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Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 19 October 2022

 

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC 2022

Q) Consider the following statements regarding Juvenile Justice Act, 2015

  1. It has allowed the trial of juveniles in conflict with the law in the age group of 16-18 years as adults, in cases where the crimes were to be determined.
  2. The Act streamlined adoption procedures for orphans abandoned and surrendered children.

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 2 only
  2. Both 1 and 2
  3. 1 only
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 18 October 2022

Explanation:

Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children Act) 2015

  • About
    • It was introduced and passed in Parliament in 2015 to replace the Juvenile Delinquency Law and the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children Act) 2000.
    • The Act seeks to achieve the objectives of the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Children as ratified by India on December 11, 1992.
  • Background
    • The Act was passed after the brutal gang rape and murder of a student in Delhi in December 2012. One of the six accused in the case was 17.
    • Following the crime, the Ministry of Child and Development proposed changes to the law to punish juvenile offenders, citing an increase in cases of offenders in that group.
  • Important provisions
    • It has allowed the trial of juveniles in conflict with the law in the age group of 16-18 years as adults, in cases where the crimes were to be determined. (Statement 1 is correct)
    • The nature of the crime, and whether the juvenile should be tried as a minor or a child, was to be determined by a Juvenile Justice Board.
    • The Act streamlined adoption procedures for orphans abandoned and surrendered children. (Statement 2 is correct)
    • The act had introduced foster care in India.
    • The existing Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) has been given the status of a statutory body to enable it to perform its function more effectively.
    • The law had also made provision that while adopting a child, priority is given to disabled children and physically and financially incapable children.
    • Special provisions have been made to tackle child offenders committing heinous offences in the age group of 16-18 years.
    • The Juvenile Justice Board is given the option to transfer cases of heinous offences by such children to a Children’s Court (Court of Session) after conducting the preliminary assessment.

Q) Consider the following statements regarding Juvenile Justice Boards?

  1. The JJB consists of chief judicial magistrate and two social workers, at least one of whom should be a woman.
  2. The tenure period for members of the board is 3 years. However, members can also be appointed consecutively for a maximum of two terms.

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. Both 1 and 2
  2. 1 only
  3. 2 only
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

What are Juvenile Justice Boards?

  • About: Juveniles accused of a crime or detained for a crime are brought before the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB) under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015.
  • Aim: To hold a child culpable for their criminal activity, not through punishment, but counselling the child to understand their actions and persuade them away from criminal activities in the future.
  • Structure: The JJB consists of judicial magistrate of the first class and two social workers, at least one of whom should be a woman. (Statement 1 is not correct)
  • Tenure: The tenure period for members of the board is 3 years. However, members can also be appointed consecutively for a maximum of two terms. (Statement 2 is correct)
  • Powers: The Bench shall have all the powers conferred by the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 on a Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate First Class.
  • Training for the Members: The onus of sensitizing and providing training to all the Board Members lies on the State Government.

Q) Which of the following is not a ground under which the centre can issue blocking orders to social media intermediaries?

  1. Defence of India
  2. Security of the state
  3. Public order
  4. Public Morality

Explanation:

Section 69 (A) of the Information Technology Act, 2000:

  • Under the law, the Centre can issue blocking orders to social media intermediaries for following reasons:
    • Interest of sovereignty and integrity of India
    • Security of the state
    • Friendly relations with foreign states
    • Defence of India
    • Maintaining public order
    • Preventing incitement to any cognizable offence

Blocking Procedure:

  • Section 69A enables the Centre to ask any agency of the government, or any intermediary, to block access to the public of any information generated, transmitted, received or stored or hosted on any computer resource.
  • The term ‘intermediaries’ includes providers of telecom service, network service, Internet service and web hosting, besides search engines, online marketplaces, online payment and auction sites and cyber cafes.
  • Under the rules, request made by the government is sent to a review committee, which can issue directions in writing. Blocking orders under the law are confidential in nature.

Q) Recently in news, the Sarkaria and Punchhi Commissions were set up to formulate recommendations on which of the following?

  1. Centre – State relations
  2. Powers of President and the Governor
  3. Judicial reform
  4. Inter-state water disputes

Explanation:

What attempts have been made to address concerns over the alleged partisan role played by Governors?

  • The Sarkaria Commission, 1983: It proposed that the Vice President of India and Speaker of Lok Sabha should be consulted by the Prime Minister in the selection of Governors.
  • The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution, 2000: The Commission suggested that the “Governor of a State should be appointed by the President, after consultation with the Chief Minister of that State.
  • The Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi Committee, 2007:
    • It recommended that that a committee comprising the Prime Minister, Home Minister, Vice President, Speaker, and the concerned Chief Minister should choose the Governor.
    • The Punchhi Committee recommended deleting the “Doctrine of Pleasure” from the Constitution, but backed the right of the Governor to sanction the prosecution of ministers against the advice of the state government.
    • It also argued for a provision for impeachment of the Governor by the state legislature.

Both these commissions were appointed to study and give recommendations on Centre – State relations.

Q) Consider the following statements regarding Powers of Remission.

  1. Under Article 72, the President of India has powers to remit a sentence. The power extends to a convict for crimes falling under the central government’s jurisdiction.
  2. The governor of a state has powers to grant remission under Article 161 including death penalty.
  3. Under the Prisons Act, both – Union and State governments can frame rules for granting remission.

