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Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 23rd September 2022

 

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC 2022

Q) Consider the following statements regarding Electoral Bonds Scheme

  1. The scheme was introduced to clean the system of political funding in the country by preventing unaccounted money from coming into the country’s economy through political funding.
  2. The bond is available throughout the year in State Bank of India.
  3. There is a limit as to total taxable income of a person or company on the electoral bonds.

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 1 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 22nd September 2022

Explanation:

About Electoral Bonds scheme

  • Electoral bonds are a type of money instruments that can be bought by companies and individuals in India from the State Bank of India (SBI) and donated to a political party.
    • The political party can encash these bonds within 15 days, only through the allotted account. The bond does not bear the donor’s name.
  • Objective of the scheme: The scheme was introduced to clean the system of political funding in the country by preventing unaccounted money from coming into the country’s economy through political funding. (Statement 1 is correct)
    • The government claimed that that it would make political donations transparent while also protecting the identity of the donor.
  • Denomination of bonds: Bonds can be bought from any SBI branch in multiples of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh and Rs 1 crore.
    • There is no limit on the number of electoral bonds that a person or company can buy. (Statement 3 is not correct)
Electoral Bonds Scheme
Electoral Bonds Scheme
  • Eligibility: Political party should be registered under section 29A of the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951 (43 of 1951).
    • The party should have secured at least one per cent of the votes polled in the most recent Lok Sabha or State election.
    • It should have been allotted a verified account by the Election Commission of India.
  • Sale window: The bonds go on sale in 10-day windows in the beginning of every quarter, i.e. in January, April, July and October. (Statement 2 is not correct)
    • In addition, there will be a 30-day period specified by the Central Government during Lok Sabha election years.

Q) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Telecommunication Bill, 2022

  1. The bill seeks to complement the existing legal framework comprising the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885, the Wireless Telegraphy Act, 1933 and the Telegraph Wires (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1950 that currently govern the telecom sector.
  2. The bill expanded the definition of “telecommunication services” to include broadcasting services, e-mail, video and data communication services, satellite-based communication services, Internet-based communication services and over-the-top (OTT) services, among others.
  3. The Bill provides that the identity of the person sending a message through telecom services shall be available to a user receiving it.

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. All of the above
  4. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

About the draft Indian Telecommunication Bill, 2022

  • Umbrella legislation: The bill seeks to replace the existing legal framework comprising the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885, the Wireless Telegraphy Act, 1933 and the Telegraph Wires (Unlawful Possession) Act, 1950 that currently govern the telecom sector. (Statement 1 is not correct)
  • Amalgamation: The bill aims to consolidate and amend existing laws governing provision, development, expansion and operation of telecommunication services, networks and infrastructure, and assignment of spectrum.

Key provisions of the draft bill

  • Widened definition: The bill expanded the definition of “telecommunication services” to include broadcasting services, e-mail, video and data communication services, satellite-based communication services, Internet-based communication services and over-the-top (OTT) services, among others. (Statement 2 is correct)
    • It means platforms such as WhatsApp, Zoom and Netflix will come under the ambit of telecom services that require a licence to operate.
    • At present, while telecom companies need a licence to offer services, OTT platforms do not.
  • Message and signal interception: The bill states that information transmitted and received over telecommunication services could be intercepted by an authorized official of the government in the interest of the sovereignty, integrity or security of India.
    • However, exemption is given to press messages that are intended to be published in India of correspondents accredited to the Central or state governments.
  • Cyber fraud prevention: The Bill provides that the identity of the person sending a message through telecom services shall be available to a user receiving it. (Statement 3 is correct)
  • Dilution of TRAI: The draft Bill proposes amendments to the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) Act, 1997.

Q) Recently in news, Advanced Dvorak Technique relates to which of the following?

  1. Development of Vaccine
  2. Quantum Computers
  3. Human re-entry capsules
  4. Weather Forecasting

Ans: d. Weather Forecasting

Explanation:

  • The American meteorologist Vernon Dvorak, credited for developing the Dvorak (read as Do-rak) technique in the early 1970s,  passed away at the age of 100.
  • The Dvorak technique continues to be widely relied upon by forecasters till date, despite the developments in advanced satellite technology, Machine Learning (ML) and Artificial Intelligence (AI).

