The construction of roads and railways has fragmented protected areas. This prevents rhinos from carrying out their annual migration. Rhinos inhabit low-lying grasslands of India. These grasslands are vulnerable to wildfires and annual flooding. Many invasive grass species have spread across Rhino habitats. These plants out-compete the native plants on which Rhinos rely for food. High population density leads to lower breeding rates. This affects the genetic diversity of Rhinos in the long run. Indian Rhino Vision 2020 was launched in 2005 to help the greater one-horned rhino reach a wild population of at least 3000 rhinos. It is collaboration between International Rhino Foundation, Assam’s Forest Department, Bodoland Territorial Council, and World Wide Fund. The goal of Indian Rhino Vision 2020 is to reduce risks to India’s rhino population by ensuring that the animals are spread throughout seven protected areas of Assam by the year 2020. Kaziranga, Pobitora, Orang National Park, Manas National Park, Laokhowa wildlife sanctuary, Burachapori wildlife sanctuary and Dibru Saikhowa wildlife sanctuary are the protected areas.

Q) With reference to the ‘Interstate Water Disputes’, consider the following statements:

1. Adjudication of interstate water disputes falls under Article 131, exclusive original jurisdiction, of the SupremeCourt of India.
2. The Parliament cannot pass any law or act with respect to the adjudication of interstate water disputes.
3. The Kalasa-Banduri Project on the Mandovi River has been the point of contention between Karnataka and Goa.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 3 only

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: With regard to the exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 131, two points should be noted. One, the dispute must involve a question (whether of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends. Thus, the questions of political nature are excluded from it. Two, any suit brought before the Supreme Court by a private citizen against the Centre or a state cannot be entertained under this. Further, Article 131 of the Supreme Court does not extend to adjudication of interstate water disputes.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 262 of the Constitution of India, Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley. Under this provision of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament has enacted two laws:
• The River Boards Act of 1956: It provides for the establishment of river boards for the regulation and development of Inter-state River and river valleys. A river board is established by the Central government on the request of the state governments concerned to advise them.
• The Inter-State Water Disputes Act of 1956: It empowers the Central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two or more states in relation to the waters of an inter-state river or river valley. The decision of the tribunal would be final and binding on the parties to the dispute.
• Statement 3 is correct: Recently, the Karnataka government’s decision to proceed with the Kalasa-Banduri Nala Project has escalated its long-standing dispute with neighbouring Goa. he Kalasa-Banduri Project undertaken by the Karnataka government proposes to divert Mandovi river water from Kalasa and Banduri canals into the Malaprabha river in the state to facilitate drinking water to 13 towns of Dharwad, Belagavi, Bagalkote and Gadag. The entire project aims to construct a total of 11 dams on the river Mandovi. The diversion of water from Kalasa and Banduri nullahs, has been the point of contention between Karnataka and Goa, with the latter claiming it would strip the state of its flora and fauna.
• Additional Information:

Q) Consider the following statements about ‘Rani VeluNachiyar’:

1. She was the first Indian queen to wage war with the British East India Company in India.
2. She established the first army of trained women soldiers in 18th century.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: Rani VeluNachiyar was a queen of the Sivaganga estate (a permanently settled Zamindari estate in the Madras Presidency) from 1780–1790. She was the first Indian queen to wage war with the East India Company in India (in collaboration with Hyder Ali and Gopala Nayaker) and emerged victorious. She is known by Tamils as Veeramangai (“brave woman”).
• Statement 2 is correct: Rani VeluNachiyar went on to produce the first human bomb as well as establish the first army of trained women soldiers in the late 1700s. Rani Velu Nachiyar was born during 1730 AD as the only daughter of King Chellamuthu Vijayaragunatha Sethupathi and Sakkandi Muthathal couple of Ramanathapuram. Though an only daughter, Velu Nachiyar was raised as a male heir. She also received weapons training, including swordsmanship and mace. During 1746, she married Sivaganga king Muthuvaduganatha Devar.

Q) With reference to the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (PCA) Act of 1960, consider the following statements:

1. It was emanate out of a belief that animals were vested with rights.
2. It does not criminalise the use of animals for advance medical experiments.
3. According to the Supreme Court of India, the practice of Jallikattu in Tamil Nadu violates the existing provisions of the PCA Act.

Which of the statement given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act (PCA Act), 1960 was enacted by the Parliament to prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals. The Act was rooted in the ethical precept that it was morally wrong to inflict unnecessary pain and suffering on animals. However, it did not emanate out of a belief that animals were vested with rights.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act (PCA Act), 1960 does not criminalise the use of animals for experiments with a view to securing medical advancement.
• Statement 3 is correct: In 2014, the Supreme Court of India held that jallikatu violated:
• The existing provisions of the PCA Act.
• Fundamental duty contained in Article 51A(g).
• Right to life contained in Article 21.
• The expanded meaning of Word ‘life’ in this Article now included a right against disturbance to the basic environment.
• It also meant that animal life must also be treated with intrinsic worth, honour and dignity

Q) Consider the following statements about groundwater extraction in India:

1. About 70 percent of the total water used in India comes from groundwater sources.
2. Land subsidence may result from soil compaction brought on by groundwater extraction.
3. India is the second-largest groundwater-extraction country in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: According to the Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) of India, approximately 70% of the total water used in India is from groundwater sources. However, the CGWB also estimates that around 25% of the country’s total groundwater extraction is unsustainable, meaning that it is being extracted at a faster rate than it can be replenished.
• Statement 2 is correct: As groundwater levels drop, there may not be enough water available for domestic, agricultural, and industrial use. It can lead to reduced agricultural production and increased costs for water treatment and pumping. When groundwater is extracted, the soil can become compacted, leading to land subsidence (the sinking or settling of the land). This can cause damage to infrastructures, such as roads and buildings, and can also increase the risk of flooding. When groundwater levels drop, it can cause saltwater intrusion in coastal areas, leading to the contamination of freshwater resources.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: India extracts the most groundwater in the world, more than the 2nd and 3rd largest extractors (China and the United States) together. The Composite Water Management Index by NITI Aayog has sounded a note of caution about the water crisis in India, with more than 600 million people facing acute water shortages. Indian government regulates groundwater exploitation by “notifying” highly overexploited blocks in water-stressed states. However, only about 14% of overexploited blocks are currently notified.

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