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 only

Explanation:

Powers on remission

Remission is releasing a convicted prisoner before the expiry of their sentence. The concept of remission was introduced through the Prisons Act, 1894.

  • Constitutional: Under Article 72, the President of India has powers to remit a sentence. The power extends to a convict for crimes falling under the central government’s jurisdiction — including court-martial verdicts. (Statement 1 is correct)
    • The governor of a state has powers to grant remission under Article 161. The governor cannot commute death penalty or death penalty commuted to life sentence. (Statement 2 is not correct)
  • Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC): Sections 432, 433, 434 and 435 of CrPC have relevant provisions which deal with the powers of the elected government to grant remission.
    • The state government can set up a board to consider the remission application of a convict serving a life sentence.
    • Section 432 of the CrPC says the state government may seek the opinion of the trial court judge before deciding on remission.
    • Section 435 of the CrPC says the state government needs to consult the Centre for deciding a remission application if the prosecuting agency falls under the central government.
  • Prisons Act: Under this act, only state governments can frame rules for granting remission. The union government can release non-binding guidelines in this regard. (Statement 3 is not correct)

Q) Which of these Assamese festivals are correctly matched correctly with their time of occurrence?

  1. Bohag Bihu – April
  2. Kongali Bihu – Mid – October
  3. Magh Bihu – Mid – December

Select the correct answer from the code below.

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. All of the above
  3. 2 only
  4. 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

About Bihu Festivals

Bihu is a set of three important Assamese festivals in the Indian state of Assam. They include the following:

  • Rongali or Bohag Bihu:
    • Also called Xaat Bihu is a traditional ethnic festival observed in the month of April.
    • It marks the beginning of the Assamese New Year. (Statement 1 is correct)
    • The Rongali Bihu coincides with Sikh New Year- Baisakhi.
  • Kati or Kongali Bihu:
    • It marks the beginning of the harvest season. The word “Kati” means “cut”, which signifies the time when the relocation of rice saplings takes place.
    • It is celebrated on the first day of the Kati month in the Assamese calendar, which usually falls during mid-October. (Statement 2 is correct)
    • During the Kati Bihu, lamps or saaki (candles) are lit outside homes as well as in paddy fields in the evenings to pray for better cropping returns in the next season.
  • Bhogali or Magh Bihu:
    • It is a harvest festival which marks the end of harvesting season in the month of Magh (January–February). (Statement 3 is not correct)
    • A bonfire (Meji) is lit for the ceremonial conclusion and prayer to the God of Fire.

Q) Consider the following statements regarding Interpol

  1. The Interpol, or International Criminal Police Organization, established in 1923, is an inter-governmental organisation comprising 195 member countries.
  2. The National Investigation Agency (NIA) in India is officially designated single point of contact for liaison with the Interpol.

Which of these statements are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. Both 1 and 2
  3. 2 only
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

What is Interpol?

  • The Interpol, or International Criminal Police Organization, established in 1923, is an inter-governmental organisation comprising 195 member countries, which helps police forces in all these countries to better coordinate their actions. (Statement 1 is correct)
  • According to the Interpol website, the organisation enables member countries to share and access data on crimes and criminals, and offers a range of technical and operational support.
  • The Interpol general secretariat coordinates the organisation’s day-to-day activities. It is run by a secretary-general (currently Jurgen Stock of Germany, who has been Interpol’s chief executive since 2014), with its headquarters in Lyon, France, with a global complex for innovation in Singapore, and several satellite offices in different regions.
  • Interpol has a National Central Bureau (NCB) in each member country, which is the central point of contact for both the general secretariat and the other NCBs around the world. Each NCB is run by police officials of that country, and usually sits in the government ministry responsible for policing. (Home Ministry in India.)
  • —The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) in India is officially designated single point of contact for liaison with the Interpol. (Statement 2 is not correct)

Q) Recently, Embassy of Japan has sought GI tag for Nihonshu. What is it?

  1. Medicinal Flower
  2. Alcoholic Beverage
  3. Native Dish
  4. Manufacturing Process

Explanation:

Context: Embassy of Japan has sought GI tag for alcoholic beverage Nihonshu.

About Nihonshu

  • It is also known as Japanese Sake, and is made from fermenting rice. The process originated and developed in Japan.
  • Making: The beverage is made using three raw materials—sakamai rice, water and koji-kin (fungal spore).
    • The brew uses water from springs or underground sources and make sure that there is no iron or manganese in it.
    • Koji is the yellow mould that converts starch to sugar. Earlier, it was collected from the wild.
    • The production follows a fermentation method called parallel multiple fermentation. It involves raw material treatment, koiji making, starting culture, mash making, pressing heat sterilization and finally bottling.

Q) Arrange the following places from North to South.

  1. Hokkaido
  2. Sakhalin Island
  3. Kamchatka
  4. Iturup Island

Select the correct answer from the code below

  1. 1, 2, 4, 3
  2. 3, 1, 2, 4
  3. 3, 2, 4, 1
  4. 3, 4, 2, 1

Explanation:

Kamchatka – Sakhalin – Iturup – Hokkaido

MAP
MAP

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 20 October 2022

 

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