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Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 22nd September 2022

 

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC 2022

 

Q) Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional Scheme of Governor

  1. Article 153: The Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his/her hand and seal.
  2. Article 167: It empowers the Governor to ask the Chief Minister to furnish any information regarding the “administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation”
  3. Article 213: Power of Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Legislature

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 2 only
  4. 1 and 2 only

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 21st September 2022

Explanation:

Constitutional Scheme of Governor

Article

Provisions

Article 153
  • There shall be a Governor for each State. One person can be appointed as Governor for two or more States.
  • He/she acts as a bridge between union and state governments.
Article 155
  • The Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his/her hand and seal.
Article 157 and Article 158
  • It specifies eligibility requirements for the post of governor.
  • Article 163: It talks about the discretionary power of governor.
Article 164
  • Governor appoints the Chief Minister after an election and the Council of Ministers on the advice of the CM.
Article 167
  • It empowers the Governor to ask the Chief Minister to furnish any information regarding the “administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation”.
  • It also empowers the Governor to ask the Chief Minister to submit for consideration to the Council of Ministers, a decision that was taken without the Council’s consideration.
Article 174
  • Governor can also summon, prorogue, and dissolve the Legislative Assembly.
  • By convention, he/she has to do this on the advice of the Council of Ministers while they enjoy the confidence of the Assembly.
Article 200
  • Every Bill passed in an Assembly has to be sent to the Governor, after which he/she has four options:
    • to assent to the Bill,
    • withhold assent,
    • reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President,
    • return the Bill to the legislature, asking it to reconsider the Bill or an aspect of it.
    • The Governor can also suggest an amendment to the Bill.
Article 239
  • It states that each Union Territory will be administered by the President through an administrator appointed by him/her and given a designation he/she specifies.
  • Lieutenant Governor was introduced through an amendment in 1956.
  • The administrators in some UTs are designated as Lieutenant Governors, with a special provision (Article 239AA) for the National Capital Territory of Delhi, which was inserted in 1991.
  • Lt. Governor of Delhi also acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers except on the subjects of police, public order, and land.
  • The Lt. Governor can exercise his discretion when required by any law. In case of a difference of opinion with the Ministers, he would have to consult the President.
  • Article 213 – Power of Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Legislature. (Statement 3 is correct)

Q) Consider the following statements regarding important judgements on powers of governors.

  1. Shamsher Singh vs State of Punjab (1974): To check repeated imposition of president rule, Supreme Court ruled that imposition of President’s Rule shall be only in the event of a breakdown of constitutional machinery.
  2. S.R. Bommai case (1994): Supreme Court said that President and Governor shall “exercise their formal constitutional powers only upon and in accordance with the advice of their Ministers, except in a few exceptional situations.
  3. Supreme Court in the B. P. Singhal Case (2010) declared that a change in power at the Centre cannot be grounds to recall governor and hence such actions are judicially reviewable.

Which of these statements are not correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Judiciary on the Governor

  • Shamsher Singh vs State of Punjab (1974): Supreme Court said that President and Governor shall “exercise their formal constitutional powers only upon and in accordance with the advice of their Ministers, except in a few exceptional situations. (Statement 1 is not correct)
    • Governor can summon, prorogue and dissolve the House only on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister as the head. And not at his/her own will.
  • R. Bommai case (1994): To check repeated imposition of president rule, Supreme Court ruled that imposition of President’s Rule shall be only in the event of a breakdown of constitutional machinery. (Statement 2 is not correct)
  • Supreme Court in the Nabam Rebia judgment (2016) ruled that the exercise of Governor’s discretion Article 163 is limited and his choice of action should not be arbitrary or fanciful.
    • It ruled that the floor of the Assembly should be the only forum that should test the majority of the government of the day, and not the subjective opinion of the Governor.
    • Supreme Court in the B. P. Singhal Case (2010) declared that a change in power at the Centre cannot be grounds to recall governor and hence such actions are judicially reviewable (Statement 3 is correct)

Q) Consider the following statements regarding Solar Photovoltaics manufacturing in India

  1. Currently, India’s annual installed solar PV manufacturing capacity is 3 GW for solar PV cells, 10-15 GW for solar PV modules, 5 GW for solar inverters while we have no manufacturing capacity for “polysilicon/wafer/ingots”, another critical component in case of solar power systems.
  2. The government plans to create an additional domestic manufacturing capacity of 25GW each of solar cells and modules, and 10GW of wafers by April 2023.
  3. China accounts for over 50% of India’s import bill for solar PV cells and modules.