Dvorak Technique (DT)

  • It is a cloud pattern recognition technique based on a concept model of the development and decay of the tropical cyclone.
  • It is s statistical method for estimating the intensity of tropical cyclones (TCs) from interpretation of satellite imagery.
  • Uses regular Infrared and Visible imagery.
  • Based on a “measurement” of the cyclone’s convective cloud pattern and a set of rules.
  • It is used at tropical cyclone warning centres around the world.
Advanced Dvorak Technique
Advanced Dvorak Technique

Q) Which of the following are being used by India for Cyclone Forecast?

  1. ACROSS
  2. GEMINI
  3. SSEWS

Choose the correct option.

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. All of the above
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Steps Taken in India for Cyclone Forecast

  • Atmospheric & Climate Research – Modeling Observing Systems & Services (ACROSS): It is an Umbrella scheme for enhancing the accuracy of weather forecasts and their more effective & timely dissemination in the ensuing years is a continuing process. (Statement 1 is correct)
  • GEMINI: Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) has developed a device named GEMINI (GAGAN Enabled Mariner’s Instrument for Navigation and Information), a handheld device that receives the information transmitted through satellite system ‘GAGAN’ and sends it to mobile phones through Bluetooth. (Statement 2 is correct)
  • SSEWS: INCOIS has set up a Storm Surge Early Warning System (SSEWS) for the Indian coasts, in collaboration with the IMD, to forecast cyclone-induced storm surges and inundation extent. (Statement 3 is correct)
  • National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project (NCRMP): To undertake suitable structural and non-structural measures to mitigate the effects of cyclones in the coastal states and UTs of India.
    • Project has identified 13 cyclone prone States and Union Territories (UTs), with varying levels of vulnerability.
  • Phase–2 of the NCRMP: National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) in collaboration with India Meteorological Department (IMD) has developed a web based Dynamic Composite Risk Analysis (Web-DCRA) & Decision Support System (DSS) tool for forecasting the expected damage associated with the Landfalling cyclones over the coastal districts of our country.
    • It will enable the disaster managers for a better assessment of the vulnerable areas and in mobilizing the mitigation action based on this.

Q) Consider the following statements regarding Andaman and Nicobar Islands

  1. The Great Andaman group of islands in the north is separated by the Duncan passage from the Nicobar group in the south.
  2. Ten Degree Channel separates Little Andaman from South Andaman.
  3. Saddle peak (737 m) in North Andaman is the highest peak.

Which of these statements are incorrect?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. All of the above

Explanation:

Andaman and Nicobar Islands

  • This archipelago is composed of 265 big and small islands [203 Andaman islands + 62 Nicobar Islands] [Numbers are just for understanding. You need not remember trivial facts].
  • The Andaman and Nicobar Islands extend from 6° 45′ N to 13° 45′ N and from 92° 10′ E to 94° 15′ E for a distance adams bridge – ram setu – islandsof about 590 km.
  • The Andaman Islands are divided into three main islands i.e. North, Middle and South.
  • Duncan passage separates Little Andaman from South Andaman. (Statement 1 is not correct)
  • The Great Andaman group of islands in the north is separated by the Ten Degree Channel from the Nicobar group in the south [Prelims 2014]. (Statement 2 is not correct)
  • Port Blair, the capital of Andaman Nicobar Islands lies in the South Andaman.
  • Among the Nicobar Islands, the Great Nicobar is the largest. It is the southernmost island and is very close to Sumatra Island of Indonesia. The Car Nicobar is the northernmost.
  • Most of these islands are made of tertiary sandstone, limestone and shale resting on basic and ultrabasic volcanoes [Similar to Himalayas].
  • THE BARREN AND NARCONDAM ISLANDS, north of Port Blair, are volcanic islands [these are the only active volcanoes in India] [There are no active volcanoes in mainland India].
  • Some of the islands are fringed with coral reefs. Many of them are covered with thick forests. Most of the islands are mountainous.
  • Saddle peak (737 m) in North Andaman is the highest peak. (Statement 3 is correct)

Q) Consider the following statements regarding Securities and Exchange Board of India

  1. SEBI is a statutory body established on April 12, 1992, in accordance with the provisions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.
  2. The Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) has been constituted to protect the interest of entities that feel aggrieved by SEBI’s decision.
  3. An appeal against the decision of SAT lies before the High Court of Bombay.

