Daily Current Affairs for UPSC 2022
Q) With reference to Election Commission, Consider the following statements:
- The chief election commissioner hold office till the pleasure of the president.
- The election commissioner can take up further appointment with the government after retirement.
- The Constitution does not mention the qualifications of the members of the Election Commission.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 23 November 2022
The Election Commission is a permanent and an independent body established by the Constitution of India directly to ensure free and fair elections in the country. Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission.
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The conditions of service and tenure of office of the election commissioners and the regional commissioners shall be determined by the president. The chief election commissioner is provided with the security of tenure. He cannot be removed from his office except in same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. He does not hold his office till the pleasure of the president, though he is appointed by him. The service conditions of the chief election commissioner cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Election Commission shall consist of the chief election commissioner and such number of other election commissioners, if any, as the president may from time to time fix. The appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners shall be made by the president. The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government There is also nothing in the Conditions of Service Act to prohibit a CEC or EC from joining any political party after retirement.
- Statement 3 is correct: The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications (legal, educational, administrative or judicial) of the members of the Election Commission. The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission.
Q) With reference to Project Unnati, consider the following statements:
- The aim of the project is to train one adult member (18-45 years) of a household that has completed 100 days of work under the MGNREGS.
- A stipend against wage loss compensation for 100 days is provided by the state government.
- The project converges with the training programme under Kisan Vigyan Kendras.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 3 only
- Statement 1 is correct: Project ‘UNNATI’, as a skilling project intends to upgrade the skill base of the Mahatma Gandhi NREGA beneficiaries, and thereby improving their livelihoods, so that they can move from the current partial employment to full-time employment and hence reduce their dependence on Mahatma Gandhi NREGS. This project is meant for providing training for one adult member (of age 18-45 years old) of a household who has completed 100 days of work under Mahatma Gandhi NREGA in the previous financial year from the year of commencement of the project. Since its inception in 2020, just a little over 25,000 persons have been trained under the project, falling far short of its target of 2 lakh.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The candidates undergoing training are paid a stipend for a maximum period of 100 days and for one program per household as per the wage rate prevailing in the concerned State/UT as per the provisions of the project. Full expenditures towards a stipend, against wage loss compensation, are entirely borne by Central Government.
- Statement 3 is correct: Under the project, the selected candidates are skilled using three established training programmes — the Deen Dayal Upadhyay Grameen Kaushal Yojana (DDU-GKY), the Rural Self Training Institute (RSETI) and the Krishi Vigyan Kendra. A Krishi Vigyan Kendra trains candidates in trades related to the agricultural sectors. The Grameen Kaushal Yojana is a placement-linked programme, in which 70% of the trained candidates have to be compulsorily employed with a minimum salary of Rs 6,000 per month. The RSETI is for entrepreneurial skills where persons in the age group of 18-45 get short-term residential training with long-term hand-holding support for up to two years.
Q) With reference to North-Eastern Areas (Reorganization) Act, 1971, Consider the following statements:
- The union territory of Manipur was provided with the status of statehood.
- The state of Nagaland was formed by taking the Naga Hills and the Tuensang area out of the state of Assam.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
An Act to provide for the establishment of the States of Manipur and Tripura and to provide for the formation of the State of Meghalaya and of the Union territories of Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh by reorganisation of the existing State of Assam and for matters connected therewith.
- Statement 1 is correct: Thus, with the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganization) Act, 1971, the two union territories of Manipur and Tripura got statehood and the two union territories of Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh (originally known as North-East Frontier Agency–NEFA) came into being. With this, the number of states of the Indian Union increased to 21 (Manipur 19th, Tripura 20th and Meghalaya 21st).
- Statement 2 is incorrect: In 1963, by the State of Nagaland Act, 1962, the State of Nagaland was formed by taking the Naga Hills and Tuensang area out of the state of Assam. This was done to satisfy the movement of the hostile Nagas. However, before giving Nagaland the status of the 16th state of the Indian Union, it was placed under the control of governor of Assam in 1961.
Q) With reference to Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA), consider the following statements:
- ECTA is a proposed free trade agreement between India and the European Union for duty-free access to markets.
- Till now, India has signed free trade agreements with thirteen countries.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
- Statement 1 is incorrect: India and Australia in April 2022, signed an Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (IndAus ECTA). It set to provide zero-duty access to 96 per cent of India’s exports to Australia including shipments from key sectors such as engineering goods, gems and jewellery, textiles, apparel and leather. It is expected to boost bilateral trade in goods and services to $45-50 billion over five years, up from around $27 billion, and generate over one million jobs in India. The Australian Parliament has recently passed the country’s Free trade Agreement (FTA) with India.
- Statement 2 is correct: So far, India has signed 13 Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) with its trading partners, including the 3 agreements, namely India-Mauritius Comprehensive Economic Cooperation and Partnership Agreement (CECPA), India-UAE Comprehensive Partnership Agreement (CEPA) and India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (IndAus ECTA) signed during the last five years. The list of FTAs signed by India is as under:
- India-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement (FTA)
- Agreement on South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) (India, Pakistan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Bhutan, the Maldives and Afghanistan)
- India-Nepal Treaty of Trade India-Bhutan Agreement on Trade, Commerce and Transit
- India-Bhutan Agreement on Trade, Commerce and Transit
- India-Thailand FTA – Early Harvest Scheme (EHS)
- India-Singapore Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA)
- India-ASEAN CECA – Trade in Goods, Services and Investment Agreement
- India-South Korea Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA)
- India-Japan CEPA
- India-Malaysia CECA
- India-Mauritius Comprehensive Economic Cooperation and Partnership Agreement (CECPA)
- India-UAE CEPA
- India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA)
Q) Consider the following pairs:
|Military Exercise||Associated Countries|
|1. Garuda Shakti||India and Nepal|
|2. Surya Kiran||India and Indonesia|
|3.Vajra Prahaar||India and France|
|4. Mitra Shakti||India and Sri Lanka|
How many pair(s) given above are correctly matched?
- Only one pair
- Only two pairs
- Only three pairs
- All four pairs
- Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Garuda Shakti is joint military exercise between Indian Special Forces and Indonesian Special Forces. The exercise is aimed at enhancing military cooperation and interoperability between Special Forces of India and Indonesia.
- Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Surya Kiran is a joint military exercise between India and Nepal. During the exercise, both militaries conduct various counter-insurgency operations over a prolonged period in their respective countries.
- Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: The Vajra Prahaar is an India – USA Joint Special Forces Exercise. This annual exercise is hosted alternatively between India and the United States. It provides an opportunity for the Special Forces from both nations to train in Air Borne Operations, Special Operations and Counter Terrorism operations in a joint environment under United Nations Charter.
- Pair 4 is correctly matched: Exercise Mitra Shakti is the joint military exercise between the Indian Army and the Sri Lankan Army. Exercise Mitra Shakti is based on counter insurgency and counter terrorism operations in semi urban terrain and it forms a major part of India and Sri Lanka’s growing defence partnership.