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. All of the above

Explanation:

Solar Photovoltaics (PV) manufacturing in India                                                      

  • Currently, India’s annual installed solar PV manufacturing capacity is 3 GW for solar PV cells, 10-15 GW for solar PV modules, 5 GW for solar inverters while we have no manufacturing capacity for “polysilicon/wafer/ingots”, another critical component in case of solar power systems. (Statement 1 is correct)
  • The government plans to create an additional domestic manufacturing capacity of 25GW each of solar cells and modules, and 10GW of wafers by April 2023. (Statement 2 is correct)
  • China accounts for over 80% of India’s import bill for solar PV cells and modules. (Statement 3 is not correct)

Q) Consider the following statements regarding Strategic Petroleum Reserves in India

  1. These are stockpiles of crude oil maintained by countries for release in the event of a supply disruption.
  2. Presently, reserves are in Chandikhole, Odisha and Padur, Karnataka.
  3. The construction and management of strategic reserves is done by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas directly.

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 only
  4. 3 only

Explanation:

Current Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR) in India

  • About: These are stockpiles of crude oil maintained by countries for release in the event of a supply disruption. (Statement 1 is correct)
  • Objective: To ensure energy security of the country by serving as a cushion during any external supply disruptions.
  • Background:
    • It was first proposed in 1998 during PM Vajpayee government in the backdrop of volatile oil prices in 1990s.
    • The erstwhile Planning Commission, in its Integrated Energy Policy, 2006, recommended a reserve, equivalent to 90 days of oil imports for strategic cum-buffer stock purposes.
  • Current status:
    • Presently, strategic reserves are situated at Visakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh), Mangalore (Karnataka), and Padur (Kerala). (Statement 2 is not correct)
    • Current reserves can provide consumption coverage for 74 days. With the development of phase 2 reserves, the coverage will increase by 12 days, enhancing the complete coverage to 86 days.
  • Managing authority: The construction of the SPR facilities is being managed by Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited (ISPRL), a Special Purpose Vehicle under the control of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. (Statement 3 is not correct).
SPR facilities
SPR facilities

Q) Consider the following statements regarding Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)

  1. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India is a statutory body under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs.
  2. FSSAI is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety.

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 only
  3. None
  4. Both

Explanation:

Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)

  • Food Safety and Standards Authority of India is a statutory body under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. (Statement 1 is not correct)
    • It was established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
  • Functions: FSSAI is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety. (Statement 2 is correct)
  • Powers:
    • Framing regulations to lay down food safety standards
    • Laying guidelines for accreditation of laboratories for food testing
    • Providing scientific advice and technical support to the Union Government
    • Contributing to the development of international technical standards in food
    • Collecting and analyzing data regarding food consumption, contamination, emerging risks, etc.
    • Spreading information and promoting awareness about food safety and nutrition in India.

Q) Recently, the Supreme Court of India has decided to allow live streaming of constitution Bench cases. Consider the following statements regarding the situation in rest of the world.

  1. The US Supreme Court, since 2002, live video and audio broadcast of court proceedings is allowed.
  2. Brazil does not allow broadcast of its proceedings but allows audio recording and transcripts of oral arguments.
  3. United Kingdom: The Supreme Court proceedings are broadcast live with a one-minute delay on the court’s website, but coverage can be withdrawn in sensitive issues.

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 3 only

Explanation:

The US

 

The US Supreme Court does not allow broadcast of its proceedings but allows audio recording and transcripts of oral arguments.

 

Australia

 

Live or delayed broadcasting is allowed but the practices differ across courts.

 

Brazil

 

Since 2002, live video and audio broadcast of court proceedings is allowed.

 

Canada

 

Proceedings of Supreme Court are broadcast live on Cable Parliamentary Affairs Channel.

 

South Africa

 

The Supreme Court of South Africa has allowed the media to broadcast court proceedings in criminal matters since 2017.

 

United Kingdom

 

The Supreme Court proceedings are broadcast live with a one-minute delay on the court’s website, but coverage can be withdrawn in sensitive issues.

 

Q) Recently in news, Bio-Decomposer is planned to be used for which of the following purposes?