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

  • SEBI is a statutory body established on April 12, 1992 in accordance with the provisions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992. (Statement 1 is correct)
  • SEBI Board consists of a Chairman and several other whole time and part time members.
  • SEBI also appoints various committees, whenever required to look into the pressing issues of that time.
  • Further, a Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) has been constituted to protect the interest of entities that feel aggrieved by SEBI’s decision. (Statement 2 is correct)
  • SAT consists of a Presiding Officer and two other Members.
  • It has the same powers as vested in a civil court. Further, if any person feels aggrieved by SAT’s decision or order can appeal to the Supreme Court. (Statement 3 is not correct)

Q) Recently in news, Global Wealth Report is released by –

  1. World Bank
  2. World Economic Forum
  3. Credit Suisse
  4. None of the above

Explanation:

  • According to Credit Suisse Global Wealth Report, Gini coefficient for India hit a peak of 82.3 in 2020 and remained the same at the end of 2021.
    • Gini coefficient is a measure of inequality. A higher figure denotes higher level of inequality.
  • Widening Income and Wealth Gap: India’s Gini coefficient has steadily increased from 74.7 in 2000 to 82.3 in 2021.
  • Total wealth in India increased by $1.5 trillion or 12% in 2021, to an estimated $14.2 trillion.
  • Wealth per adult increased by 9% in 2021 to $15,535.
  • Median wealth per adult grew lower at about 7.6%.
    • Between 2000 and 2021, mean wealth per adult in India has risen at an average annual rate of 8.8%, whereas median wealth has grown at 5.8%.

Q) Consider the following statements regarding Hybrid Propulsion System

  1. NASA has recently successfully demonstrated a hybrid propulsion system.
  2. Hybrid motor uses liquid fuel and solid oxidizer, as opposed to solid-solid or liquid-liquid combinations.
  3. The hybrid system is more efficient, greener, and safer to handle and helps in development of new propulsion technologies for future missions.

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 2 only

Explanation:

  • The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully demonstrated a hybrid propulsion system. (Statement 1 is not correct)

More on the News

  • The flight equivalent 30 kN hybrid motor was used for the tests and was performed for 15 seconds on a 300-mm sounding rocket motor.
  • Fuel and oxidizer: Hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene (HTPB)-based aluminized solid fuel and liquid oxygen (LOX) as the oxidizer was used for the test. (Statement 2 is not correct)
    • Hybrid motor uses solid fuel and liquid oxidizer, as opposed to solid-solid or liquid-liquid combinations.
    • Both HTPB and LOX are environment friendly, but the cryogenic LOX is safer to handle.
  • Significance: The hybrid system is more efficient, greener, and safer to handle and helps in development of new propulsion technologies for future missions. (Statement 3 is correct)
Hybrid Propulsion System
Hybrid Propulsion System

Q) An outbreak of Ebola has been declared in Uganda following the confirmation of a relatively rare Sudan strain case. Which of the following are the natural hosts of Ebola Virus?

  1. Sub-Saharan Camels
  2. Fruit Bats
  3. Mongoose
  4. None

Explanation:

  • An outbreak of Ebola has been declared in Uganda following the confirmation of a relatively rare Sudan strain case.

About Ebola Virus Disease (EVD)

  • It is a rare and deadly disease in people and non-human primates. The viruses that cause EVD are located mainly in sub-Saharan Africa.
  • Ebola virus was first discovered in 1976 near the Ebola River in what is now the Democratic Republic of Congo.

Transmission

  • Fruit bats of the Pteropodidae family are natural Ebola virus hosts.
  • Animal to Human Transmission: Through close contact with the blood, secretions, organs or other bodily fluids of infected animals.
  • Human-to-Human Transmission: Via direct contact (through broken skin or mucous membranes) with blood or body fluids of a person who is sick with or has died from Ebola or objects that have been contaminated with such body fluids (like blood, feces, vomit).

Q) Consider the following statements regarding DART

  1. It is a NASA space mission aimed at testing a method of planetary defense against near-Earth objects (NEOs).
  2. Under this, NASA will deliberately crash a spacecraft into the minor-planet moon Dimorphos of the double asteroid Didymos to assess the potential of a spacecraft impact to deflect an asteroid.
  3. It is a joint project between NASA and the European Space Agency (ESA).

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. All of the above
  4. 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

  • NASA is planning to crash a spacecraft into an asteroid to disrupt its path, under its DART mission.

What is Double Asteroid Redirection Test (DART) mission?

About

  • It is a NASA space mission aimed at testing a method of planetary defense against near-Earth objects (NEOs). (Statement 1 is correct)
  • Under this, NASA will deliberately crash a spacecraft into the minor-planet moon Dimorphos of the double asteroid Didymos to assess the potential of a spacecraft impact to deflect an asteroid. (Statement 2 is correct)
  • It is a joint project between NASA and the Johns Hopkins Applied Physics Laboratory (APL). (Statement 3 is not correct)

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 24th September 2022

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