Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 11 November 2022

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC 2022

Q) With respect to Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update) Regulations, 2016, consider the following statements:

1. The regulations require the Aadhaar number holders to mandatory update their biometric and demographic data every five years.
2. As per the Aadhaar Act of 2016, any person who has resided in India for 182 days in a given year is entitled to obtain Aadhaar number.
3. Unique Identification Authority of India maintains the information about the purpose of Aadhaar authentication generated by third parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 10  November 2022

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: According to Aadhaar (Enrolment and Update) Regulations, 2016,at least once every 10 years from the date of enrolment in Aadhaar, Aadhaar number holders are required to update their supporting documents by submitting proof of identity (POI) and proof of address (POA) documents. The amendment noted that the updation would ensure “continued accuracy” of Aadhaar-related information in the Central Identities Data Repository (CIDR). This updating process initiated now for Aadhaar issued 10 years back relates to the updating of demographic information and does not involve biometric update.
• Statement 2 is correct: Under the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 aims to provide for good governance, efficient, transparent, and targeted delivery of subsidies, benefits and services, the expenditure for which is incurred from Consolidated Fund of India or State. Every resident (a person who has resided in India for 182 days) shall be entitled to obtain an Aadhaar number.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) database has only minimal information that you give at the time of enrolment or update. This includes your name, address, gender, date of birth, ten finger prints, two Iris scans, facial photograph, mobile number (optional) and email ID (optional). In fact, Section 32(3) of the Aadhaar Act 2016 specifically prohibits UIDAI from controlling, collecting, keeping or maintaining any information about the purpose of authentication either by itself or through any entity. Aadhaar is an identifier, not a profiling tool.

Q) With respect to Ease of living Index (EoLI), consider the following statements:

1. NITI Aayog is responsible for conducting the Ease of living Index (EoLI).
2. Ease of living Index (EoLI) evaluates the quality of life and the impact of various initiatives for urban development.
3. For the first time citizen perception survey will be conducted as part of Ease of living Index (EoLI), 2022.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1. 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Ease of Living Index (EoLI) is an assessment tool that evaluates the quality of life and the impact of various initiatives for urban development. It provides a comprehensive understanding of participating cities across India based on quality of life, economic-ability of a city, and its sustainability and resilience. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affair (MoHUA) is responsible for providing methodology and conducting the Ease of living Index (EoLI).
• Statement 2 is correct: The Ease of Living Index (EoLI) is an assessment tool that evaluates the quality of life and the impact of various initiatives for urban development. It provides a comprehensive understanding of participating cities across India based on quality of life, economic-ability of a city, and its sustainability and resilience.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Citizen Perception Survey is launched under Ease of Living Index-2022 for 264 cities to capture citizens’ feedback about their city. It is an initiative to undertake a transparent and comprehensive assessment of cities based on cross-city outcomes across major sectors. Citizen Perception Survey was first conducted in 2020.

Q) With respect to Earthquakes waves consider the following statements:

1. The secondary waves can pass through outer core region of Earth.
2. The primary waves create troughs and crests in the surfaces it passes through.
3. The shadow zone of secondary wave is much larger than that of the primary waves.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: An earthquake is a sudden, rapid shaking of the ground caused a result of sudden release of energy in the Earth’s lithosphere. It is caused by the movement of plates, volcanic eruption, breaking of underground rocks due to water pressure, nuclear explosion. Body wave travelling through the interior of the Earth are of two types: P waves or primary waves and S waves, or secondary waves. S waves, or secondary waves, arrive after P waves. These waves travel in a transversal direction (particles of the medium vibrate perpendicular to direction of propagation), only through solid medium. Hence they cannot pass outer core as it is consists of molten iron and nickel and thus is liquid in state.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: P-waves vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave. This exerts pressure on the material in the direction of the propagation. As a result, it creates density differences in the material leading to stretching and squeezing of the material. Other three waves vibrate perpendicular to the direction of propagation. The direction of vibrations of S-waves is perpendicular to the wave direction in the vertical plane. Hence, they create troughs and crests in the material through which they pass.
• Statement 3 is correct: Earthquake waves get recorded in seismographs located at far off locations. However, there exist some specific areas where the waves are not reported. Such a zone is called the ‘shadow zone’. The study of different events reveals that for each earthquake, there exists an altogether different shadow zone. It was observed that seismographs located at any distance within 105° from the epicentre, recorded the arrival of both P and S-waves. Thus, a zone between 105° and 145° from epicentre was identified as the shadow zone for both P and S-waves. The entire zone beyond 105° does not receive S-waves. The shadow zone of S-wave is much larger than that of the P-waves. The shadow zone of P-waves appears as a band around the earth between 105° and 145° away from the epicentre. The shadow zone of S-waves is not only larger in extent but it is also a little over 40 per cent of the earth surface.

Q) Consider the following statements, with reference to Atal New India Challenge (ANIC):

1. ANIC is flagship program of Atal Innovation Mission under NITI Aayog.
2. ANIC provides funding support of upto 1 crore to selected start-ups till the prototype stage.
3. ANIC aims to provide innovative solutions to hygiene related issues faced by women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: Atal New India Challenge is a flagship program of Atal Innovation Mission, NITI Aayog. The programaims to seek, select, support and nurture technology-based innovations that solve sectoral challenges of national importance and societal relevance. It would help create products from existing technologies that solve problems of national importance and societal relevance. It also help new solutions find markets and early customers (commercialization) in the context of India.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Atal New India Challenge aims to address the second Commercialization Valley of Death for start-ups by supporting innovators scale over the risks associated with access to resources for testing, piloting and market creation. ANIC solicits innovations in the prototype stage and supports the selected start-ups through to the commercialization stage over a course of 12 – 18 months by funding up to INR 1 croreand other associated support from the AIM innovation ecosystem.
• Statement 3 is correct: Recently Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog launched Woman centric challenges under phase-II of the 2nd edition of the Atal New India Challenge (ANIC) focusing the Woman centric challenges. ANIC’s Woman centric challenges address the major issues faced by woman from all spheres of life. These include driving women hygiene through innovation, innovations to improve women’s safety, professional networking opportunities for women, innovations that make working mothers’ life better, and easing the life of Rural Women.

Q) With reference to Measles disease, consider the following statements:

1. Measles is a contagious disease caused by varicella-zoster virus.
2. RT-PCR test is the most common way of detecting measles.
3. At present there is no vaccine available in India for preventing measles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Measles disease is caused by a single-stranded, enveloped RNA virus. It is a member of the genus Morbillivirus in the Paramyxoviridae family. Its symptoms are: high fever, cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis. Red rash begins to appear after 14 days of exposure.
• Statement 2 is correct: Detection of measles-specific IgM antibody in serum and measles RNA by real-time polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) in a respiratory specimen are the most common methods for confirming measles infection. Urine samples may also contain virus, and when feasible to do so, collecting both respiratory and urine samples can increase the likelihood of detecting measles virus.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Measles can be prevented with measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine. There is no specific antiviral therapy treatment for measles. In India, Measles Rubella vaccination is given under Universal Immunization Programme at 9-12 months of age and 2nd dose at 16-24 months of age.

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