  1. Treating plastics and micro-plastics
  2. Generation of Biogas
  3. To control stubble burning
  4. None of the above

Explanation:

  • Context: To control stubble burning and reduce air pollution during winter, the Delhi government will spray a bio-decomposer free of cost over 5,000 acres of paddy fields in the city this year.
  • Need: In every winter season, air pollution spikes in Delhi and adjoining areas due to slow wind speed, bursting of firecrackers and pollution from stubble burning.
  • About Bio-decomposer: It is composed of a group of beneficial micro-organisms, which rapidly convert crop residues, animal waste, dung and other waste into organic manure.

Q) Consider the following statements regarding India Hypertension Control Initiative (IHCI)

  1. It is a multi-partner initiative involving the Indian Council of Medical Research, WHO-India, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and State governments to improve blood pressure control for people with hypertension.
  2. The project initiated in 26 districts in 2018 has expanded to all the districts by 2022.
  3. The overall prevalence of hypertension among adults in India is about 30% with urban prevalence of 34% and rural prevalence of 28%.

How many of these statements are correct?

  1. Only 1 is correct
  2. Only 3 is correct
  3. All are correct
  4. Only 2 is correct

Explanation:

Context: India has won ‘2022 UN Interagency Task Force and WHO Special Programme on Primary Health Care Award’ for its ‘India Hypertension Control Initiative’.

India Hypertension Control Initiative (IHCI)

About

  • It is a multi-partner initiative involving the Indian Council of Medical Research, WHO-India, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and State governments to improve blood pressure control for people with hypertension. (Statement 1 is correct)
  • The project initiated in 26 districts in 2018 has expanded to more than 100 districts by 2022. (Statement 2 is not correct)

Key Features

  • Treatment protocols that simplify quality patient care in primary care facilities.
  • Provision of adequate supply of quality medicines and blood pressure monitors.
  • Comprehensive training for healthcare workers at all levels on latest practices in hypertension treatment.
  • Team-based care for counseling and follow up of the patients.

Prevalence of Hypertension in India

  • The overall prevalence of hypertension among adults in India is about 30% with urban prevalence of 34% and rural prevalence of 28%. (Statement 3 is correct)
  • India has set a target of 25% relative reduction in the prevalence of hypertension by 2025.

Q) Consider the following statements regarding Dugong

  1. Dugongs also called ‘Sea Cows’, are the largest herbivorous marine mammals.
  2. IUCN Red List – Endangered
  3. Country’s first conservation reserve for Dugongs is in Palk Bay.

Which of these are not correct?

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 3 only

Explanation:

Context: Tamil Nadu notified the country’s first ‘Dugong Conservation Reserve’ in Palk Bay covering the coastal waters of Thanjavur and Pudukkottai districts. (Statement 3 is correct)

What are Dugongs?

About: Dugongs also called ‘Sea Cows’, are the largest herbivorous marine mammals. (Statement 1 is correct)

India’s First Dugong Conservation Reserve
India’s First Dugong Conservation Reserve

Habitat:

  • They thrive primarily on sea grasses in shallow coastal waters of the Indian and western Pacific Oceans.
  • They are found in the waters of some 40 countries and territories throughout the Indo-West Pacific.
  • There are only about 240 individuals estimated to be present in the country and the majority is found in Tamil Nadu coast (Palk Bay).

Protection status

  • Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 – Schedule 1.
  • IUCN Red List – Vulnerable. (Statement 2 is not correct)
  • CITES – Appendix 1.

Q) Recently in news, Lumpy Skin Disease has been affecting a lot of cattle. It is caused by –

  1. Bacteria
  2. Fungi
  3. Worms
  4. Viruses

Explanation:

Context: Mumbai Police have prohibited cattle transportation in the city to prevent the spread of the lumpy skin disease.

About the Disease:

Pathogen

  • The disease is caused by the lumpy skin disease virus (LSDV), which belongs to the genus capripoxvirus.

Spread

  • The virus is shed by animals through oral and nasal secretions which may contaminate common feeding and water areas.
  • The disease can spread either through direct contact with the vectors or through contaminated fodder and water.
  • It can also spread through artificial insemination.

Protective Measures

  • Quarantining animals, sanitizing sheds and spraying insecticides to stop vectors such as mosquitoes and other insects are some of the measures.

Economic Impact

  • Reduced milk production: The disease leads to reduction in milk production as the animal becomes weak and also loses appetite due to mouth ulceration.
  • Contamination of milk: There are chances of LSDV virus in milk derived from the infected animal. However, pasteurizing or boiling ensures that the virus is inactivated or destroyed.
  • Income losses: Loss of income can be due to reduced draught power capacity, abortions, infertility and lack of semen for artificial insemination.

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 23rd September 2022

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